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Objective Questions on Constitution of India.

Q. No. 1 A member of the Council of Ministers can be asked to tender his

resignation if he loses the confidence of:
(a) The Governor
(b) The State Legislature
(c) The Chief Minister
(d) The High Court correct
answer : c

Q. No. 2: The Governor of a State is appointed by:

(a) The Prime Minister
(b) The President
(c) The President on the recommendation of the Central Council of
Ministers
(d) The President on the adviceof the Chief Minister of the State
correct answer : b

Q. No. 3 Which one of the following methods for the retirement of the members of
the Legislative Council is correct?
(a) All the members retire simultaneously
(b) One-third members retire every two years
(c) One-fourth members ret,;e after every two years
(d) One- half members retire after every two years
correct answer : b

Q. No. 4 The membership of a State Legislative Assembly generally ranges

between:
(a) 60 and 500
(b) 250 and 500
(c) 100 and 200
(d) 700 and 100
correct answer : a
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Q. No. 5 Can one person act as Governor of more than one state?
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) Only for a period of six months
(d) Only for period of three months
correct answer : a

Q. No. 6 The term of the office of Comptroller and Auditor-General of India le:
(a) 5 years
(b) 6 years
(c) 10 years
(d) 12 years
correct answer : b

Q. No. 7 To whom -does the Vice-President address his resignation?

(a) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
(b) The President
(c) The Minister of Home Affairs
(d) The Chile Justice correct answer : b

Q. No. 8 The disputes regarding the election of the President are decided by:
(a) The Supreme Court of India
(b) The Parliament
(c) The Election Commission
(d) The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
correct answer : a

Q. No. 9 If there is any disagreement between the Rajya Sabha and the Lok Sabha
over a bill, the President will convene a joint sitting of both Houses of the Parliament
under Article:
(a) 107
(b) 109
(c) 111
(d) 108 correct
answer : d
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Q. No. 10 The position of the President of India is analogous to:

(a) The Queen of United Kingdom
(b) The President of United States
(c) The Governor-General of Canada
(d) The President of Bangladesh correct
answer : a

Q. No. 11
The joint sitting of Indian Parliament for transacting a legislative business is
presided over by:
(a) The President of India
(b) Seniormost member of the Parliament
(c) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
(d) Speaker of the Lok Sabha correct
answer : d

Q. No. 12 The President is empowered to dissolve:

(a) Only Lok Sabha
(b) Only Rajya Sabha
(c) Both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(d) None of the above correct
answer : a

Q. No. 13 Who administers the oath of office to the President?

(a) The Prime Minister
(b) The Vice-President
(c) The Chief Election Commissioner
(d) The Chief-Justice of India correct answer : d

Q. No. 14
It the President wants to resign, he has to address the letter of resignation to the:
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Vice-President
(c) Speaker
(d) Chief Justice of India

.correct answer : b
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Q. No. 15 If the office of the President falls vacant, except due to the expiry of his
term, it is to be filled within:
(a) One year
(b) One month
(c) Three months
(d) Six months correct answer : d

Q. No. 16 The procedure for the impeachment of the President is laid down in
Article:
(a) 61
(b) 60
(c) 63
(d) 64 correct answer : a

Q. No. 17 The Fundamental Rights as given in the Constitution are:

(a) Subject to reasonable restrictions
(b) Absolute
(c) Inalienable
(d) None of the above

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 18 If a new state of the Indian Union is to be created, which one of the
following schedules of the Constitution must be amended?
(a) First
(b) Second
(c) Third
(d) Fifth

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 19 Which of the following articles of the Indian Constitution provides for
endeavour of every State to arrange adequate facility for instruction in the mother
tongue at the primary stage of education?
(a) Article 349
(b) Article 350
(c) Article 351
(d) Article 350-A answer :
d
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Q. No. 20 If a question arises whether a Member of Legislature of a State in India

has become subject to some disqualification, whose opinion will the Governor seek
and act upon ?
(a) Election Commission
(b) High Court
(c) President of India
(d) Supreme Court.

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 21 Judges of High Courts are appointed by the

(a) President.
(b) Governor.
(c) Chief Justice of India
(d) Prime minister on the advice of Council of ministers .correct
answer : a

Q. No. 22 The right to constitutional remedies for enforcement of Fundamental

Rights is given in:
(a) Article 13
(b) Article 14
(c) Article 19d
(d) Article 32 .correct answer : d

Q. No. 23 The total number of members nominated by the President of India to

Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha is
(a) 12
(b) 14
(c) 16
(d) 18 .correct answer : a

Q. No. 24
A Finance Commission is appointed by the President to recommend division of
revenue between the Centre and States in every:
(a) 2 years
(b) 5 years
(c) 7 years
(d) 10 years

.correct answer : b
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Q. No. 25 Which one of the following is a State subject included in the State List
only?
(a) Education
(b) Fisheries
(c) Forests
(d) Railways. .correct answer : b

Q. No. 26
The subjects on which the Central government enjoys exclusive powers are
contained in:
(a) The Union List
(b) The Federal List
(c) The State List
(d) The Concurrent List .correct answer : a

Q. No. 27 The Concurrent List contains:

(a) 97 subjects
(b) 66 subjects
(c) 57 subjects
(d) 47 subjects .correct answer : d

Q. No. 28
A boy, aged 11years, has been compelled to work in a factory making match boxes.
Which Fundamental Right is violated in this case?
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right against Exploitation
(c) Right to Freedom
(d) Right to Freedom of Religion.

