PTS 2025 | Test Code: 211124 |

Q.1) Consider the following members of 3. S/he is a fulltime counsel for the
Legislature: Government of India and thus debarred
1. Elected member of Lok Sabha from private legal practice.
2. Nominated member of Rajya Sabha How many of the statements given above are
3. Elected member of State Legislative correct?
Council a) Only one
4. Elected member of Legislative Assembly of b) Only two
Puducherry c) All three
5. Elected member of Rajya Sabha d) None
Which of the above members are part of both
electoral college and impeachment procedure Q.5) Consider the following statements with
of the President of India? reference to the executive functions of the
a) 1, 3 and 5 only President of India:
b) 1 and 5 only 1. All executive actions of the Government of
c) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only India are formally taken in the name of the
d) 2 and 5 only President.
2. He can make rules for more convenient
Q.2) All doubts and disputes in connection transaction of business of the Union
with election of the President of India are government.
inquired into and decided by the- 3. All ministers in central council of ministers
a) Election Commission of India hold office during the pleasure of the
b) A Commission constituted by Parliament President.
for this purpose Which of the statements given above are
c) Vice-President of India correct?
d) Supreme Court of India a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
Q.3) Consider the following pairs about various c) 2 and 3 only
parts of the Constitution of India: d) 1, 2 and 3
Parts of the Associated Subject
Constitution Matter Q.6) The national emergency in India has
1. Part XX Emergency Provisions various consequences on different organs of
2. Part XVIII Amendment of the the government. In that context, consider the
Constitution following:
3. Part VI State Executive During the national emergency:
4. Part V Parliament 1. the President can issue ordinance on the
How many of the pairs given above are state subject, if the Parliament is not in
session.
correctly matched?
a) Only one 2. the President can reduce or cancel the
transfer of finances from the Centre to the
b) Only two
c) Only three states by modifying the constitutional
d) All four provisions of distribution of revenue
between centre and states.
3. the tenure of the Lok Sabha can be
Q.4) Consider the following statements with
extended beyond its normal term of five
reference to the Attorney General of India:
years, by six months at a time by a law of
1. S/he is appointed by President to perform
parliament.
such duties of a legal character that are
Which of the statements given above are
assigned to him by the President.
correct?
2. S/he has the right of audience in all courts a) 1 and 2 only
in the territory of India. b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2 and 3

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[2]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 211124 |

Q.7) The Constitution has laid down separate Q.9) In how many of the following
procedures for the enactment of all the four subjects/provisions, ordinance can be
types of bills, i.e. Ordinary bills, money bills, promulgated by President?
financial bill and constitutional amendment 1. Curbing Fundamental Rights of the citizen
bills. In this context, Consider the following 2. Issuing retrospective legislation
information: 3. Amending a tax law
4. Introducing a constitutional amendment
Type of Veto
Select the correct answer using the code given
by Impact on the
Applicable On below:
President Bill
a) 1, 2, and 3 only
of India
b) 2 and 3 only
The bill is c) 1, 3, and 4 only
rejected and d) 2, 3, and 4 only
1. Absolute cannot be
Ordinary Bills
Veto reconsidered Q.10) A person serving a life sentence for 15
by the years. His remaining sentence was reduced by
Parliament the governor following the state government's
recommendation and due process without
The President nullifying the original conviction due to his
sends the bill good behavior and contributions to prison
2. Suspensive Money Bills
for reforms.
Veto
reconsideration In the above scenario, which concept of the
to Parliament. Governor's pardoning powers has been
The bill exercised?
remains a) Pardon
pending for an b) Commutation
Constitutional indefinite c) Remission
3. Pocket d) Respite
Amendment period,
Veto
Bill effectively
preventing it Q.11) Consider the following statements with
from becoming regard to the Vice President of India:
law 1. To be eligible for election as Vice-
President, a candidate must be a member
In how many of the above rows is the given
of the Rajya Sabha.
information correctly matched?
2. The electoral college for the Vice President
a) Only one
includes nominated members of the Rajya
b) Only two
Sabha.
c) All three
3. A resolution for the removal of the Vice
d) None
President must be passed by a majority of
all the then members of the Rajya Sabha.
Q.8) Which Constitutional Amendment Act
Which of the statements given above is/are
has, for the first time, made the advice of
correct?
council of ministers binding on the President
a) 1 and 2 only
of India?
b) 2 and 3 only
a) 38th Constitutional Amendment Act
c) 1 and 3 only
b) 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act
d) 3 only
c) 44th Constitutional Amendment Act
d) 91st Constitutional Amendment Act

