• At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in

the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and
speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean head-wind component significant change
is:

• 5 KT
• 10 KT
• 8 KT
• 4 KT

• Lights on and in the vicinity of aerodromes may be turned off, provided that they can be
again brought into operation:

• At least 30 minutes before the expected arrival of an aircraft

• At least 15 minutes before the expected arrival of an aircraft
• At least 5 minutes before the expected arrival of an aircraft
• At least one hour before the expected arrival of an aircraft

• You are the pilot of an aircraft departing VFR from FAVG (Virginia airport) which has an
elevation of 20 ft. The flight will be conducted at FL 65 to a rural airfield 116 nm way. FAVG
is 15 nm from FAEL (elevation 304 ft) which has a transition altitude of 5500 ft. After take-
off, at which altitude must you change the altimeter sub-scale setting to 1013.25 hPa?

• 5920 ft
• 5800 ft
• 2420 ft
• 5500 ft

• The system minima for a NDB/VOR approach is:

• 250 ft.
• 300 ft.
• 350 ft.

• The system minima for a DME/VOR approach is:

• 250 ft.
• 300 ft.
• 350 ft.

• On a return to the IAF from a missed approach, the correct action is to:

• Enter the holding pattern.

• Commence a further letdown
• The pilot will decide whether to do another approach or to divert.
• Ask ATC for further instructions.

• Aerodrome Operating Minima, the Category III A Operation, is a precision instrument

approach and landing using ILS or MLS with a decision height lower than 100 feet an RVR
(runway visual range) no less than:
• 200 m
• 250 m
• 230 m
• 300 m

• An approaching aircraft may descent below the MSA if :

• the pilot has the field and the underlying terrain in sight and will keep it in
sight;
• the aircraft gets radar vectors ;
• the pilot is following the published approach procedure

• Runway-lead-in lighting should consist:

• of group of at least three white lights flashing in sequence towards the

runway;
• always of a straight row of lights towards the runway
• of flashing lights only;
• of an arbitrary amount of green lights;

• A GBAS provides guidance relative to the:

• En route track accuracy in areas with low satellite coverage

• Final approach course and glide path
• Vertical flight path during a Baro-VNAV approach
• LNAV portion of a RNAV approach

• An airport has no approach lighting, but has runway lighting. The MDA is 5 085 ft and the
threshold elevation is 4 500 ft, the required RVR for a category A aircraft is:

• 1 500 m.
• 1 000 m
• 2 400 m.
• 2000 m

• The speeds used to establish the five approach categories of aircraft in accordance with
ICAO Doc 8168 and the RSA AIP are referenced to:

• Calibrated airspeed
• Indicated airspeed
• True airspeed
• Ground speed

• A category II precision approach (CAT II) is an approach with:

• a decision height of at least 100 ft
• a decision height of at least 200 ft
• a decision height of at least 50 ft
• no decision height

• Which of the following factors is unlikely to cause a loss of RAIM?

• Unsuitable satellite geometry

• GBAS failure
• Antenna locators on the aircraft
• Changes in the aircraft pitch or bank angle

• Runway centre line lights shall be provided:

• On precision approach runways, CAT II and III.

• On other given runways, when it is necessary for operational reasons.
• Both (a) and (b) are correct.
• Nil

• The MDH for a VOR instrument approach procedures shall never be less than:

• 250 ft
• 500 ft
• 300 ft
• 200 ft

• A Category B aeroplane is inbound to Welkom for the NDB approach. The aeroplane
operator has determined a MDH of 730ft. The required RVR will be:

• 1 300 m.
• 1 500 m.
• 2 500 m.
• Nil

• What is the difference between a fly-by waypoint and a flyover waypoint.

• A flyover waypoint requires electronic (GNSS) turn anticipation

• A flyby waypoint is one at which a turn is initiated in order to join the next segment of
a route or procedure
• A flyover waypoint is not compulsory point
• A fly-by waypoint allows interception of the next leg without directly overflying
the point

• You are on final approach to a runway with a PAPI lighting system. You observe the left
bank of lights indicating three white lights and one red, and the right hand bank of lights
indicating three red and one white. Your actions would be:
• Obey the left hand set of lights, since it is better to be too high.
• Obey the right hand set of lights, since you are only slightly low.
• Ignore the PAPI system altogether
• Nil

• On a RNAV instrument approach chart, the intermediate approach fix is indicated by:

• The letters IAF

• Adding the suffix “T” to the ICAO aerodrome locator code
• The letters IF
• Adding the suffix F to the RNAV chart name and runway designator

• The “PAPI" shall consist of:

• Two wing bars of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced.
• Two wing bars of 6 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced.
• A wing bar of 4 sharp transition multi-lamp or paired units equally spaced.
• A wing bar of 2 sharp transition multi-lamp equally spaced.
• The Aircraft Autonomous Integrity Monitoring (AAIM) function of an aircraft receiver is
performed using:

• Information from other on board navigation equipment in addition to satellite

signals
• Satellite signals only
• Differential GPS
• Ground relay station

• System Minima for a VOR approach is:

• 300 feet.
• 250 feet.
• 350 feet.
• 200 ft

• In terms of RNAV instrument approach procedures, a standard TAA arrangement consists

of three areas. These are:

• CTA, TMA and CTR

• Racetrack or reversal procedure, approach and missed approach segments
• Initial approach, intermediate approach and final approach segments
• Straight in, left base and right base areas

• The letters “SALS” appear under aerodrome lighting in the AIP. This is the abbreviation
for:

• Short approach light system

• Simple approach light system.
• Sectional approach light system.
• Nil
• Which of the following options is most correct? You are the pilot of an aircraft departing
VFR for a cross country flight from a local gravel runway called DUPONT (FADP). Your
planned cruising level is FL 65. FADP has an elevation of 3900 ft. The runway is 8 nm
from Wonderboom (FAWB) aerodrome (elevation 4095 ft) but is not inside the CTR.
FAWB has a transition altitude of 8000 ft. After take-off, when must you change the
altimeter sub-scale setting to 1013.25 hPa?

• When you exit the circuit pattern at FADP

• When you are not flying in the vicinity of the aerodrome any longer
• Passing 5900 ft
• When you pass a distance of 25 nm from FAWB

• Aerodrome Operating Minima, an operator must ensure that system minima for "non-
precision approach procedures", which are based upon the use of ILS without glidepath
(LLZ only), VOR and NDB, are no lower than MDH following value with:

• NDB facility, lowest MDH=300 ft

• ILS facility without glidepath (localizer) lowest MDH=200 ft
• VOR facility, lowest MDH=250 ft
• VOR/DME facility, lowest MDH=300 ft

• Missed approach point means:

• The point in an instrument approach procedure at or before which the

prescribed missed approach procedure shall be initiated.
• A defined point on the final approach of a non-precision approach procedure from
which a normal descent from the MDA to the runway touchdown point may be
commenced, provided that the visual references are present.
• The point in an instrument approach procedure after which the prescribed missed
approach procedure shall be initiated.

• A " RNAV" distance based separation minimum may be used at the time the level is
crossed, provided that each aircraft reports its distance to or from the same " on track"
way-point. This minimum is:

• 60 NM.
• 50 NM.
• 20 NM.
• 80 NM.

• The main differences between precision and non-precision approaches is that:

• Non-precision approaches use neither localiser nor glideslope information for

guidance
• Only precision approaches use vertical guidance
• No electronic glide path guidance is provided in the case of non-precision
approaches
• Lower heights may be descended to using precision approach guidance installations

• DH for a category 1 ILS approach shall never be less than:

• 150 ft.
• 200 ft.
• 250 ft.
• 300 ft

• When is a Terminal Arrival Altitude used?

• To provide a transition from the en route structure to an RNAV approach

procedure
• The term ‘minimum sector altitude’ applies to departing aircraft and the term
’terminal arrival altitude’ applied to arriving aircraft
• It replaces the MSA when an aircraft is under radar control in a TMA
• It is used in RVSM airspace because the standard MSA terrain clearance is
excessive and causes air traffic congestion.