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 29
The security deposit of a general contestant in Lok Sabha election is:
(a) Rs 500/-
(b) Rs 250/-
(c) Rs 2500/-
(d) Rs 5000/-

.correct answer : a
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Q. No. 30
According to 10th Schedule of the Constitution a member of Lok Sabha can be
disqualified on grounds of:
(a) Proven misbehaviour
(b) Lunacy
(c) Defection
(d) None of the above

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 31
Who is the Chairman of Zonal Councils?
(a) Prime Minister
(b) President
(c) Lok Sabha Speaker
(d) Union Home Minister

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 32
The Right to Freedom of Religion is included in:
(a) Articles 25 to 27
(b) Articles 25 to 28
(c) Articles 26 to 29
(d) Articles 22 to 28

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 33
The names of the States and Union Territories and the territories covered by each of
them have been described in the:
(a) First Schedule
(b) Second Schedule
(c) Fourth Schedule
(d) Seventh Schedule

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 34
By which amendment did Parliament acquire the right to amend Fundamental
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Rights?
(a) 24th amendment
(b) 23th amendment
(c) 20th amendment
(d) 22nd amendment

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 35
The concept of Directive Principles has been borrowed from:
(a) Irish Constitution
(b) Canadian Constitution
(c) Russian Constitution
(d) American Constitution

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 36
The Fundamental Rights:
(a) Were added by 42nd amendment
(b) Were added by 44th amendment
(c) Formed a part of original Constitution
(d) Were added by Parliament in 1952

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 37
Which one of the following amendments established the importance of Directive
Principles over certain Fundamental Rights?
(a) 24th amendment
(b) 25th amendment
(c) 42nd amendment
(d) 44th amendment

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 38
Directive Principles have been included in the Constitution to achieve the ideals of:
(a) Individual liberty
(b) Political liberty
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(c) Democracy
(d) Welfare state

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 39
How many Directive Principles were added by the 42nd Amendment of 1976?
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Five
(d) Six

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 40
Under which Articles have the Directive Principles of State Policy been mentioned in
the Constitution?
(a) Articles 37-50
(b) Articles 38-51
(c) Articles 36-51
(d) Articles 36-52

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 41
The Indian Federal system is largely based on the pattern of:
(a) American federation
(b) Australian federation
(c) Swiss federation
(d) Canadian federation

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 42
One of the Directive Principles is that the State shall introduce free and compulsory
education for all children up to the age of
(a) 10 years
(b) 12 years
(c) 14 years
(d) 13 years orrect answer : c
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Q. No. 43
The Union List contains:
(a) 67 subjects
(b) 77 subjects
(c) 87 subjects
(d) 97 subjects

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 44
At present, there are?..freedoms under Article 19.
(a) Seven
(b) Six
(c) Eight
(d) Ten

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 45
The right to acquire, hold and dispose of property was removed from Article 19 by:
(a) 44th Amendment
(b) 42nd Amendment
(c) 46th Amendment
(d) 45th Amendment

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 46
In which of the following matters, have Rajya Sabha co-equal powers with Lok
Sabha
(a) Power to initiate the Budget
(b) Power to pass the Finance Bill
(c) Power to adopt motion of no?-confidence against the Government
(d) Power to amend the Constitution.

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 47
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Who in empowered to suspend the operation of the Fundamental Rights?

(a) Supreme Court
(b) President
(c) The Cabinet
(d) Parliament

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 48
Find the odd one out.
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right to Property
(c) Cultural and Educational Rights
(d) Right against Exploitation

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 49
Who is competent to amend Fundamental Rights?
(a) Supreme Court
(b) Parliament
(c) President
(d) They are not amendable

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 50
The Fundamental Rights are enshrined in which part of the Consitution?
(a) Part II
(b) Part III
(c) Part IV
(d) Part V

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 51
Which of the following Articles cannot be suspended in any proclamation of
emergency?
(a) Articles 15, 16
(b) Articles 18, 19
(c) Articles 20, 21
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(d) Articles 15, 18

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 52
Which part of the Constitution of India has been described as the soul of the
Constitution?
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Preamble
(d) Right to Constitutional Remedies

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 53
A foreigner can acquire Indian citizenship through:
(a) Registration
(b) Naturalisation
(c) Descent
(d) All of the above

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 54
The Lok Sabha secretariat comes under the direct supervision of the:
(a) Ministry of Home Affairs
(b) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
(c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(d) President

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 55
Which of the following States does not have a bicameral legislature?
(a) Bihar
(b) Karnataka
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Maharashtra.

.correct answer : c
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Q. No. 56
How many Fundamental Duties were incorporated in Article 51-A, by the 42nd
Amendment Act, 1976?
(a) Ten
(b) Nine
(c) Two
(d) Twenty

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 57
The Amendment by which the tenth Schedule was added:
(a) 46th Amendment
(b) 42nd Amendment
(c) 52nd Amendment
(d) None of the above

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 58
Political defection is sought to be curbed under which Constitutional Amendment?
(a) 49th Constitutional Amendment
(b) 50th Constitutional Amendment
(c) 51st Constitutional Amendment
(d) 52nd Constitutional Amendment

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 59
The assessment year starts from????. Under Income Tax Act
(a) January 1
(b) February 28
(c) April-1
(d) June-1

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 60
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Which one among the following languages was not added by the 71st Amendment
Act 1992?
(a) Konkani
(b) Manipuri
(c) Nepali
(d) Urdu

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 61
The historic Panchayati Raj Bill adopted by parliament in 1992 by?.. Amendment.
(a) 70th
(b) 72nd
(c) 73rd
(d) 74 th

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 62
Which one of the following cannot be dissolved but can be abolished?
(a) State Legislative Councils
(b) State Legislative Assemblies
(c) Rajya Sabha
(d) Lok Sabha

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 63
Which one of the following States does not incorporate fundamental duties in the
Constitution?
(a) India
(b) Japan
(c) China
(d) U.K.