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[4]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 211124 |

Q.12) Consider the following statements Which of the above is correct in respect of the
regarding the Prime Minister of India: above statements?
1. On the Prime Minister's recommendation, a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
the President appoints other Ministers. correct and Statement-II is the correct
2. He can appoint an inter-state council to explanation for Statement-I.
promote Centre-state and inter-state b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
cooperation. correct and Statement-II is not the correct
3. He can recommend the dissolution of the explanation for Statement-I.
Lok Sabha to the President at any time. c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
Which of the statements given above are incorrect.
correct? d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
a) 1 and 2 only correct
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only Q.15) Which among the following
d) 1, 2, and 3 Constitutional Amendment Acts facilitated the
appointment of the same person as the
Q.13) Which of the following statements is Governor for two or more states?
correct regarding the provisions relating to a) The 7th Constitutional Amendment Act,
the Central Council of Ministers in the Indian 1956
Constitution? b) The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act,
1. The advice tendered by Council of 1978
Ministers to the President shall not be c) The 92nd Constitutional Amendment Act,
inquired into in any court. 2003
2. The total number of ministers in the d) The 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act,
Council of Ministers, including the Prime 1992
Minister, shall not exceed 10% of the Lok
Sabha's total strength. Q.16) With reference to the Cabinet system
3. The President shall administer the oaths of followed in India, consider the following
office and secrecy to a minister. statements:
Select the correct answer using the code given 1. The word “Cabinet” was added to the
below: Indian Constitution by 44th Constitutional
a) 1 and 2 only Amendment Act.
b) 3 only 2. The functions of the Cabinet are clearly
c) 1 and 3 only defined in the Constitution.
d) 2 and 3 only 3. The decisions of the Cabinet are binding on
all ministers.
Q.14) Consider the following statements Which of the statements given above are
regarding the parliamentary system of correct?
government in India: a) 1 and 2 only
Statement-I: The fundamental principle b) 1 and 3 only
underlying the working of the parliamentary c) 2 and 3 only
system of government is the principle of d) 1, 2 and 3
collective responsibility.
Statement-II: When the Lok Sabha passes a
no-confidence motion against the council of
ministers, all the ministers, including those
from the Rajya Sabha, must resign.

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[6]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 211124 |

Q.17) The Forty-Second Amendment Act, 1976, Which of the above is correct in respect of the
is sometimes considered as the most above statements?
comprehensive amendment made so far to the a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
Constitution of India. Which of the following correct and Statement-II is the correct
changes were made by it? explanation for Statement-I.
1. Deleted the right to property from the list b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
of Fundamental Rights correct and Statement-II is not the correct
2. Made the President bound by the advice of explanation for Statement-I.
the Cabinet c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
3. Provided for administrative tribunals incorrect.
4. Curtailed the power of judicial review of d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
the High Courts correct
5. Did away with the requirement of quorum
in the Parliament. Q.20) Consider the following statements with
Select the correct answer using the code given reference to position of governor in Indian
below: political system:
a) 1,2 4 and 5 only 1. The Constitution does not provide for any
b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only grounds upon which a governor may be
c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only removed by the President.
d) 2, 3 and 5 only 2. The emoluments and allowances of the
Governor of a State shall not be diminished
Q.18) Consider the following pairs regarding during his term of office.
some important judgements of Supreme Court Which of the statements given above is/are
of India: correct?
a) 1 only
Cases Rulings related to
b) 2 only
1. Cooper case Judicial review of Ninth c) Both 1 and 2
Schedule. d) Neither 1 nor 2

2. Wadhwa case Misuse of ordinances by

Q.21) With reference to Polity of India,
the executive.
consider the following functionaries:
3. Bommai case Secularism is a basic 1. State Election Commissioner
structure of the 2. Chairman of a State Public Service
Constitution Commission
3. Members of a State Public Service
How many of the above given pairs are
Commission
correctly matched?
4. Advocate General of a State
a) Only one
5. Vice Chancellor of State University
b) Only two
Which of the above given functionaries are
c) All three
appointed by the Governor of a state and
d) None
removed by the President of India?
a) 1 and 4 only
Q.19) Consider the following statements
b) 1, 2 and 3 only
regarding Governor of a State in India:
c) 2, 3 and 5 only
Statement I: The executive power of the State
d) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
shall be vested in the Governor.
Statement II: The Governor of a State is
appointed by the President by warrant under
his hand and seal.