• During an ILS approach, category 1, the RVR must be at least:

• 1 000 m.
• 550 m.
• 800 ft.
• 750 ft

• During an approach the PAPI displays four white lights on either side of the runway. That
means that:

• The approach slope is not yet intercepted. Level flight should be maintained.
• The correct approach slope has been intercepted and should be maintained
• The aircraft is too close to the runway in relation to its height.
• Nil

• A GBAS landing system (GLS) is:

• An approach and landing system using ground based installations e.g: ILS and
VOR/DME
• A GNSS precision approach and landing system using correction signals from
your VHF ground-based station
• Any GNSS approach flown using satellite guidance signals from the Russian
GLONASS system
• An approach and landing operation using standard ILS glideslope information for
vertical guidance and a GNSS SBAS for enhanced lateral guidance
• A Category III B operations, is a precision instrument approach and landing using ILS or
MLS with, a decision height lower than 50 ft, or no decision height and a runway visual
range lower than 200 m but no less than:

• 75 m
• 150 m
• 100 m
• 50 m

• At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in

the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and
speed shall be transmitted to aircraft. The mean tail-wind component significant change is:

• 5 KT
• 4 KT
• 3 KT
• 2 KT

• On an approach to Tzaneen, comply with the cloud break NDB RWY 24 Approach, you
descend to MDA/H. Cloud base is last reported as 350 ft, visibility 1500 m. What will you
see first?

• Runway lights
• Approach lights
• PAPI
• Runway surface

• Select the option that contains the ICAO definition of the term “minimum sector altitude”
according to ICAO Doc 8168

• The minimum altitude for a defined segment that provides the required obstacle
clearance
• The minimum altitude to be used under instrument met conditions (IMC) that
provides a minimum obstacle clearance within a specified area, normally formed by
parallels and meridians
• The lowest altitude which may be used which will provide a minimum clearance of
450 m (1500 ft) above all objects located in an area contained within a sector of a
circle of 46 km (25 nm) radius centred on a radio aid to navigation.
• The lowest altitude which may be used which will provide a minimum
clearance of 300 m (1000 ft) above all obstacles located in an area contained
within a sector of 46 km (25 nm) radius centred on a radio aid to navigation.

• In a Precision Approach (ILS) the final approach segment begins:

• FAF
• FAP
• MAP
• IF

• Which of the different approach techniques listed below does the following definition from
ICAO Doc 8168 refer to?
“A technique, consistent with stabilised approach procedures, for flying the final
approach segment of a non-precision instrument approach procedure as a
continuous descent without level off, from an altitude/height at or above the final
approach fix altitude/height to a point approximately 15 m (50 ft) above the landing
runway threshold or the point where the flare manoeuvre should begin for the type
of aircraft flown”

• Circling approach
• Precision approach (PA) procedure
• Procedure turn
• Continuous descent final approach (CDFA)

• All procedures contained in ICAO Doc 8168 depict tracks. What are pilots expected to do
in this regard?

• Supplement all raw flight data with GNSS data to ensure compliance with published
tracks
• Be knowledgeable about the requirements of doc 8168 Volume II to ensure obstacle
clearance
• Attempt to maintain the track by applying corrections to heading for known
wind
• Ensure the heading flown corresponds to the depicted track to within 5°

• Within the Annex to the ICAO convention that specifies dimensions of aerodromes is a
specific dimension given for the approach light system for CAT 1 ILS. What should be the
length of this approach light system?

• 420 metres
• 900 metres
• 1000 metres
• 1200 metres

• In an Instrument Approach the segment in which alignment and descent for landing are
made is:

• Initial approach
• Final approach
• Intermediate approach
• Arrival

• A departure procedure where no track guidance is provided, is called:

• An operator specific departure
• A free departure
• An omnidirectional departure
• A VMC departure

• Taxiway centre line lights other than an exit taxiway shall be:

• Fixed lights showing blue.

• Fixed lights showing yellow.
• Fixed lights showing white.
• Fixed lights showing green.

• "Clearway" is defined rectangular area established to:

• Reduce the risk of damage to aircraft running off a runway.

• Protect aircraft during take-off or landing operations.
• Permit aircraft to make a portion of its initial climb to a specific height.
• Permit the aircraft to stop if it fails the take-off.

• Refer to ICAO Doc 8168 Volume 1:

As far as the construction of instrument departure procedures at an aerodrome is
concerned, how is the problem addressed in cases where obstacles cannot be cleared by
the appropriate margin when an aircraft is flown on instruments?

• Aircraft take-off weight is adjusted until compliance with the departure climb gradient
is possible
• A straight departure is specified which is aligned with the runway centre line
• This situation is not allowed in terms of the requirements for aerodrome design and
placement
• Aerodrome operating minima are established to permit visual flight clear of
obstacles

• A 45°/180° procedure turn starts at a fix or facility is followed by a straight leg with track
guidance, a 45° turn, a straight leg without track guidance and a 180° turn in the opposite
direction to intercept the inbound track. The straight leg without track guidance is:

• 1 min 15 sec from the start of the turn for Category C, D and E aircraft
• 1 min from completion of the turn for Category A to D aircraft
• 1 min from the completion of the turn for Category A and B aircraft or when reaching
the limiting radial or DME distance, whichever happens earlier
• 1 min from the start of the turn or reaching the limiting DME distance, whichever
happens earlier

• The final approach of an instrument approach procedure is the segment where:

• The outer marker has been passed

• The localiser, inbound radial or NDB bearing are intercepted
• The aircraft is aligned with the runway centre line
• Alignment and descent for landing are made

• “TODA” take-off distance available is:

• The length of the take-off run available plus the length of clearway available (if
provided).
• The length of the runway available plus the length of clearway available (if
provided).
• The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stopway and clearway
(if provided).
• The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stopway.

• In terms of aircraft operations conducted in accordance with ICAO Doc 8168, when flying
a departure procedure with a specified track, a pilot is expected to:

• Compensate for drift only

• Compensate for known or estimated wind effects
• Fly the specified heading within 5°
• Fly a heading only

• What does the abbreviation DER mean?

• Distance end of route.

• Departure end of route.
• Departure end of runway.
• Distance end of runway.

• What is the range of speeds for an initial approach for a Category B aircraft that is used in
instrument approach procedures design?

• 120 kts to 180 kts

• 121 kts or more but less than 141 kts IAS
• 91 kts or more but less than 121 kts IAS
• The indicated airspeed at threshold which is equal to the stall speed VSO multiplied
by 1.3

• The MSA, which must be established around a navigation facility, is in general valid within
a sector of:

• 25 NM
• 10 NM
• 15 NM
• 30 NM

• Which of the following is a characteristic of the intermediate approach segment?

• It requires positive radar identification

• The commencement of descent on final approach
• It allows uninterrupted descents from higher altitudes
• The descent gradient is kept as shallow as possible
• During an ILS approach the pilot should, on reaching the DH and still being IMC:

• Carry out the MAP

• Maintain DH until the missed approach point
• Obtain ATC approval before going around
Ask for a CAT II Approach

• A continuous descent final approach is flown:

• Either with VNAV guidance or by manual calculation of the required rate of descent
• With precision vertical guidance
• By helicopters only
• Using a MLS (microwave landing system) installation

• The descent on the inbound track may only be started when:

• Inbound turn has been completed

• Within full scale deflection for the ILS/VOR
• Within 5° of the required bearing for the NDB
• Once overhead the OM

• In general, when may a pilot descend to MDA if executing a non-precision approach

without a final approach fix?

• Once he receives a clearance from ATC

• It is impossible to determine the descent point without further information
• Once the beacon marking the IAF is crossed
• Once the aircraft is established inbound on the final approach track.

• The Final Approach Segment (instrument) is defined as:

• Part of an Instrument Approach Procedure in which alignment and descent for

landing are accomplished
• The section of an Instrument Approach between the Final Approach Fix and
the Decision Altitude
• The segment of an Instrument Approach Procedure between the middle marker and
the MAP
• The segment of the Instrument Approach Procedure from the Initial Fix to the
Intermediate Fix

• ICAO PANS-OPS refer: A holding area:

• Is sufficiently large to allow deceleration from cruise speed

• Has additional protection around the entry area to accommodate the entry
procedure
• Has a safety buffer of 5 nm which guarantees 1000 ft of obstacle clearance to its
border
• Has an additional 1969 ft of obstacle clearance over high terrain or in
mountainous areas

• What is a Terminal Approach Altitude (TAA)?

• An altitude that provides obstacle clearance and replaces the MSA for RNAV
approaches
• The highest altitude indicated in a STAR procedure
• The term that replaces the outdated term “initial approach altitude”
• The altitude that an inbound aircraft is at when it enters a TMA on a radar vector
• If in an instrument departure procedure the track to be followed by the aeroplane is
published, the pilot is expected:

• To request from ATC different heading for wind correction.

• To ignore the wind and proceed on an heading equal to the track.
• To request clearance from ATC for applying a wind correction.
• To correct for known wind to remain within the protected airspace.