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 64
The Governor of a State nominates to the Legislative Council:
(a) 1/8th of its members
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(b) 1/10th of its members

(c) 1/6th of its members
(d) 1/5th of its members

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 65
Which amendment to the Constitution of India provides for National Commissions
for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes separately?
(a) 90th
(b) 89th
(c) 91st
(d) 88th

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 66
Which Article was called by Dr. Amhodkw the ?dead letter??
(a) Article 356
(b) Article 352
(c) Article 360
(d) Article 226

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 67
All the speeches and remarks made in the House of People are addressed to:
(a) The Prime Minister
(b) The Speaker
(c) The People
(d) The members

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 68
The number of the Articles which were amended under the 42nd amendment of the
Constitution is:
(a) 10
(b) 25
(c) 44
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(d) 53

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 69
Who accords recognition to various political parties as national or regional parties?
(a) The President
(b) The Election Commission
(c) The Parliament
(d) The President in consulation with the Election Commission

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 70
In which state was Panchayati Raj first introduced?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Bihar
(d) Andhra Pradesh

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 71
The maximum number of seats for Lok Sabha may go up to:
(a) 542
(b) 545
(c) 552
(d) 567

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 72
Which Article of the Constitution provides for an Election Commission?
(a) Article 280
(b) Article 315
(c) Article 324
(d) Article 325

.correct answer : c
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Q. No. 73
The Ninth Schedule was added to the Constitution by:
(a) The 1st Amendment
(b) The 2nd Amendment
(c) The 8th Amendment
(d) The 11th Amendment

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 74
The controversial 42nd Amendment was passed in:
(a) 1974
(b) 1976
(c) 1978
(d) 1980

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 75
How many times can the President of India return, a Non-Money Bill, passed by
Parliament?
(a) Twice
(b) Once
(c) Thrice
(d) Never.

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 76
The first Amendment Act was passed in the year:
(a) 1950.
(b) 1951
(c) 1952
(d) 1953

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 77
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A new Chapter IV A on Fundamental Duties was inserted in the Indian Constitution

in?
(a) 1972
(b) 1976
(c) 1980
(d) 1984

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 78
Who issues notification for the elections to the Parliament?
(a) President
(b) Speaker of the House
(c) Election Commissioner
(d) The Prime Minister

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 79
The Council of Ministers in the State has been made collectively responsible to the:
(a) State Legislative Assembly
(b) State Legislative Council
(c) The Governor
(d) None of the above

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 80
How many times has the President declared financial emergency in the country so
far?
(a) Once
(b) Twice
(c) Thrice
(d) Never

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 81
Which one of the following is a source of revenue of a Municipal Committee?
(a) Income Tax
21

(b) Octroi Tax

(c) Excise Duty
(d) Foreign assistance.

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 82
Who can nominate one representative of the Anglo-Indian Community to the State
Legislative Assembly?
(a) The President
(b) The Speaker of State legislature
(c) The Governor
(d) The Chief Minister

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 83
The allotment of seats in the Rajya Sabha from States and Union Territories has
been given in which schedule of the Constituion of India.
(a) 3rd Schedule
(b) 4th Schedule
(c) 7th
(d) 10th

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 84
The maximum duration for which an Emergency under Article 356 can be imposed
is:
(a) One year
(b) Three years
(c) Six months
(d) There No specified time limit

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 85
Which Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration and control of
Scheduled Areas as well as Scheduled Tribes?
(a) First Schedule
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(b) Fifth Schedule

(c) Sixth Schedule
(d) Seventh Schedule

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 86
Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution provides for election to
State Assemblies?
(a) Article 170
(b) Article 176
(c) Article 178
(d) None of these.

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 87
`The returning officers for the State Legislative Assembly elections are appointed
by:
(a) The President
(b) The Governor
(c) The Election Commission
(d) The Chief Electoral Officers

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 88
The election compaign of all political parties and candidates in a constitutency has
to end hours before the closing of poll.
(a) 24 hours
(b) 48 hours
(c) 72 hours
(d) 36 hours

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 89
The responsibility for proper registration of an eligible person as voter rests with:
(a) The Election Commission
(b) The State Government
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(c) The political parties

(d) The individual concerned

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 90
Economic justice has been incorporated in the Constitution of India under the
(a) Directive Principles of State Policy.
(b) Fundamdntal Rights.
(c) Residuary Powers.
(d) Fundamental Duties.

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 91
Members of the Legislative Assembly are elected for a term of:
(a) 2 years
(b) 3 years
(c) 4 years
(d) 5 years

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 92
The State having maximum strength in its Assembly is:
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Bihar
(d) Orissa

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 93
The normal term of the Governor?s office:
(a) Depends on the tenure of the State Legislature
(b) Is 3 years
(c) Is 4 years
(d) Is 5 years

.correct answer : d
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Q. No. 94
Who holds the office of the Governor in case the latter expires?
(a) Nominee of the Chief Minister
(b) The Chief Justice of the State High Court
(c) The Chief Minister
(d) The Chief Secretary

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 95
The minimum age limit for a Governor is:
(a) 30 years
(b) 32 years
(c) 35 years
(d) 45 years

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 96
Which one of the following Constitutional Amendments bans floor crossing by a
member elected on a party ticket to a Legislature?
(a) 52nd
(b) 54th
(c) 56th
(d) 58th

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 97
Under which Article financial emergency can be proclaimed?
(a) Article 359
(b) Article 356
(c) Article 323
(d) Article 360

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 98
25

The oath of office in a State is administered to the members of Council of Ministers

by:
(a) The Governor
(b) The Chief Minister
(c) The Speaker
(d) The Chief Justice of the State High Court

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 99
The special status has been accorded to the State of Jammu and Kashmir under:
(a) Article 370 of the Constitution
(b) Schedule I of the Constitution
(c) A treaty signed between the Union Government and State
Government at the time of Accession.
(d) None of the above

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 100
Ordinance of the Governor has to be passed by the Assembly within:
(a) 8 weeks
(b) 6 weeks
(c) 12 weeks
(d) 10 weeks

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 101
Which one of the following is part of the electoral college for the election of the
President of India but does not form part of the forum for his impeachment?
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Raiya Sabha
(c) State Legislative Council?s
(d) State Legislative Assemblies.