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[8]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 211124 |

Q.22) Under which condition is the Governor Select the correct answer using the code given
of the state obligated to reserve a bill for the below:
President's consideration in India? a) 1, 2 and 3
a) When the bill is ultra vires, that is, against b) 1 and 2 only
the provisions of the Constitution. c) 2 and 3 only
b) When the bill passed by the state d) 1 and 3 only
legislature endangers the constitutional
position of the state High Court. Q.26) With reference to State Council of
c) When the bill is against the larger interest Ministers, consider the following statements:
of the country. 1. According to the Constitution of India the
d) When the bill is of grave national size of the State Council of Ministers
importance. cannot exceed 40.
2. The number of ministers, including the
Q.23) With reference to Ordinance making Chief Minister in a state shall not be less
power of the Governor of a state, which one of than 15.
the following statements is correct? Which of the statements given above is/are
a) In the case of bicameral legislature, the correct?
Governor can promulgate an ordinance a) 1 only
only when the legislative assembly is not in b) 2 only
session. c) Both 1 and 2
b) Unlike President of India, the ordinance- d) Neither 1 nor 2
making power of Governor is a
discretionary power. Q.27) Every Presidential candidate in India has
c) The ordinance ceases to operate if a to make a security deposit of ₹15,000 in the
resolution disapproving it is passed by the Reserve Bank of India. The security deposit is
legislative assembly and is agreed to by the liable to be forfeited in case the candidate fails
legislative council. to secure-
d) The governor does not need prior a) one-tenth of the votes polled
permission of the President for enacting b) half of the votes polled
any ordinance. c) one-sixth of the votes polled
d) votes of at least 50 electors
Q.24) Which one of the following actions of the
Parliament requires an amendment of the Q.28) With reference to the revocation of
Constitution of India under article 368? emergency proclamation in India, consider the
a) Creation of legislative councils in states following statements:
b) Increase in allowances of the members of 1. National emergency should be revoked by
Parliament the President if the Lok Sabha passes a
c) Settlement of a boundary dispute between resolution disapproving its continuation.
India and any other country 2. A proclamation of President’s Rule can be
d) Cession of Indian territory to a foreign revoked by the President at any time,
country subject to parliamentary approval.
3. A proclamation of Financial Emergency can
Q.25) What are the functions and duties of the be revoked by the President at any time,
Chief Minister of a state in Indian political without requiring the parliamentary
system? approval.
1. S/he recommends the governor for Which of the statements given above are
allocation and reshuffling of the portfolio correct?
among council of ministers. a) 1 and 2 only
2. S/he is the chairman of the State Planning b) 1 and 3 only
Board. c) 2 and 3 only
3. S/he acts as Chairman of the zonal council d) 1, 2 and 3
on rotational basis among other states.

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[10]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 211124 |

Q.29) Consider the following statements about a) Article 358 deals with the suspension of the
the “Emergency Provisions" in India: Fundamental Rights guaranteed by Article
Statement-I: According to Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, 19 when a national emergency is declared
the transformation of the political system from on the grounds of war or external
federal during normal times to unitary during aggression.
Emergency is a unique feature of the Indian b) Article 359 deals with the suspension of all
Constitution. Fundamental Rights when a national
Statement-II: During a national emergency in emergency is declared on the grounds of
India, the Central government becomes external aggression or armed rebellion.
entitled to give executive directions to a state c) Article 358 automatically suspends the
on any matter. fundamental rights under Article 19 as soon
Statement-III: During a national emergency, as the emergency is declared.
the Parliament becomes empowered to make d) Article 359 suspends the enforcement of
laws on any subject mentioned in the state list Fundamental Rights for a period specified
as the legislative power of the state legislature by the presidential order during national
is suspended. emergency.
Which of the following is correct in respect of
the above statements? Q.32) Which of the following Commissions was
a) Both Statement-II and Statement-III are appointed by the Janata Party Government in
correct and both of them explain 1977 to inquire into the transgressions,
Statement-I. violations, and violence committed during the
b) Both Statement-II and Statement-III are national emergency in 1975?
correct, but only one of them explains a) Nanavati-Mehta Commission
Statement-I. b) Sarkaria Commission
c) Only one of the Statements II and III are c) Shah Commission
correct and that explains Statement-I. d) Venkatachaliah commission
d) Neither Statement-II nor Statement-III is
correct. Q.33) With reference to the imposition of the
President’s Rule in a State, consider the
Q.30) In context of Advisory jurisdiction of following statements:
Supreme Court, consider the following 1. If the President’s Rule is approved by both
statements: the Houses of Parliament, then may
1. The President can seek advice from the continue for one year at a time.
Supreme Court on any question of law or 2. The duration of President's Rule can be
fact. extended indefinitely with the approval of
2. The Constitutional feature of ‘Advisory the Parliament for each successive period
jurisdiction of Supreme Court ‘is borrowed of one year.
from Canadian Constitution. 3. Every resolution approving the
Which of the statements given above is/are continuation of President’s Rule shall be
correct? passed by both houses of Parliament with a
a) 1 only majority of the members of that house
b) 2 only present and voting.
c) Both 1 and 2 Which of the statements given above is/are
d) Neither 1 nor 2 correct?
a) 1 and 2 only
Q.31) Articles 358 and Article 359 of the Indian b) 2 only
Constitution describe the effect of a National c) 2 and 3 only
Emergency on Fundamental Rights. In that d) 3 only
context which of the following is incorrect?