• As far as the entry into a holding pattern is concerned, the still air time for flying the
outbound entry heading should not exceed:

• 1 min if at or below 14 000 ft

• 2 mins if above 14 000 ft
• 1 ½ mins if at or below 14 000 ft
• 1 min at any altitude

• In an instrument departure procedure the minimum obstacle clearance at the departure

end of runway equals:

• 3.3 % gradient.
• 35 ft.
• 0.8 % gradient.
• 0 ft.

• ICAO Doc 8168 PANS-OPS refers: As far as departure procedures are concerned, what is
a responsibility of the operator?

• Liaison with ICAO for approval of operator-specific departure procedures

• The implementation of all procedures described in PANS-OPS, Vol II, Part I, section
3
• Compensation for known or estimated wind effects
• The development of contingency procedures in case of engine failure or an
emergency in flight which occurs after V1

• Select the correct statement:

• SID clearances are issued only if requested by the pilot

• A pilot must accept a SID if issued
• At the discretion of ATC
• SIDs are established at certain airports primarily to simplify clearance
delivery procedures

• Which of the terms listed below is described in the following definition from ICAO Doc
8168?
“The altitude for an en route segment that provides adequate reception of relevant
navigation facilities and TAS communications, complies with the airspace structure
and provides the required obstacle clearance”

• Minimum obstacle clearance altitude (MOCA). The minimum altitude for a defined
segment that provides the required obstacle clearance
• Area minimum altitude (AMA)
• Obstacle clearance altitude (OCA)
• Minimum en route altitude (MEA)

• ICAO Doc 8168 recommends that pilots should not accept radar vectors during departure
unless:

• They are above the minimum altitude required to maintain obstacle clearance
in the event of engine failure
• There is no published MSA or TAA
• Low visibility procedures are in force
• They are established on a SID

• During an ILS procedure, if the information transmitted by the appropriate services and
received by the crew contains parameters below the crew’s operational minimums, the
point beyond which the approach must not be continued is:

• the outer marker (OM).

• the FAF.
• the middle marker.
• the start final descent point (glide slope intersection).

• If an instrument approach procedure does not have an intermediate fix, where will the
intermediate approach segment be?

• Between the end of the reversal, racetrack or dead reckoning track procedure
and the final approach fix / point
• After the entry into the hold has been completed
• Intermediate approach segments are only applicable to standard routes or vectored
approaches
• After the descent on the final outbound leg is commenced

• The protection areas associated with instrument approach procedures are determined
with the assumption that turns are performed at a bank angle of:

• 25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure and
approach instrument procedures, as well as circle-to-land, and 15° for missed
approach procedures.
• The bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate for all procedures with airspeed limitation
related to aeroplane categories.
• 25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure and
approach instrument procedures, 25° for circling-to-land with prescribed flight tracks
and 15° for missed approach procedures.
• 25° or the bank angle giving a 3°/s turn rate, whichever is lower, for departure,
approach or missed approach instrument procedures, as well as circling-to-
land (with or without prescribed flight tracks).

• Closed runways and taxiways are indicated by:

• Displaying crosses in the centre of the unserviceable part as well as at each end of
the unserviceable part.
• Crosses of a single contrasting colour, yellow or white, displayed horizontally
on runways and taxiways or parts thereof indicate an area unfit for movement
of aircraft.
• Double crosses at each end of the unserviceable part as well as in the centre of the
unserviceable part.

• If a pilot loses visual contact with the runway while circling to land from an instrument
approach he must do the following:

• Initiate a go-around immediately, maintaining a minimum climb gradient of 2.5%.

climb straight ahead. At the first point where 50 m (164 ft) obstacle clearance is
obtained, start a climbing turn with a track change of a maximum of 15°
• If a turn is prescribed, start it as soon as operationally possible, maintaining an IAS
as slow as for the intermediate missed approach segment. Comply with all
annotations on approach charts and execute the appropriate manoeuvres without
undue delay
• Proceed to the missed approach point (or to the middle marker fix or specified DME
distance for precision approach procedures) and then follow the published missed
approach procedure
• Initiate a climbing turn, within the circling area, towards the landing runway.
Return to cruising altitude or higher, immediately followed by interception and
execution of the missed approach procedure

• A Category C aircraft can carry out an indirect approach followed by a visual manoeuver
only if the horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to:

• 2400 m
• 3600 m
• 1600 m
• 1500 m

• During circling-to-land ( with or without prescribed flight tracks), the maximum allowed
airspeed for a Cat B aeroplane, in order to remain within the protection envelope, is:
• 135 kt
• 120 kt
• 125 kt
• 150 kt

• In the ILS-approach, the OCA is referenced to:

• Aerodrome reference point.

• Relevant runway threshold.
• Aerodrome elevation.
• Mean sea level.

• What is the maximum speed for reversal and racetrack procedures for a Category B
aircraft?

• 140 kts
• 180 kts
• 91 kts
• 120 kts

• What should a pilot do when an instrument approach chart does not specify speed limits?

• Comply with airspace speed limitations only

• If ATC cancels speed restrictions the pilot may fly at any speed
• Fly at the speed used to calculate the category of aircraft
• Adhere to the calculated speeds used in the design of PANS-OPS approach
procedures

• Generally in which conditions does ICAO Doc 8168 recommend that reduced power
should not be required for take-off?

• It should preferably never be used

• Airport noise abatement procedures take priority in terms of reduced power take-offs
• Adverse operating conditions including contaminated runways, visibility
restriction, stronger tailwinds and reported windshear
• Adverse operating conditions such as engine failures

• A category III C precision approach (CAT III C) is an approach with:

• no runway visual range limits

• a runway visual range of at least 50 m
• a runway visual range of at least 200 m
• a runway visual range of at least 350 m

• How many separate segments does an instrument approach procedure have.

• 3.
• 4.
• Up to 5.
• Up to 4.

• You are the PIC of an aircraft inbound to FAOR at FL 140. Due to airspace congestion
ATC gives you holding instructions for the PNV radio beacon. The duration of the holds
which you will fly should be:

• 5 mins
• 6 mins
• 3 mins
• 4 mins

• What does the term "way point" mean:

• A specified geographical position used to define an area navigation route or

the flight path of an aircraft employing area navigation
• A defined position on an aerodrome used for the calibration of the inertial navigation
system
• A signal indicating the direction of the runway-in-use
• A general term meaning the taxiway- and the runway-system of an international
airport

• Aerodrome Operating Minima, it is established, among other considerations, that an

Operator must take full account of Aeroplane Categories. The criteria taken into
consideration for classification of Aeroplanes by Categories is the indicated airspeed at
threshold (Vat), which is equal to the stalling speed at the maximum landing mass (Vso)
multiplied by 1,3.
Corresponding Aeroplane Category when Vat is from 141 kt to 165 kt is:

• D
• B
• C
• E

• When establishing an instrument approach procedure, 5 aircraft categories according to

their speed at the threshold (Vat) are established. This speed is equal to the stalling speed
in the landing configuration at the maximum certified landing weight multiplied by a factor
of:

• 1.3
• 1.45
• 1.5
• 1.15

• Under which conditions may an aircraft on a straight-in-VOR approach continue its

descend below the OCA?

• When the aircraft has the control tower in sight

• When the aircraft is in contact with the ground but not with the runway in sight yet
• When the aircraft is in visual contact with the ground and with the runway
lights in sight
• When seems possible to land

• Reversal procedure timing of the leg after the 45 degree turn for CAT C and D aircraft:

• 45 seconds
• 1 minute
• 1 minute 15 seconds
• 1 minute 30 seconds.

• ICAO PANS-OPS refers: What are the 2 different types of instrument approach and
landing operations that can be conducted using Baro-VNAV equipment

• Straight in and circling approaches

• Approaches with vertical guidance and non-precision approaches
• IFR and VFR operations
• Precision and non-precision approaches

• In general, which is the main factor that dictates the design of an instrument departure
procedure?

• The terrain surrounding the airport.

• ATC requirements.
• Navigation aids.
• Airspace restrictions.

• The lowest RVR minima to be used for a Category I precision approach is:

• 1200 m
• 800 m
• 550 m
• 200 ft

• If a step down fix is established on the final approach track, a descend shall be made so
as to:

• follow approximately 50 feet above the nominal glide path.