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 102
To whom are Fundamental Rights under the Indian Constitution guaranteed?
(a) Everybody in India
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(b) Indian citizens everywhere

(c) All legal entities
(d) All adult humans in India.

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 103
Which of the following languages was last added to the Eighth Schedule of the
Constitution?
(a) Sindhi
(b) Konkani
(c) Urdu
(d) Kannada

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 104
The President of India can be removed from office by:
(a) The Prime Minister of India
(b) The Lok Sabha
(c) The Chief Justice of India
(d) The Parliament

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 105
Panchayath Raj is a subject on the:
(a) Concurrent List
(b) Union List
(c) State List
(d) Residual List

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 106
The Fundamental Rights of the Indian citizens have been enumerated from:
(a) Articles 12 to 35 of the Constitution
(b) Articles 13 to 36 of the Constitution
(c) Articles 15 to 39 of the Constitution
(d) Articles 16 to 40 of the Constitution
27

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 107
What is the age at which an Indian can become a candidate for Presidentship?
(a) 45
(b) 65
(c) 60
(d) 35

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 108
What is the term of the members of Rajya Sabha?
(a) 6 years
(b) 5 years
(c) 4 years
(d) 2 years

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 109
The Union Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to:
(a) Rajya Sabha
(b) Lok Sabha
(c) President
(d) Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 110
The Planning, Commission is:
(a) A Ministry
(b) A Government department
(c) An Advisory body
(d) An Autonomous corporation

.correct answer : c
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Q. No. 111
The Lok Sabha Secretariat comes under the direct supervision of:
(a) Ministry of Home Affairs
(b) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
(c) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) President

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 112
Which of the following is correct?
(a) Lok Sabha can be dissolved before 5 years
(b) Lok Sabha can be extended only upto 6 years
(c) Lok Sabha is never dissolved before 5 years
(d) All members of Lok Sabha are elected representatives

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 113
Centre-State financial distribution takes place on recommendations by the:
(a) Finance Minister
(b) Planning Commission
(c) Finance Commission
(d) Sarkaria, Commission

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 114
Eighth Schedule of the Constitution contains:
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) List of religions
(c) Laws placed beyond the jurisdiction of Courts
(d) List of languages

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 115
Deputy-Chairman of Rajya Sabha can be removed by the members of:
(a) Rajya Sabha only
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(b) Lok Sabha only

(c) Both Houses jointly
(d) None of the above

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 116
Supreme Court of India gave the verdict that the ?original structure? of the
Constitution could not be changed in whatever circumstances in the following case:
(a) Sajjan case
(b) Golaknath case
(c) Keshavanand Bharti case
(d) Minerva Mills case

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 117
The citizenship, provided by the Constitution of India, is
(a) Dual citizenship.
(b) Single citizenship
(c) Both of the above.
(d) None of the above.

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 118
Which of the following Acts included Indians in the Legislature for the first time?
(a) Act of 1909
(b) Act of 1919
(c) Act of 1935
(d) Act of 1861

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 119
7th Schedule of the Constitution deals with:
(a) Oaths and affirmations
(b) 15 Indian languages
(c) 3 lists of subjects of legislation
(d) None of the above
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.correct answer : c

Q. No. 120 The Constitutional amendment by which Fundamental Rights were

affected was:
(a) 39th
(b) 40th
(c) 41st
(d) 42nd

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 121 A political party is recognised as a national party:

(a) When it contests elections in all the States of the country.
(b) When it. secures at least five per cent of the total votes cast in a
national election
(c) If it captures power at least in three States
(d) If it is recognised as a political party in four or more States.

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 122 The Constitution of India provides for the nomination of two members of
Lok Sabha by the President to represent:
(a) Persons of eminence in arts, letters, science, etc.
(b) Parsis
(c) The business community
(d) The Anglo-Indian community

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 123 ?Economic Justice? as one of the objectives of the Indian Constitution
has been provided in the:
(a) Preamble and Fundamental Rights
(b) Preamble and Directive Principles
(c) Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles
(d) Preamble, Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles

.correct answer : b
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Q. No. 124 All India Services can be created by the:

(a) President
(b) U.P.S.C.
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Parliament

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 125 As per Indian Constitution, in the event of any conflict between the
union laws and state laws
(a) The matter is referred to the Supreme Court
(b) The state laws shall prevail
(c) The union laws shall prevail
(d) The matter is referred to the Parliamentary Committee specifically
constituted to resolve the dispute.

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 126
The number of seats in Lok Sabha allotted to different states is determined on the
basis of the
(a) population.
(b) size
(c) resources.
(d) location.

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 127
If the Speaker of the State legislative assembly decides to resign, he should submit
his resignation to the:
(a) Chief Minister
(b) Deputy Speaker
(c) Judge of the High Court
(d) President

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 128
The 42nd Amendment Act is notable because it gives:
(a) Special treatment to J and K
(b) Special status to Sikkim
32

(c) Primacy to Fundamental Rights over Directive Principles

(d) Primacy to Directive Principles over Fundamental Rights

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 129
Parliament or a State Legislature can declare a seat vacant if a member absents
himself without permission from the sessions for:
(a) 30 days
(b) 60 days
(c) 90 days
(d) 120 days

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 130
Identify the Article of the Constitution which abolished untouchability?
(a) Article 16b
(b) Article 17
(c) Article 19
(d) Article 32

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 131
No Money Bill can be introduced in the legislative assembly without the
recommendations of the:
(a) Governor
(b) Chief Minister
(c) Finance Minister
(d) Speaker

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 132
The President of India can proclaim National Emergency
(a) On the advice of the Council of Ministers headed by the Prime
Minister
(b) On the advice of the Speaker
(c) On the advice of the leader of the ruling party or set of parties in
33

power
(d) At his own discretion

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 133
How many Schedules did we have in our Constitution at the time of its adoption?
(a) 8
(b) 10
(c) 12
(d) 11