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[12]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 211124 |

Q.34) Consider the following statements: Q.37) Consider the following provisions of the
During President’s Rule in a state, the Indian Constitution:
President can: 1. Abolition or creation of legislative councils
1. assume to himself all or any of the in states
functions of the Government of the State 2. Salaries and allowances of the members of
and all or any of the powers vested in Parliament
Legislature of the State. 3. Conferment of more jurisdiction on the
2. assume to himself the powers vested in the Supreme Court
concerned state High Court. 4. Acquisition and termination of Citizenship
Which of the statements given above is/are 5. Elections to Parliament and state
correct? legislatures
a) 1 only Which of the above given provisions of the
b) 2 only Indian Constitution can be amended by a
c) Both 1 and 2 majority of the members of each House
d) Neither 1 nor 2 present and voting in Parliament?
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
Q.35) With reference to Financial Emergency, b) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
consider the following statements: c) 1, 3, 4 and 5 only
1. A Financial Emergency can be declared d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
when the President of India is convinced
that the financial stability of the country is Q.38) Which of the following provisions of the
under threat. Constitution of India can only be amended
2. Financial Emergency has been imposed in when the Bill is passed in each House of the
India only once, during the Balance of Parliament by a majority of the total
Payment (BoP) crisis in 1991. membership of that House and by a majority of
Which of the statements given above is/are not less than two-thirds of the members of
correct? that House present and voting and with
a) 1 only ratification of half of the state legislatures?
b) 2 only a) Manner of the election of the President of
c) Both 1 and 2 India.
d) Neither 1 nor 2 b) Administration of tribal areas in Sixth
Schedule.
Q.36) With reference to the Constitutional c) Fundamental Rights
Amendment bills in Parliament, which of the d) Directive Principles of State Policy
following statements is correct?
a) The Constitutional amendment bill can be Q.39) Consider the following statements
introduced in either House of Parliament. regarding the 106th Constitutional
b) The Constitutional amendment bill can be Amendment act, 2023:
introduced in Parliament only by a 1. It provides for the reservation of 33% seats
minister. in the Lok Sabha and State legislative
c) The Constitutional amendment bill must be assemblies for women.
passed in each house of the Parliament by a 2. It does not extend to any Union Territory.
majority of not less than two-thirds of the 3. It came into force from the 18th Lok Sabha
total membership of that house. elections.
d) Disagreement between the houses of the Which of the of the above given statements
Parliament over a Constitutional are correct?
amendment bill is resolved through a joint a) 1 and 2 only
sitting presided over by President of India. b) 1 only
c) 2 only
d) 2 and 3 only

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[14]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 211124 |