• pass the fix at the rate of descent of 500 feet/min, which is obligatory.
• leave the intermediate approach altitude, step by step until reaching the MAPt.
• pass the fix not below the specified crossing altitude.
• Which of the following options are incorrect? An RNAV (GNSS) approach may not be
flown unless:

• The avionics database presents the waypoints in the same sequence as the
published procedure chart
• Any incomplete waypoint information in the database has been updated by manual
pilot input
• The operator, aircraft, equipment and flight crew have been state approved
• The avionics database contains all the waypoints depicted in the planned approach
• In an offset entry into an omnidirectional racetrack procedure, the time on the 30° offset
track is limited to:

• 1 minute.
• 1 minute 30 seconds.
• 2 minutes.
• 3 minutes.

• When a pilot conducts an instrument approach procedure using a racetrack pattern,

descent after the inbound turn may not be started until.

• The aircraft is established on the inbound track

• The outer marker has been passed
• The wings are level on the inbound heading
• His position has been reported to ATC and he has been cleared to MDA/H or DA/H

• What is a " barrette" ?

• three or more ground lights closely spaced together to appear as a bar of

lights.
• a high obstacle near the runway and/or taxiway.
• a CAT II or III holding position.
• a frangible structure on which approach lights are fixed.

• A turn executed by the aircraft during the initial approach between the end of the outbound
track and the beginning of the intermediate or final approach track is a:

• Base turn
• Procedure turn
• Reversal procedure
• Race track

• The DA for a CAT I ILS approach is reference to:

• The threshold – if this is specified on the chart

• Threshold elevation if this is more than 7 ft lower than airfield elevation
• The airfield elevation unless the threshold is moe than 7 ft lower than this
• Threshold elevation

• The MEA (Minimum En Route Altitude) assures acceptable navigational signal coverage
and:

• Intersection identification.
• DME response.
• Meets obstacle clearance requirements.

• Which is the obstacle clearance in the primary area of the initial approach segment in an
instrument approach procedure?

• 150m (492 ft).

• 300m (984 ft).
• At least 150m (492 ft).
• At least 300m (984 ft).

• On final approach after executing a circling approach visual contact is lost. Your actions
would be:

• Initiate an immediate climb towards the initial approach fix on which the
Instrument approach is based, then climb to initial approach altitude in the
hold
• Execute climbing turn through 180° and carry out the MAP for that approach
• Climb straight ahead towards the initial approach fix to the MDA for circling
approach and join downwind for the active runway
• Continue the approach

• If a turn of more than 15° is required to avoid obstacles on an IFR departure then:

• Max speed for Cat B aircraft is 165 kts

• Max speed for Cat A aircraft is 165 kts
• Max speed not specified. Only the area in which rhe aircraft is to reamin is specified
in terms of DME or GPS distance
• Wind effect must be compensated for whilst under radar control to ensure the
required track is made good.

• What is meant by Aircraft Approach Category:

• Based on the mass of the aircraft and is reference to on all approach charts
• Based on the speed of the aircraft – the stall speed in the landing
configuration (VSO) at max landing weight and referred to on all charts
• Category based on performance of the aircraft
• Depends on whether the approach is a Precision / Non-Precision Approach and is
listed on the approach chart

105. You are on an IFR flight executing a circling approach. A descent below the MDA should
not be made until:
1. the pilot has the landing threshold in sight
2. visual reference has been established and can be maintained
3. the required obstacle clearance can be maintained and a landing can be made
The combination regrouping all the correct answers is:

• 1, 2.
• 2, 3.
• 1, 2, 3.
• 1, 3.

• Aerodromes signs should be in the following configuration :

• mandatory instruction signs ; red background with black inscriptions.
• information signs; yellow or black background with black or yellow
inscriptions.
• information signs; orange background with black inscriptions.
• mandatory instruction signs; black background with red inscriptions.
• Refer to figure below - entry sectors:
When proceeding to the final segment of the approach procedure, a pilot entering a
racetrack pattern from sector 1 shall:

• Either intercept the inbound track or return directly to the fix

• Descend on the outbound track for at least one minute before starting the
procedure turn
• First intercept the inbound track
• Return directly to the fix

• During a conventional approach, the Minimum Descent Height (MDH) is referred to the
runway threshold altitude and not to the aerodrome altitude if the runway threshold is at
more than:

• 2 m (7 ft) below the airdrome altitude

• 2 m (7 ft) above the airdrome altitude
• 4 m (14 ft) below the airdrome altitude
• 4 m (14 ft) above the airdrome altitude

• Concerning to RNP (Required Navigation Performance) types, the indication RNP 4,

represents a navigation accuracy of

• plus or minus 4 NM on a 90 per cent containment basis

• plus or minus 4 NM on a 95 per cent containment basis
• plus or minus 4 NM on a 98 per cent containment basis
• plus or minus 4 miles on a 90 per cent containment basis

• Aerodrome Operating Minima, the lowest minima to be used by an operator in a category

B aeroplane for circling are:

• MDH=500 ft and visibility=1600 m

• MDH=400 ft and visibility=1500 m
• MDH=600 ft and visibility=2400 m
• MDH=700 ft and visibility=2600 m

• CAT I RVR minima for an approach at an airfield with a full approach light system, and the
associated lighting and markings on the runway is:

• 500 m
• 550 m
• 600 m
• 1 000 m.

• A precision approach runway CAT II is an instrument runway served by ILS and visual
aids intended for operations down to:

• a RVR of 250 meters and a DH of not less than 200 ft.

• a RVR of 550 meters and a DH of not less than 200 ft.
• a RVR of 200 meters and a DH of not less than 100 ft.
• a RVR of 300-450 meters and a DH of not less than 100 ft.

• The minimum RVR for single engine IFR operations for a precision approach without
autopilot is:

• 550m
• 200m
• 800m
• 1 500m

• The lights shown by an aerodrome identification beacon at a land aerodrome shall be

• White colour identification given by morse code

• Green colour identification given by morse code
• Red flashing lights
• Yellow flashing lights

• In a procedure turn (45°/180°), a 45° turn away from the outbound track is performed from
the start of turn for categories A and B aircraft for:

• 1 minute 15 seconds.
• 1 minute.
• 1minute 30 seconds.
• 2 minutes.

• Terminal Arrival Altitude (TAA) is referenced to:

• Radio Nav Aid for that aerodrome

• Usually the Intermediate Fix (IF) or some case the IAF
• Usually the Initial Approach Fix (IAF) or some cases the IF
• Usually the Final Approach Fix (FAF) or some cases IAF

• The minima for a VOR approach is called a:

• Minimum Decision altitude

• Minimum Descent altitude
• Decision altitude
• Descent altitude
• In a procedure turn (45°/180°), a 45° turn away from the outbound track is performed from
the start of the turn for categories C, D, E aircraft for:
• 1 minute 15 seconds.
• 1 minute.
• 1 minute 30 seconds.
• 2 minutes.

• Which is the obstacle clearance in the primary area of the intermediate approach segment
in an instrument approach procedure?

• 150m (492 ft).

• 300m (984 ft).
• 450m (1476 ft).
• 600m (1968 ft).

• A category I precision approach (CAT I) is an approach which may be carried out with a
runway visual range of at least:

• 350 m
• 550 m
• 800 m
• 500 m

• In a precision approach (ILS), the final approach segment begins at the:

• FAF.
• FAP.
• MAP.
• IF.

• In an instrument approach procedure, the segment in which alignment and descent for
landing are made is called:

• Initial approach segment.

• Intermediate approach segment.
• Arrival segment.
• Final approach segment.

• In an approach procedure, a descent or climb conducted in a holding pattern is called:

• Based turn.
• Racetrack pattern.
• Procedure turn.
• Shuttle.

• How is CDFA carried out?

• Precision with localiser / glide path to control rate of descent

• Non-precision with visual guidance / manual calculated to control rate of
descent
• Non-precision with aircraft electronic guidance for the descent
• RNAV / GNSS approach with SBAS to monitor rate of descent
• According to ICAO 8168 that requires a pilot to be within 5° of track:

• The pilot should attempt to maintain track by adjusting heading to offset drift at all
times
• The pilot should attempt to maintain track by off-setting drift when being given radar
vectors
• Pilot should attempt to maintain track by off-setting drift only when required
to maintain a track given in the chart
• Pilot should never offset drift but just maintain heading given on the chart or by ATC

• Racetrack / Reversal Procedure:

• Reversal procedure for a racetrack pattern for Cat B aircraft is 140 kts
• Reversal procedure, otherwise known as a Procedure Turn is applicable for joining
the holding pattern and speeds are the same as for holding pattern speeds and
depend on altitude / flight level of the aircraft
• Reversal procedure is used to join the holding pattern from sector I / II.
• Speed limitations for Racetrack pattern laid down by ICAO – for Cat B aircraft as
135 KIAS

• When ‘Holding Area’ is referred to on an en route chart, this refers to:

• Area covered by Holding pattern as well as the surrounding area which allows
a clearance of ± 1000 ft above all objects
• Area outside Holding Pattern which also gives a clearance above all objects, starting
at 1000 ft and going to 0 at the edge of the buffer area.
• Area where aircraft wait before entering RWY demarcated by double yellow lines,
one of which is dashed (nearest runway surface)
• Area on runway surface where aircraft usually do the line up on centre line before
take-off – this distance is included in the TORR.