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 134
The provision for .... has been given under Article 343.
(a) Regional languages
(b) Languages of the Supreme Court and High Courts
(c) Official language of the Union
(d) Committee on official language

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 135
We borrowed the Concept of Fundamental Duties from the:
(a) American Constitution
(b) Irish constitution
(c) Canadian Constitution
(d) USSR Constitution

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 136
Which one among the following is the lengthiest Constitution?
(a) American
(b) Indian
(c) Canadian
(d) Russian

.correct answer : b
34

Q. No. 137
Which are the three languages that were added to the Eighth Schedule in 1992 by
71st Amendment?
(a) Konkani, Manipuri, Nepali
(b) Naga, Rajasthani, Brij
(c) Manipuri, Sindhi, Naga
(d) Naga, Konkani, Nepali

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 138
Which of the following is also an official language and yet not included in the Eighth
Schedule of the Constitution?
(a) Rajasthani
(b) Konkani
(c) English
(d) Manipuri

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 139
Part II of the Constitution deals with:
(a) The Union and its Territory
(b) Citizenship
(c) Tribunals
(d) Elections

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 140
In India, a citizen who has attained the age of has a right to vote irrespective of his
religion, race, caste, colour, creed, sex, place of birth, etc.
(a) 21 years
(b) 20 years
(c) 18 years
(d) 18 years for girls and 21 years for boys

.correct answer : c
35

Q. No. 141
Which part of the Indian Constitution reflects the ideology of ?Humanism??
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Fundamental Duties
(c) Directive Principles
(d) Preamble

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 142
Equal pay for equal work for both men and women has been laid down in the Indian
Constitution as one of the
(a) Fundamental Rights.
(b) Fundamental Duties.
(c) Guidelines in the Preamble.
(d) Directive Principles of State Policy.

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 143
The authority to alter the boundaries of States in India rests with the:
(a) State Government
(b) Parliament
(c) Prime Minister
(d) President

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 144
The Finance Commission is set up by:
(a) Prime Minister
(b) President
(c) Parliament
(d) Finance Minister

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 145
Special provisions have been made in the Indian Constitution in respect of:
36

(a) Sikhs and Jains

(b) Women and Children
(c) Muslims and Christions
(d) Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 146
The Governor of a State is :
(a) Head of State
(b) Head of Government
(c) President's agent
(d) Non-political figure

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 147
Regarding distribution of power between Centre and the States, India can be best
described as:
(a) Quasi-federal
(b) Fully federal
(c) Federal in structure but unitary in function
(d) Partly federal and partly unitary

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 148
In case of aggression by a country on India, wherein a war situation arises, which
one of the following authorities can finally decide to declare emergency and war
against the aggressor?
(a) The President
(b) The Cabinet
(c) The Prime Minister
(d) The Parliament

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 149
Supremacy of Directive Principles of State Policy over Fundamental Rights was
provided in ??. constitutional amendment.
37

(a) 39th
(b) 41st
(c) 42nd
(d) None of these

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 150
The President may be removed from office for violation of the Constitution before
the expiry of his term by impeachment. Charges for this purpose may be preferred
by:
(a) Either House of the Parliament by a two-thirds majority
(b) Prime Minister and his Council of Ministers
(c) Not less than one-fourth of the total number of members of both the
Houses of Parliament
(d) Not less than half of the total number of members of Lok Sabha

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 151 ????.was the last to be adopted.

(a) Preamble
(b) Part III-Fundamental Rights
(c) Part IV- Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) None of the above

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 152
How many Articles did we have in the original Constitution?
(a) 400' Articles
(b) 410 Articles
(c) 443 Articles
(d) 395 Articles

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 153
To produce the Constitution, the Constituent Assembly took:
(a) 2 years 11 months and 17 days
(b) 3 years 10 months and 20 days
(c) 4 years 11 months and 17 days
38

(d) 5 years 6 months and 5 days32

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 154
The first session of Constituent Assembly was held:
(a) From 9th December to 23rd December, 1946
(b) From 9th December to 31st December, 1946
(c) From 29th December 1946 to 9th July, 1947
(d) From 8th December to 22nd December, 1946

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 155
The terms ?secular?, ?integrity? and ?socialist? were added to the Preamble in
(a) 1979
(b) 1977
(c) 1976
(d) 1975

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 156
The Preamble of the Constitution was prepared by:
(a) Pt. Nehru
(b) Sardar Patel
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Subhash Chandra Bose

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 157
According to our Constitution, sovereignty rests in the
(a) People
(b) Union Parliament
(c) Presiden
(d) Constitution

.correct answer : a
39

Q. No. 158
Corporation Tax
(a) is levied and appropriated by the States.
(b) is levied by the Union and collected and appropriated by the States.
(c) is levied by the Union and shared by the Union and the States.
(d) is levied by the Union and belongs to it exclusively.

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 159
When the State Legislature is dissolved, the law making power is vested in the
hands of:
(a) Parliament
(b) President
(c) Governor
(d) Supreme Court

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 160
Who is the custodian of the Fundamental Rights enshrined in the Indian
Constitution?
(a) Parliament
(b) President
(c) Supreme Court
(d) All of these

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 161
The correct nomenclature of India according to the Preamble is :
(a) Sovereign, Secular, Democratic Republic
(b) Sovereign, Democratic Republic
(c) Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic
(d) Sovereign Secular Socialist Democracy

.correct answer : c
40

Q. No. 162
Which one of the following is in the state list?
(a) Railway Police
(b) Corporation Tax.
(c) Census
(d) Economic and social planning

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 163
When is the Rajya Sabha dissolved?
(a) During Emergency
(b) During President?s Rule
(c) Never
(d) After every five years of its election

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 164
The Constitution describes India as a:
(a) Unitary State
(b) Union of States
(c) Federation of States
(d) Confederation of States

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 165
What is Constitutional position of the Governor of a State in India?
(a) Representative of the President
(b) Representative of the Chief Minister
(c) Head of the State
(d) Representative of the Central Government

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 166
The words ?socialist? and ?secular? were added in the Preamble of the Indian
Constitution by the ?..Constitutional amendment.
(a) 42nd
41

(b) 32nd
(c) 25th
(d) 9th

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 167
If the office of the President falls vacant, it must be filled within the next:
(a) 3 months-
(b) 6 months
(c) 9 months
(d) 12 months

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 168
To whom can a case of dispute in the election of the President be referred?
(a) Chief Election Commissioner
(b) Parliament
(c) Supreme Court of India
(d) None of the above.