Q.40) Consider the following pairs related to b) The impeachment procedure against the
Constitutional Amendment Act and associated President can be initiated by either House
changes in the Schedules of the Indian of Parliament.
Constitution: c) In each House of Parliament, the resolution
for impeachment must be passed by a
Constitutional Schedule of the Indian
majority of not less than two-thirds of the
Amendment Constitution
total membership of that House.
Act (CAA)
d) V.V. Giri was the only President of India to
1. 1st CAA Provided that a common be impeached.
High court could be set up
for two or more states. Q.43) Consider the following statements with
reference to Advocate General of the states:
2. 7th CAA Added Ninth Schedule to 1. S/he can be removed only by the President
protect laws from judicial on the report of the Supreme Court.
review, particularly of 2. A person who is qualified to be a Judge of a
land reforms. High Court can be appointed as Advocate-
3. 52nd CAA Inserted Tenth Schedule, General.
3. S/he has right to vote in times of deadlock
which deals with anti-
defection laws. in the Houses of the Legislature of the
State.
4. 71st CAA Included Konkani, Which of the statements given above is/are
Manipuri and Nepali correct?
languages in the Eight a) 1 and 2 only
Schedule. b) 2 only
How many of the above pairs are correctly c) 1 and 3 only
matched? d) 1, 2 and 3
a) Only one
b) Only two Q.44) In relation to the Council of Ministers,
c) Only three the Prime Minister is called ‘the first among
d) All four the equals. In this context, consider the
following statements:
1. The President can appoint only those
Q.41) This Cabinet Committee deals with all
persons as ministers who are
policy matters pertaining to domestic and
recommended by the Prime Minister.
foreign affairs. It is chaired by the Prime
2. The Ministers are Constitutionally required
Minister of India. It is often described as a
to communicate all decisions relating to
“Super-Cabinet”. This Cabinet Committee is:
their ministry to the Prime Minister.
a) Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs
3. The resignation or death of an incumbent
b) Cabinet Committee on Political Affairs
Prime Minister automatically dissolves the
c) Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs
entire Council of Ministers.
d) Appointments Committee of Cabinet
How many of the above statements reflect the
reasons for calling the Prime Minister ‘the first
Q.42) The President of India can be removed
among the equals?’
from office through impeachment. In this
a) Only one
context, which of the following is incorrect
b) Only two
with respect to the impeachment process of
c) All three
the President?
d) None
a) According to the Constitution of India, the
president can be impeached for the
‘violation of the Constitution'.

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[16]
PTS 2025 | Test Code: 211124 |

Q.45) Consider the following statements: Q.48) Article 164 of the Constitution of India
Statement-I- The ordinance making power of provides for the appointment of a Minister in
the President of India is considered as a charge of Tribal Welfare in certain states. In
legislative power parallel to the Parliament of which of the following states, does the
India. appointment of such a Minister has been
Statement-II- The ordinances can be issued provided for by the Constitution?
by the President only on those subjects on 1. Bihar
which the Parliament can make laws. 2. Jharkhand
Which one of the following is correct in 3. Chhattisgarh
respect of the above statements? 4. Odisha
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are 5. Rajasthan
correct and Statement-II is the correct Choose the correct answer using the codes
explanation for Statement-I. given below:
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are a) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
correct and Statement-II is not the correct b) 1, 3 and 4 only
explanation for Statement-I. c) 2, 3 and 4 only
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is d) 1, 2 and 5 only
incorrect.
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is Q.49) Consider the following statements with
correct. reference to the national emergency:
1. It has been declared three times so far
Q.46) Consider the following statements: since independence.
1. The Chief Secretary of a State is appointed 2. It has never been declared on the ground of
by the Governor of that State. internal disturbance.
2. The Chief Secretary of a State has a fixed Which of the above statements is/are
tenure. correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are a) 1 only
correct? b) 2 only
a) 1 only c) Both 1 and 2
b) 2 only d) Neither 1 nor 2
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q.50) With regard to the Constitution (One
Hundred and Fifth Amendment) Act of 2021,
Q.47) With reference to the features of Cabinet consider the following statements:
Committees in India, consider the following 1. It enables the States and Union Territories
statements: to prepare their own list of Socially and
1. Cabinet Committees are extra- Educationally Backward Classes.
constitutional in nature. 2. It provides that the National Commission
2. Cabinet Committees are constituted by the for Backward Classes must always be
Prime Minister. consulted by the states for preparation of
3. All the Cabinet Committees are headed by their list of socially and educationally
the Prime Minister. backward classes.
Which of the statements given above are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? correct?
a) 1 and 2 only a) 1 only
b) 1 and 3 only b) 2 only
c) 2 and 3 only c) Both 1 and 2
d) 1, 2 and 3 d) Neither 1 nor 2

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