• Where does the initial approach segment in an instrument approach procedure

commence?

• At the IAF.
• At the IF.
• At the FAF.
• At the final en-route fix.

• The characteristics of Intermediate Approach Segment are:

• The segment in which the landing configuration is set in preparation for landing
• The segment during which the aircraft speed and configuration should be
adjusted to prepare aircraft for final approach. Descent gradient kept as
shallow as possible.
• The segment where the major portion of descent required is done in preparation for
final approach
• The segment where the aircraft is slowed down to the approach speed + 10 to 20
kts, to prepare for landing.

• Definition of GBAS is:

• Ground Based Approach System

• Ground Based Augmentation System
• GNSS before approach specification
• Graded by active Satellite

• In a precision approach (ILS), generally glide path intersection occurs at heights above
runway elevation from:

• 300m (984 ft) to 600m (1968 ft).

• 150m (492 ft) to 300m (984 ft).
• 150m (492 ft) to 900m (2955 ft).
• 300m (984 ft) to 900m (2955 ft).

• In a precision approach (ILS), obstacle clearance surfaces assume that the pilot does not
normally deviate from the centreline, after being established on track, more than:

• A quarter of scale deflection.

• Half a scale deflection.
• One scale deflection.
• One and a half of scale deflection.

• Which are the phases of a missed approach procedure?

• Initial, intermediate and final.

• Arrival, initial, intermediate and final.
• Arrival, intermediate and final.
• Initial and final.

• An Intermediate Approach Fix is abbreviated as …… on RNAV / GNSS approach charts?

• IAF
• Int F
• FAF
• IF

• Cat A aircraft at FL 150 in a hold at SLV (S32° 27’ E20° 37’) will”

• Fly below 170 kts with 1.5 min legs

• Fly below 175 kts with 1 min legs
• Fly below 175 kts with 1.5 min legs
• Fly below 170 kts with 1 min legs
• If at or below 14 000 ft the timing for the outbound leg in a holding pattern should not
exceed:

• 2 mins
• 1.5 mins
• 1 min
• Whatever distance is required by the chart

• Where does the initial phase of a missed approach procedure end?

• At the missed approach point.

• At the first point where 50m (164 ft) obstacle clearance is obtained and can be
maintained.
• At the point where a new approach, holding or return to en-route flight is initiated.
• At the point where the climb is established.

• The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument
approach, to bring an aircraft into position for landing on runway which is not suitably
located for straight-in approach, is:

• Visual approach.
• Visual manoeuvring (circling).
• Contact approach.
• Aerodrome traffic pattern.

• When the visual manoeuvring (circling) area has been established the obstacle clearance
Altitude / height (OCA/H) is determined:

• Only for categories A and B aircraft.

• Only for categories C, D and E aircraft.
• For all categories of aircraft, and it is the same for all of them.
• For each category of aircraft, and it may be different for each one of them.

• A circling approach is:

• A visual manoeuvre to be conducted only in IMC.

• A flight manoeuvre to be performed only under radar vectoring.
• A visual flight manoeuvre keeping the runway in sight.
• A contact flight manoeuvre.

• In general, during a straight-in approach, the MDH cannot be below:

• the OCH
• 200 ft
• 350 ft
• 400 ft

• If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach, it is expected
that the pilot will make an initial climbing turn towards the:
• MAP.
• FAF.
• Landing runway.
• Final missed approach track.

• In the primary area, the obstacle clearance for the initial approach segment provides at
least:

• 492 ft
• 984 ft
• 1476 ft
• decreasing from 984 to 492 ft

• If contact is lost with the runway on the down-wind leg of a circling manoeuvre, what
actions should be taken?

• Turn 90 degrees towards the runway and wait for visual contact
• If you have other visual cues, continue with ground contact
• Turn towards the inner marker for the runway in use, maintaining circling altitude
• Initiate a missed approach
• During an instrument approach, the minimum obstacle clearance (MOC) of the initial
approach segment primary area is equal to :

• 120 m (394 ft)

• 150 m (492 ft)
• 210 m (690 ft)
• 300 m (984 ft)

• The primary area of an instrument approach segment is:

• the most critical part of the segment where the minimum altitude should be kept very
carefully;
• the first part of the segment ;
• the outside part of the segment where the obstacle clearance increases from 0 ft to
the appropriate minimum
• A defined are symmetrically disposed about the nominal flight track in which
full obstacle clearance is provided

• You have received holding instructions for a radio fix. The published holding procedure is:
all turns to the right, 1 minute outbound, inbound MC 052°. You are approaching the fix on
an inbound Magnetic Track 232°. Select the available entry procedure.

• Off set.
• Parallel.
• Direct.
• "Either " off set" or " parallel" ."

• During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle

clearance (MOC) in the intermediate phase of this missed approach is :

• 30 m (98 ft)
• 50 m (164 ft)
• 90 m (295 ft)
• 120 m (384 ft)

• Unless otherwise indicated, the missed approach procedures published on the IAC charts
are based on a minimum climb gradient of:

• 2%
• 2.5%
• 3.3%
• 5%

• Minimum sector altitudes are determined by the inbound radial in relation to the IAF.
These sectors are established for a distance from the IAF of:

• 5 NM
• 10 NM
• 20 NM
• 25 NM

• Unless otherwise published or instructed by ATC, all turns after initial entry into the holding
pattern shall be made into which direction?

• To the right.
• To the left.
• First right and then to the left.
• Teardrop to the left and then to the right.

• During an instrument approach, followed by a missed approach, the minimum obstacle

clearance (MOC) in the final phase of this missed approach is :

• 30 m (98 ft)
• 50 m (164 ft)
• 90 m (295 ft)
• 120 m (384 ft)

• In a holding pattern all turns are to be made at a:

• rate of 3°per second.

• rate of 3°per second or at a bank angle of 20°, which ever requires the lesser bank.
• rate of 3°per second or at a bank angle of 25°, which ever requires the lesser
bank.
• maximum bank angle of 25°.

• Entering a holding pattern at FL 110 with a jet aircraft, which will be the maximum speed?
• 230 kt IAS.
• 230 kt TAS.
• 240 kt IAS.
• 240 kt TAS.

• What is the outbound timing in a holding pattern above FL 140?

• 1 minute.
• 1 minute 30 seconds.
• 2 minutes.
• 2 minutes 30 seconds.

• A " precision approach" is a direct instrument approach...

• using at least one source of bearing information and one source of elevation or
distance information.
• using bearing, elevation and distance information, providing the pilot uses a flight
director or an autopilot certified to a height below 200 ft.
• using bearing, elevation and distance information.
• carried out by a crew of at least two pilots trained with a specific working method.

• In relation to the three entry sectors, the entry into the holding pattern shall be according
to:

• Heading.
• Course.
• Bearing.
• Track.
• How far beyond the boundary of the holding area extends the buffer area?

• 3 NM.
• 5 NM.
• 5 km.
• 3 km.

• According with the "noise abatement take-off and climb procedure B" , as established in
DOC 8168 - Ops Volume 1, part V, aircraft must climb at V2 + 10 to 20 kt, until reaching:

• 500 ft
• 1 500 ft
• 3 000 ft
• 1 000 ft

• Is it possible that a DH is lower than OCH for an approach?

• No
• Yes, if so directed by ATC
• Yes, if published by an aircraft operator
• Yes, when the system minima is lower

• Clearance received to do a non-standard hold east of 5 DME fix on radial 086° from a
VOR station, 5 mile legs. You arrive at 15 DME fix on heading 166°(M). What is the entry
procedure?

• Teardrop
• Direct
• Parallel
• Either I or II

• The maximum speed in the holding pattern up to and including 14 000 ft for Cat B aircraft
is:

• 175 KIAS
• 180 KIAS
• 170 KIAS
• 160 KIAs

• What timing procedure should be used when performing a VOR holding pattern at 8000
ft?