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 169
Which among the following is not a Fundamental Right?
(a) Right to strike
(b) Right against exploitation
(c) Right to equality
(d) Right to freedom of religion

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 170
Which of the following is presided over by a non-member?
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Vidhan Sabha
(d) Vidhan Parishad
42

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 171
The sitting of the House of the people may be terminated by
(a) Adjournment
(b) Prorogation
(c) Dissolution
(d) All of these

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 172
President gives his resignation to the
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Vice-President
(c) Chief Justice
(d) Parliament

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 173
?Welfare State? is well defined in which of the following?
(a) Indian Preamble
(b) Directive Principles
(c) Schedule VII of the Constitution
(d) Fundamental Rights

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 174
White Paper is a:
(a) Government supplement on policy matters
(b) Fine paper for printing
(c) Paper used in currency notes
(d) Paper on which a judge gives a death sentence

.correct answer : a
43

Q. No. 175
For those Union Territories, which have no Legislative Councils of their own, laws
are passed by:
(a) Union Ministry
(b) President
(c) Parliament
(d) Appointed administrator

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 176
When is the joint session of Parliament called?
(a) When there is dispute over Money Bills
(b) When there is difference of opinion over non-Money Bills
(c) When the leader of the House is to be elected
(d) All of the above

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 177
What is the amendment whereby the power of the Lok Sabha to amend the
Constitution was affirmed?
(a) 24th
(b) 42nd
(c) 43rd
(d) 39 th

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 178
The Union Budget is presented in
(a) The Lok Sabha
(b) The Rajya Sabha
(c) Joint session of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha
(d) Anywhere

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 179
Formally all the executive powers of the Union Government are vested in
44

(a) The President of India

(b) The Cabinet Ministers only
(c) The Prime Minister of India
(d) The Union Council of Ministers

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 180
Under the Constitution, certain payments like the emoluments to the President or
Judges of the Supreme Court do not require any parliamentary sanction as such,
but are nevertheless shown separately in the budget. These are drawn from:
(a) Grants-in-aid
(b) Contingency Fund
(c) Consolidated Fund of India
(d) Public Accounts

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 181
Which of the following were incorporated into the Constitution by an amendment?
(a) Directive Principles
(b) Fundamental Duties
(c) Fundamental Rights
(d) None of the above

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 182
In India, the Fundamental Rights:
(a) Are unlimited and unrestrained
(b) Are not followed by duties
(c) Can be enforced through Courts
(d) Are not justiciable

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 183
If a no-confidence motion is passed in the Lok Sabha then:
(a) Parliament is dissolved
(b) Government resigns
45

(c) Prime Minister resigns

(d) Cabinet is re-formed

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 184
Untouchability? was abolished under Article of Indian Constitution.
(a) 48
(b) 49
(c) 17
(d) 331

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 185
Under the Constitution of India, tax on agricultural income can be levied by
(a) Panchayats
(b) State Government
(c) Central Government
(d) Zilla Parishad

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 186
In India, the power of judicial review is restricted because
(a) The Executive is supreme.
(b) The Legislature is supreme.
(c) The Constitution is supreme.
(d) The Judges are transferable.

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 187
The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is appointed by the:
(a) President
(b) Chief JusticePrime Minister
(c) Finance Minister
(d) None

.correct answer : a
46

Q. No. 188
There is no provision for the impeachment of
(a) The Vice-President.
(b) The Chief Justice of the High Court.
(c) The Chief Justice of India.
(d) None

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 189
By which amendment was the Education transferred from the Union List to the
Concurrent List?
(a) 42nd
(b) 39th
(c) 40th
(d) 43rd

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 190
The resolution for removing the Vice-President of India can be moved in the
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Either House of Parliament
(c) Rajya Sabha alone
(d) Joint sitting of Parliament

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 191
Article 25 of the Indian Constitution refers to the:
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Freedom of Speech
(c) Freedom of Religion
(d) Right to Property

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 192
47

Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, etc., (Article 15 of the

Constitution of Indi
(a) is a Fundamental Right classifiable under a) the Right to Freedom of
Religion.
(b) the Right against Exploitation.
(c) the Cultural and Educational Rights.
(d) the Right to Equality.

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 193
Gandhian Principles have been enumerated in the Indian Constitution under the:
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Preamble of the Indian Constitution
(d) Fundamental Duties

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 194
The Indian President is a:
(a) Real executive
(b) Titular executive
(c) Monarch
(d) None of the above

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 195
Interpretation of Indian Constitution is based on the spirit of the:
(a) Preamble
(b) Fundamental Rights
(c) Directive Principles of State Policy
(d) Fundamental Duties

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 196
Which of the following types of Bills can become law despite disapproval of Rajya
Sabha?
48

(a) Non-money Bills

(b) All types of Bills
(c) Money BIlls
(d) None of the above

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 197
Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali have been included in the 8th Schedule of the
constitution by which Constitutional Amendment?
(a) 92nd Amendment Act, 2003
(b) 91st Amendment Act, 2003
(c) 85th Amendment Act, 2001
(d) 90th Amendment Act, 2003

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 198
Which of the following has banned floor crossing by the members elected on a party
ticket to the lagislature?
(a) 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act
(b) People?s Representation Act
(c) National Security Act
(d) Maintenance of Internal Security Act