• Time for 1.5 mins on outbound leg, which begins abeam fix or wings level,
whichever comes later
• Time for 1 min when overhead the VOR
• Time when leaving the VOR and arrange to be back overhead VOR after 4 mins
• Time for 1 min on outbound leg, which begins abeam fix or wings level
whichever comes later

• Required Navigation Performance (RNP) shall be prescribed

• by states but not on the basis of regional air agreements

• by ICAO on the basis of regional air navigation agreements
• by states on the basis of regional air navigation agreements
• by regional air navigation agreements

• A " RNAV" distance based separation minimum may be used at the time the level is
crossed, provided that each aircraft reports its distance to or from the same " on track"
way-point. This minimum is:

• 60 NM.
• 50 NM.
• 20 NM.
• 80 NM.

• DH is reference to?

• Aerodrome elevation
• Runway threshold elevation
• ARP
• Nil

• An aircraft approaches a NDB facility on the reciprocal of the final approach track and may
thus:

• In the event of no delay, carry out a Procedure Turn on condition that ATC is
informed on completion of the Procedure Turn
• In the event of no delay and with ATC approval, carry out a Procedure Turn
• Without delay for the approach and without informing ATC, carry out a Procedure
Turn
• Do a straight in approach into the hold

Aerodrome Operating Minima, the lowest minima to be used by an operator in a c

• The information to consider for a standard straight-in approach is:
1 - the horizontal visibility
2 - the ceiling
3 - the minimum descending altitude (MDA)
4 - the decision altitude (DA)
Which of the following combinations contains all of the correct statements?

• 1-3
• 1-4
• 1-2-3
• 1-2-4

• The Initial Approach segment of an Instrument Approach Procedure:

• Commences at the Initial approach fix and terminates at the Intermediate fix
• Commences at the Intermediate approach fix and terminates at the Initial fix
• Commences at the Initial approach fix and terminates at the Final approach fix
• Commences at the Intermediate approach fix and terminates at the Final approach
fix

• ategory B aeroplane for circling are :

• MDH=600 ft and visibility=2400 m

• MDH=700 ft and visibility=2600 m
• MDH=500 ft and visibility=1600 m
• MDH=400 ft and visibility=1500 m

• 174

• The MSA in RSA is:

• Clearance of 1500 ft within a radius of 25 km

• Clearance of 1000 ft within a radius of 25 km
• Clearance of 1500 ft within a radius of 25 nm
• Clearance of 1000 ft within a radius of 25 nm
• The criteria taken into consideration for classification of Aeroplanes by Categories is the
indicated airspeed at threshold (Vat), which is equal to the stalling speed at the maximum
landing mass (Vso) multiplied by 1,3. Corresponding Aeroplane Category when Vat is from
141 kt to 165 kt is:

• C
• E
• D
• B

• If the crew on an arriving aircraft approaching a controlled aerodrome will report 'field in
sight', a clearance for 'visual approach' may be given under certain conditions

• The meteorological visibility must not be less than 8 km

• The air traffic controller will provide separation to other controlled traffic
• Continued approach will be according to VFR
• The approach must be passing the FAF

• The aerodrome operating minima for a VOR/DME approach are: MDH = 360 ft Required
RVR = 1500 metres. Reported RVR is 1800 metres. The pilot may continue the final
approach:

• if the ceiling reported is higher than 360 ft.

• if the ceiling reported is higher than 240 ft.
• regardless of the ceiling reported.
• if the ceiling reported is higher than 240 ft during the day and 360 ft at night.

• "Clearway" is defined rectangular area established to:

• Reduce the risk of damage to aircraft running off a runway.

• Protect aircraft during take-off or landing operations.
• Permit the aircraft to stop if it fails the take-off.
• Permit aircraft to make a portion of its initial climb to a specific height.

• During an ILS procedure, if the reported RVR/visibility is less than the applicable minima,
the approach shall not be continued beyond:

• the FAF, or 1500 ft above the aerodrome / heliport if there is no FAF.

• the outer marker or equivalent, or 1000 ft above the aerodrome / heliport if
there is no outer marker or equivalent.
• the middle marker, or 500 ft above the aerodrome / heliport if there is no middle
marker.
• the glide slope intersection.

• The descent is normally initiated prior to FAF in order to achieve the prescribed descent
gradient angle. Delaying the descent until reaching the FAF at the procedure altitude
height will cause a descent gradient angle to be greater than 3°. Identify:

• Continuous descent Final approach (CDFA)

• ILS final approach on the glide slope
• RNAV/GNSS final approach
• Circling Approach

• If a stepdown fix is established on the final approach track, a descend shall be made so
as to:

• leave the intermediate approach altitude, step by step until reaching the MAPt.
• pass the fix not below the specified crossing altitude.
• follow approximately 50 feet above the nominal glide path.
• pass the fix at the rate of descent of 500 feet/min, which is obligatory.

• Definition of “Missed Approach Point”:

• For precision approach and APV it is the point of intersection of the electronic
glide slope with the DA/H
• For non-precision approaches it is the latest point at which the MAP can be
commenced
• The point at which the aircraft reaches the MDA/H and where the pilot is expected to
initiate the MAP
• The earliest point at which the pilot on an instrument approach is allowed to initiate
the MAP.

• If an aircraft is being vectored to intercept a localiser for an ILS approach and experiences
RCF what should the pilot’s next actions be:

• Continue to intercept the localiser and complete the ILS approach and landing
• Initiate the MAP and return to IAF
• Established on the localiser and expect light signals to indicate the clearance to land
• Initiate the MAP and divert to nearest alternate.

• A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn in
the opposite direction to permit an aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal
track of the designated track is called:

• Base Turn
• Off set entry
• Procedure Turn
• Direct entry

• Aerodromes signs should be in the following configuration:

• mandatory instruction signs; black background with red inscriptions.

• information signs; yellow or black background with black or yellow
inscriptions.
• mandatory instruction signs ; red background with black inscriptions.
• information signs; orange background with black inscriptions
• In the ILS-approach, the OCA is referenced to:

• Aerodrome reference point.

• Relevant runway threshold.
• Aerodrome elevation.
• Mean sea level.

• Circling to land MDA refers to:

• Aerodrome elevation
• Relevant runway threshold
• Mean sea level.
• Flight levels

• When carrying out a NPA the MDA refers to:

• Mean sea level.

• The RWY THR elevation
• Aerodrome reference point
• Aerodrome elevation

• When is the MDA in a NPA not related to the RWY THR:

• When the RWY THR is less than 2 m (7ft) higher than the airfield elevation
• When the RWY THR is more than 2 m (7ft) higher than the airfield elevation
• When the RWY THR is less than 2 m (7ft) lower than the airfield elevation
• When the RWY THR is more than 2 m (7ft) lower than the airfield elevation

• Regarding SIDs: SIDs are established at certain airports primarily to

• Simplify clearance delivery procedures

• Make the pilot feel comfortable
• Assist the pilot
• Ensure the pilot follows the correct procedure

• Categories of aeroplanes are established in order to calculate different minima for different
aircraft based on:

• Aircraft stalling speed x 1.23 in landing configuration at maximum landing mass

• Aircraft stalling speed x 1.23 in landing configuration at maximum certificated
landing mass
• Aircraft stalling speed x 1.3 in landing configuration at maximum landing mass
• Aircraft stalling speed x 1.3 in landing configuration at maximum certificated
landing mass

• ASDA is
• The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stopway and clearway
• The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stopway
• The length of the take-off distance available plus the length of the stopway
• The length of the take-off distance available plus the length of the stopway and
clearway

• Turning departures provide track guidance within

• 10 km
• 5 km
• 15 km
• 25 nm

• TODA is

• The length of the take-off run available

• The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the stopway
• The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the displaced threshold
• The length of the take-off run available plus the length of the clearway

• During an instrument approach followed by a missed approach the main obstacle

clearance in the intermediate phase of this approach is …..

• 30 m (98 ft)
• 50 m (164 ft)
• 90 m (295 ft)
• 120 m (384 ft)

• Information that is not given in an AIP approach and landing charts

• Lighting
• Visibility minima
• OCH
• Frequencies

• Longitudinal separation minima based on time for aircraft at the same cruising level when
navigation aids permit frequent the termination of position and speed will be

• 2 mins
• 5 mins
• 10 mins
• 20 mins

• In a precision approach CAT I lighting system, the single 2 & 3 light sources on the centre
line have a length of

• 200 m
• 300 m
• 500m
• 1000 m

• A “balked landing

• A landing from an instrument approach

• A landing manoeuvre that is unexpectedly discontinued at any point below
OCA/H
• A landing from a visual approach
• A landing manoeuvre that ends in a landing

• In a teardrop / offset entry into an omnidirectional racetrack procedure the time on the 30
degree offset track is limited to:

• 1 min 30 sec
• 1 min
• 1 min 15 sec
• 2 min

• Which info is not included in instrument approach charts in the AIP

• OCH
• MSA
• Any addition to minima when the aerodrome is used as an alternate
• Frequencies

• The aerodrome category for rescue and fire fighting is based on:

• The length of the longest runway

• The aircraft category speed
• The overall length of the longest aeroplane normally using the aerodrome and
its max fuselage weight

• The width of the corridor around a specified arrival route is

• 2 nm
• 5 nm
• 3 nm
• 7 nm

• Which of the following is a characteristic of the intermediate approach segment?

a) It requires positive radar identification

b) The commencement of descent on final approach
c) It allows uninterrupted descents from higher altitudes
d) The descent gradient is kept as shallow as possible
• An information sign other than a location sign consists of an inscription of:

• Black on yellow background

• Yellow on black background
• Red on white background
• White on red background

• When a single set of PAPI lights is installed at an aerodrome you would expect the
installation to be on:

• The right side of the runway

• Both sides of the runway
• The left side of the runway

• Displaced threshold:

• Located at the end of the runway

• Used for turning of aircraft
• Part of a runway which is fir for the movement of aircraft
• A threshold not located at the extremity of a runway

• ICAO PAN OPS - What should a pilot do when instrument departure chart does not
specify a maximum flight speed for turning departure

• There are maximum speeds for turning departures for each category of
aircraft that must still be complied with.
• Comply with the speeds for controlled airspace
• The PIC may decide which speed he wants to fly at
• Use the holding speeds

• ICAO DOC - the maximum speed for category B aeroplane during a turning departure

• 91 knots
• 121 knots
• 140 knots
• 165 Knots

• “Minimum descent altitude” means

• A specified altitude or height in the precision approach or approach with vertical

guidance at which a missed approach must be initiated if the required visual
reference to continue the approach has not been established.
• A specified altitude in a non-precision approach below which descent may not
be made without the required visual reference
• The vertical distance of a level, a point or an object considered as a point, measured
from a specified datum.
• The vertical distance of a level, a point or an object considered as a point,
measured from mean sea level (MSL).
• If an instrument approach does not have an intermediate fix, where will the intermediate
approach segment begin?

• Between the end of the reversal, race track or dead reckoning track procedure
and the final approach fix or point
• Between the initial approach fix and the intermediate fix or, where applicable, the
final approach fix or point.
• Before which the prescribed missed approach procedure must be initiated in
order to ensure that the minimum obstacle clearance is not infringed.
• Begins at a facility or fix, called the final approach fix (FAF) and ends at the missed
approach point (MAPt).
• The maximum speed for a category A aircraft during a turning departure is

• 120 Kts
• 130 kts
• 140 kts
• 150 kts

• In terms of the GNSS flight operation turn anticipation is always used

• When entering a holding pattern

• For a fly-by waypoint
• For a fly over waypoint
• at an altitude/height

• How is the missed approach point on an APV/Baro VNAV indicated:

• The MAP is defined by a navigational facility or a fix,

• By the point where the electronic glide path intersects with the applicable
DA/H
• Begins at the point where 50m (164 ft) obstacle clearance is first obtained and can
be maintained.
• A missed approach holding fix (MAHF)

• What will be the effect of temperature on a Baro VNAV approach?

• A go around becomes compulsory when the OAT exceeds the limiting

temperature on the approach chart
• Does not affect it at all
• It necessitates that the pilot contact ATC
• The pilot must downgrade to a non-precision approach

• If the reported RVR or visibility for runway or touchdown zone area is lower than the
operating minima, the PIC shall:

• Continue the approach beyond the FAF

• Continue the approach to the MAPt
• Not continue the approach beyond the inbound turn
• Not continue an approach beyond the FAF or equivalent or below 1000 ft
above the aerodrome

• Where is the initial approach segment of an Instrument approach procedure situated?

• At the end of the reversal, race track or dead reckoning track procedure and the final
approach fix or point
• Begins when the aircraft is on the inbound track of the procedure turn, base turn or
final inbound leg of the racetrack procedure.
• After the en route phase between the initial approach fix and the intermediate
fix / final approach fix or point
• Begins at the missed approach point (MAPt) and ends at the point where the climb
is established.

• There is an additional buffer area that extends 5.0 nm beyond the boundary of the holding
area. This buffer area guarantees a minimum obstacle clearance over flat terrain of:

• 984 ft
• 2000 ft
• 492 ft
• 1500 ft

• Baro VNAV approach may never be flown without:

• The RNAV/baro-VNAV equipment being unserviceable

• A remote altimeter setting source
• An out-of-date altimeter setting
• The current local altimeter setting (QNH/QFE) set on the aircraft’s altimeter

• Procedures contained in ICAO Doc 8168 assume:

• That all pilots are trained to fly RNAV

• That all engines are operating
• That all aircraft are equipped with GPS
• That pilots will calculate for obstacle clearance

• According to ICAO Doc 8168: Minimum descent height is applicable to:

• Aerodrome elevation or the threshold elevation if more than 7 ft below the

aerodrome elevation
• Only the threshold elevation
• Only the aerodrome elevation
• All instrument approach procedures

• Minimum length of HI/MI approach lighting:

• > 900m
• 900 m
• 720 m
• 420 m

• Transition altitude means:

• The altitude at which the vertical position of the aircraft is controlled by

reference to Altitude
• The altitude at which the vertical position of the aircraft is controlled by reference to
flight levels
• The altitude where the pilot must put QFE into the altimeter
• The altitude where the pilot must put QNHE into the altimeter

• Maximum speed for reversal procedure for Cat B aircraft:

• 120 kts
• 140 kts
• 150 kts
• 160 kts

• An owner or operator shall not use a navigation system based on electronic data unless
the source of the data is:

• Anyone who sells the navigation system

• The supplier of the navigation system
• A supplier satisfactory to the manufacturer of the aircraft or navigation system
or the Director
• Any maintenance organisation

• PAN OPS – As far as departure procedures are concerned, what is the responsibility of
the operator?

• The development of contingency procedures in case of a system failure or an

emergency in flight which occurs after V1
• To ensure that the aircraft is serviceable
• To ensure that the pilots are trained
• To ensure that the aircraft is equipped with a GPS

• ICAO Doc 8168 recommends that pilots should not accept radar vectors during departures
unless:

• The aircraft is equipped with a GPS

• The pilots are trained to fly RNAV routes
• They are operating on a SID
• They are above the minimum Altitude required to maintain obstacle clearance
in the event of an engine failure

• What should a pilot do when an instrument approach chart does not specify speed limits:
• Fly at the speed restriction for controlled airspace
• Fly at the speed used to calculate the category of aircraft
• Fly at the speed restriction for uncontrolled airspace
• Fly the aircraft at minimum control speed plus 50 kts

• A RNAV GBAS approach may not be flown unless:

• The pilot can update the waypoints manually while flying

• The pilot is happy to accept the aircraft with an out of date databse
• Any incomplete waypoint information in the database has been updated by
manual pilot input
• ATC gives permission

• ICAO Doc 8168 recommends that reduced power should not be required for take-off:

• In adverse operating conditions, including contaminated runway or visibility

• At any stage
• When operating a turbine aircraft
• During noise abatement procedures

• Which of the following is a characteristic of an intermediate approach segment:

• Alignment and descent for landing are made.

• Aircraft speed and configuration will depend on the distance from the aerodrome
• The phase within which the climb is continued, normally straight ahead
• The descent gradient is kept as shallow as possible

• PAN OPS – what are the two different types of approach and landing operations that can
be conducted using Baro VNAV?

• Approach with Vertical Guidance and Non-Precision approach

• Precision Approach and APV
• Precision Approach and Non-precision approach

• Which of the following glide path angles represent the maximum to be used in the design
of a standard Category II and III ILS instrument approach procedure in accordance with
ICAO PANS-OPS?