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 199
Right to free education to children of 6 years to 14 years of age has been granted
vide 86th constitutional amendment, 2002.
(a) Enshrined in the Directive Principles of State Policy
(b) Made a Fundamental Right
(c) Outlined in the Preamble of the Constitution
(d) Ignored by the Constitution

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 200
The Indian Constitution does not follow the model of the Constitution of :
(a) U.K.
49

(b) U.S.A.
(c) China
(d) Ireland

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 201
When can the salaries of the judges of the Supreme Court be reduced during their
term of office
(a) As and when the President desires
(b) Never
(c) During a Financial Emergency
(d) If the Parliament passes a bill to this effect

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 202
If the Parliament passes a law which is against the Constitution, it can be declared
as unconstitutional by the
(a) A bench of High Court Judges
(b) Chief Justice of India
(c) President
(d) Supreme Court

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 203
The Chief Justice and other Judges of the Supreme Court can be removed from
their office by an order of the President passed after
(a) An address by each House supported by a majority of total
membership of that House and not less than 2/3 rd of members present
and voting has been presented to the President
(b) A resolution passed by 2/3 rd majority of total membership of Lok
Sabha is presented to him
(c) A resolution of both Houses passed a 2/3 rd majority of total
membership is presented to him
(d) An address by each House supported by the majority of the members
present and voting has been presented to him

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 204
50

A Judge of the Supreme Court can be removed from office only on grounds of
(a) Senility
(b) Proven misbehaviour or incapacity
(c) Imbecile conduct
(d) Gross inefficiency

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 205
In which of the following cases appeals cannot be lodged with the Supreme Court
(a) Criminal case in which High Court after withdrawing a case from the
lower court, has given a death sentence
(b) Criminal cases in which High Court has given a death sentence to a
criminal found non-guilty by a lower court
(c) A sentence in a criminal case given by the lower court and confirmed
by the High Court
(d) Constitutional matters involving a substantial point of law

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 206
Which of the following is covered under the original jurisdiction of the Supreme
Court?
(a) Disputes between two citizens from two different states
(b) Disputes between two states of the Indian Union
(c) Dispute relating to criminal cases involving murder
(d) Dispute relating to civil matters

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 207
Which one of the following comes under the jurisdiction of both the High Court and
Supreme Court
(a) Protection against the violation of the Constitution
(b) Protection of the Fundamental Rights
(c) Disputes between the States
(d) Disputes between the Centre and the States

.correct answer : b
51

Q. No. 208
A judge of the Supreme Court of India is to hold office until he attains the age of
____ y ears
(a) 65
(b) 62
(c) 60
(d) 58

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 209
The Supreme Court of India decides the disputes regarding the election of
(a) The President and Vice-President
(b) The Speaker and Deputy Speaker
(c) The Prime Minister
(d) All of the above

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 210
Which of the following is true about the Supreme Court?
(a) It can amend the Constitution
(b) It does not have the Original Jurisdiction
(c) It is the highest federal court of India
(d) It has only the Appellate Jurisdiction

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 211
A civil case becomes a fit case for appeal to the Supreme Court if
(a) The case had come to the High Court under an appeal from a
subordinate court
(b) It involves a sum of money over Rs.10000
(c) The High Court certifies that it involves a point of law and needs
interpretation of the Constitution
(d) It involves a point of Constitutional law

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 212
52

Which is not an eligibility criterion for appointment as a Judge of the Supreme

Court?
(a) Must be, in the opinion of the President, a distinguished jurist
(b) Must have been an advocate of a High Court for not less than 10
years
(c) Must have attained the age of 55 years
(d) Must have been a High Court judge for at least 5 years

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 213
?Judicial Review? function of the Supreme Court means the power to
(a) Undertake periodic review of the Constitution
(b) Examine the constitutional validity of the laws
(c) Review the functioning of judiciary in the country
(d) Review its own judgment

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 214
Which of the following is incorrect regarding Supreme Court
(a) It is bound by its earlier decisions and cannot depart from its previous
decisions
(b) Its records are admitted in evidence and cannot be questioned when
produced in any Court of Law
(c) It is a court of record and has all the powers of such court including
the power to punish for contempt of itself
(d) It has the power to punish by fine and imprisonment any person
guilty of contempt of its authority

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 215
An appeal shall lie to the Supreme Court from any judgment of a High Court if the
High Court
(a) Has withdrawn for trial before itself any case from any subordinate
court and has convicted the accused person and sentenced him to death
(b) Certifies that the case is a fit one for appeal to the Supreme Court
(c) Has on appeal reversed an order of acquittal of an accused person
and sentenced him to death
(d) In all the above cases
53

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 216
To ensure impartiality, the retired Chief Justice and other judges of the Supreme
Court are debarred from practising law
(a) In any Criminal Court
(b) In any court other than State High Courts
(c) In any court of India
(d) In any court other than the Supreme Court

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 217
Besides its permanent seat at Delhi, the Supreme Court can also meet at
(a) Any other Union Territory
(b) Any other place as decided by the Chief Justice of India in
consultation with the President
(c) Any other major city
(d) Any other metropolitan city

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 218
The sanctioned strength of the Supreme Court of India including the Chief Justice
of India is
(a) 26
(b) 25
(c) 27
(d) 24

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 219
Salaries of the Supreme Court Judges are drawn from
(a) Consolidated fund of India
(b) Contingency fund
(c) Public account of India
(d) None of these

.correct answer : a
54

Q. No. 220
_____ is the Vigilance Officer who hears citizen?s complaints against the
Government
(a) Supreme Court Chief Justice
(b) High Court Chief Justice
(c) Governor
(d) Ombudsman

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 221
The final authority to interpret the constitution
(a) Parliament
(b) Supreme Court
(c) Attorney General
(d) High Court

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 222
Dispute regarding the election of Vice President is decided by
(a) High Court
(b) Election Commission
(c) Supreme Court
(d) President

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 223
The authority to restrict or extends the jurisdiction of the state of High Court rests
with
(a) Supreme Court of India
(b) State Government
(c) Governor
(d) President