• 3 degrees
• 5.2 degrees
• 3.7 degrees
• 4 degrees

• The AAIM function of an aircraft is performed using:

• Only information from onboard navigation equipment

• Only information from satellite signals
• Information from ground based equipment
• Information from other onboard navigation equipment in addition to satellite
signals

• When a missed approach climb gradient other than …….is used, this must be indicated on
the instrument approach chart

• 2.5 %
• 2.8 %
• 3%
• 3.2%

• An Instrument approach procedure includes:

• Non precision Approach
• Approach procedure with Vertical Guidance
• Precision Approach
• Circling Approach
The combination regrouping all the correct statements is:

• 1&2
• 1, 2 & 3
• 2&3
• 1, 2, 3 & 4

• ICAO procedures are developed for:

• Contingency procedures
• Standard procedures
• Non-standard Procedures
• Normal procedures

• If the glide path is lost in a precision approach, it becomes a:

• Non Precision approach

• Approach procedure with Vertical Guidance
• Straight in Approach
• Turning Approach

EXTRA INFO

• When a pilot conducts an instrument approach procedure using a racetrack pattern,

descent after the inbound turn may not be started:

• +
• Different approach techniques are

• CDFA & Step Down

• Decision Altitude is referenced to:

• MSL

• SID straight departure

• within 15 deg

• CAT C max speed for turn departure

• 265 kts

• Straight line departure within

• 15 deg

• Cat A approach speed is

• 70/100

• Turning pt MAP

• Cannot execute missed approach before MAP

• 8168 PANS OP = an instrument approach procedure is:

• straight in and circling approach

• Decision height is referenced to

• runway threshold

• The difference between precision and non-precision approach is:

• precision uses vertical guidance

• 8168 depicts tracks on instrument approach

• Pilot to correct for wind

• 8168 preferable design of departure runway

• runway aligned with centre line

• Straight line departure is:

• within 15 deg of alignment of runway centreline

• 8168 The operator is responsible for departure procedures must

• Implement a procedure for engine failure at v1

• 8168 Design procedures influenced by:

• terrain surrounding the aerodrome and ATC requirements for SID routes

• a non precision approach technique is

• CDFA

•
• missed approach if angle climb greater than

• 3.3 per must be indicated on chart

• max holding speed above 34000 ft is

• 0.83 Mach

• standard RNAV procedure is

• T or Y bar incorporating 3 fixes

• MSA has a minimum obstacle clearance of

• 1500ft within 25 nm – in SA

• Landing required in IMC is visual sighting of

• runway threshold or rw centre line or touch down area or approach lights

• Track separation between aircraft using the same fix shall be applied requiring the aircraft
to fly
• At least 45 degrees separated at a distance of 1.5 nm or more from the fix

• In a Precision Approach Cat I lighting system the centreline and cross bar lights shall be

• Fixed lights showing variable white

• When the visual manoeuvring circling area has been established the OCA/H is determined
….

• For each category of aircraft and it may be different for each of them

• It is permissible to eliminate from consideration a particular sector where a permanent

obstacle exist and the visual manoeuvring (circling) area outside the final approach and
missed approach area. When this option is exercised the published procedure

• Prohibit circling within the total sector in which the obstacle exists

• The primary area of an instrument approach segment is

• A defined area symmetrically disposed about the nominal flight track in which full
obstacle clearance is provided

• “Instrument runways” are the following runways intended for the operation of aircraft using
instrument approach procedures

• Non precision approach runways, precision approach runways, CAT I, II and III

• When on a required navigational performance (RNP) 1 route is indicated as BZ3CY

means that all turns shall be made within the allowable RNP tolerance of a tangential arc
between the straight leg segments defined with a radius of

• 225 nm between 30 degrees and 90 degrees at and above FL 200

• If a stepdown fix is established on the final approach track, a descent shall be made as
low as

• Pass the fix not below the specified crossing altitude

• A complete CAT I type approach light system

• 5 cross bars centreline with 3, 2 and 1 lamp per light unit

• Runway lead-in lighting should consist

• Of a group of at least 3 white lights flashing in sequence towards the runway

• At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind info in the form
of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and speed shall be
transmitted to the aircraft. The mean headwind component change is

• 10 kts

• Normally the max descent gradient applicable in the final approach segment to ensure the
required minimum obstacle clearance

• 6.5 %

• Low intensity obstacle lights shall be

• Fixed red

• A precision approach is a direct instrument approach

• Using bearing, elevation and distance info

• Runway threshold identification lights should be…..

• Flashing white

• High intensity obstacle lights should be…

• Flashing white

• At the commencement of final approach, if the controller possesses wind information in

the form of components, significant changes in the mean surface wind direction and
speed shall be transmitted to the aircraft. The mean tail wind component significant
change is ….

• 2 kts

• The longitudinal separation minima based on distance using DME and each aircraft “ on
track” using DME stations is….

• 20
• If on an instrument departure procedure the track to be followed by the aircraft is
published, the pilot is expected to …..

• Correct for known wind to remain within the potential airspace

• Runway edge lights expected in the case of a displace threshold shall be:

• Fixed lights showing variable white

• In a precision approach (ILS) the final approach segment begins at the

• FAP

• “Time Approach Procedure” is used as necessary to expedite the approach of a number of

arriving aircraft. This will be obtained requesting aircraft ….

• The pass the specified point inbound at the previously notified time

• The EAT has to be transmitted to the pilot as soon as possible in case the expected delay
is ….

• 5 mins or more

• Track separation between aircraft using the same VOR shall be applied requiring the
aircraft to fly….

• At least 15 degrees separated at a distance of 15 nm or more from the facility

• During an instrument approach followed by a missed approach the minimum obstacle

clearance in the intermediate phase of the missed approach is ….

• 30 m (98 ft)

• Independent parallel approaches may be conducted to parallel runways provided that a no

transgression zone (NTZ) of at least …..

• 610 m is established between extended runway centre lines and as is depicted on

the radar display

• A turn executed by the aircraft during the initial approach between the end of the outbound
track and the beginning of the intermediate or final approach track is a

• Base turn

• The vertical IFR separation minimum being applied by ATC within a controlled airspace
above FL 280 is ….

• 2000 ft (600 m)

• If visual reference is lost while circling to land from an instrument approach it is expected
that the pilot will make an initial climbing turn towards the …….

• Landing runway

• Unless otherwise prescribed by the appropriate ATS authority, the radar controller should
notify the non-radar controller when an aircraft making a radar approach is approximately

• 8 nm

• In an ILS approach the OCA is referenced to

• Mean sea level

• A NPA is an instrument approach procedure

• Which utilises lateral guidance but does not use vertical guidance

• A GBAS landing (GLS) system is

• A GNSS precision approach and landing system using correction signals from a
VHF ground based station

• Which of the different approach techniques listed below does the following definition from
ICAO Doc 8168 refer to? A technique consistent with stabilized approach procedure, for
flying the final approach segment of a non-precision instrument approach

• Continuous descent final approach (CDFA)

• In terms of RNAV (GNSS) operation, what does the abbreviation RAIM stand for?

• Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring

ANSWER SHEET

1 B 51 A 101 D 151 A
2 D 52 B 102 A 152 B
3 D 53 C 103 A 153 C
4 B 54 A 104 B 154 A
5 C 55 A 105 C 155 B
6 A 56 C 106 B 156 C
7 A 57 A 107 B 157 A
8 A 58 D 108 A 158 B
9 B 59 C 109 B 159 C
10 A 60 D 110 A 160 A
11 B 61 B 111 B 161 C
12 A 62 D 112 D 162 C
13 D 63 A 113 C 163 D
14 C 64 D 114 B 164 C
15 C 65 A 115 B 165 D
16 B 66 D 116 C 166 B
17 D 67 D 117 B 167 B
18 C 68 D 118 A 168 A
19 C 69 D? 119 A 169 A
20 C 70 A 120 B 170 C
21 A 71 A 121 B 171 A
22 A 72 A 122 D 172 C
23 D 73 D 123 D 173 C
24 A 74 B 124 C 174 C
25 C 75 D 125 C 175 D
26 A 76 A 126 A 176 B
27 A 77 A 127 B 177 A
28 D 78 D 128 A 178 B
29 B 79 A 129 B 179 A
30 B 80 C 130 B 180 A
31 A 81 C 131 D 181 C
32 B 82 A 132 B 182 B
33 C 83 C 133 A 183 D
34 B 84 D 134 D 184 A
35 A 85 A 135 A 185 B
36 D 86 A 136 C 186 D
37 C 87 A 137 D 187 A
38 A 88 C 138 B 188 D
39 D 89 B 139 D 189 B
40 B 90 B 140 C 190 A
41 D 91 A 141 A 191 D
42 C 92 C 142 C 192 A
43 B 93 D 143 B 193 B
44 B 94 A 144 D 194 C
45 C 95 B 145 B 195 B
46 D 96 A 146 D 196 B
47 C 97 A 147 D 197 A
48 D 98 A 148 A 198 C
49 A 99 D 149 B 199 C
50 D 100 C 150 D 100 B