.correct answer : c
55

Q. No. 224
In Golak nath case Supreme Court held that
(a) Parliament can amend the Fundamental rights
(b) Parliament cannot amend the FR
(c) Parliament can amend the preamble
(d) Parliament cannot amend the preamble

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 225
The High Court of a State is under the direct supervision of ____
(a) Governor
(b) President
(c) Parliament
(d) Supreme Court

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 226
Is there a presumption in favour of the constitutionality of statutes?
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) Depends
(d) Not in all cases

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 227
When there is a conflict between Fundamental Rights as declared by Part III and the
Directive Principles of State Policy (Part IV), the _________ will prevail.
(a) Directive Principles
(b) Fundamental Rights
(c) Both
(d) Neither

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 228
Are the provisions of Part IV en-forceable by any court?
(a) Yes
56

(b) No
(c) Depends
(d) Any of the above

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 229
Art______deals with Fundamental Duties.
(a) 51
(b) 51 A
(c) 12
(d) 13

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 230
The power to decide whether a law passed by the Legislature is valid and
constitutional is vested only in the__________.
(a) Courts
(b) Legislature
(c) President
(d) Parliament

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 231
Protection under Article __________ can be claimed by an institution only if it is
established by a religious or lin-guistic minority.
(a) 25
(b) 26
(c) 29
(d) 30

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 232
Where a legislation is impugned on the ground of its dealing with a topic falling
outside the limits assigned to the particular legislature which has passed the
legislation the __________ of the impugned legislature is the true test of its
57

constitutionality.
(a) Suitability
(b) Pith and substance
(c) Legality
(d) Validity

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 233
The??to the constitution can be regarded as a key to its objects and intention.
(a) Amendment
(b) Fundamental Rights
(c) Preamble
(d) Marginal Notes

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 234
Foreign nationals as such are not entitled to claim_______.
(a) Bill of Rights
(b) Human Rights
(c) Petition of Rights
(d) Fundamental Rights.

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 235
The right to move_______court for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights is itself
a guaranteed Fundamental Right.
(a) High
(b) Subordinate
(c) Quasi-Judicial
(d) Supreme

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 236
.............are not absolute but are limited.
(a) Property Rights
(b) Fundamental Rights
58

(c) Bill of Rights

(d) Petition of Rights

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 237
When a State Legislature is dissolved, the law-making power vests with the:
(a) State Government
(b) Chief Justice of India
(c) Union Parliament
(d) President of India

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 238
The impeachment process of President is initiated on the ground of:
(a) Proved misbehaviour and incapacity
(b) Gross delinquency
(c) Corruption
(d) Violation of the Constitution

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 239
Every statute is prima-facie ______ unless it is expressly or by necessary implication
made to have retrospec-tive operation.
(a) Complicated
(b) Residuary
(c) Inoperative
(d) Prospective

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 240
Where a case can be disposed of without declaring an Act_______, the court will not
make any such declaration.
(a) Lawful
(b) Constitutional
(c) Unconstitutional
(d) Valid
59

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 241
Where two constructions of a provi-sion in an Act are possible, one which will make
it ultra vires and the other intra vires,______ should be preferred.
(a) Former
(b) Latter
(c) Neither
(d) Any

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 242
According to the 73rd Constitution Amendment Act, in the event of dissolution of
Panchayat Raj institutions election for the new body should be compulsorily held
within
(a) 2 months
(b) 4 months
(c) 6 months
(d) 8 months

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 243
What is the main purpose of Panchayati Raj?
(a) To increase agricultural production
(b) To create employment
(c) To make people politically conscious
(d) To make people participate in development administration

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 244
The part of the Constitution that reflects the welfare ideals of the framers is:
(a) Directive Principles of State Policy
(b) Fundamental Rights
(c) Preamble
(d) Citizenship.
60

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 245
The general body of the Panchayat Samiti meets:
(a) Once in a year
(b) Once in two years
(c) Once in three years
(d) Once in three months

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 246
What percentage of seats are reserved for women in Panchayati
(a) 20%
(b) 30%
(c) 27.25%
(d) 40.10%

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 247
The system of Panchayati Raj sets up Panchayats at:
(a) The village, block and district level
(b) The village, district and state level
(c) The village and state level
(d) The village, block and state level

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 248
Assertion :-The President is a part of the legislature. Reason :-A bill passed by the
Houses of Parliament cannot become a law without the assent of the President
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : a
61

Q. No. 249
Assertion :-The President is bound to act in accordance with the advice of the
Council of Ministers. Reason :-The Council of Ministers cannot be required to
reconsider its advice.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 250
Assertion :-The Supreme Court consists of a Chief Justice and 25 other Judges.
Reason :-The Judges of the Supreme Court draw such salaries and allowances as
are specified in the second schedule of the Constitution.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 251
Assertion :-Under Article 141, the decision of the Supreme Court is binding on all
courts within the territory of India. Reason :- The Supreme Court is bound by its
earlier decisions.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 252
Assertion :-The Preamble of the Constitution starts with ?We, the people of India?
Reason :It implies that the Constitution is created by the entire nation.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
62

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 253
Panchayati Raj System in India was introduced in
(a) 1955
(b) 1957
(c) 1959
(d) 1964

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 254
Panchayati Raj is:
(a) Administrative structure
(b) Financial structure
(c) Physical structure
(d) State structure

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 255
Local Self-Government was introduced in Modern India by:
(a) Lord Delhousie
(b) Lord Mayo
(c) Lord Curzon
(d) Lord Rippon

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 256
Primary aim of Panchayati Raj administration is:
(a) To work for rural development
(b) To ensure uplift of Harijans
(c) To arouse in the people continuous interest in community
development
(d) To increase agricultural production through involvement of people in
extension programmes

.correct answer : a
63

Q. No. 257
The administrative head of the Panchayat Samiti is the:
(a) Sarpanch
(b) Gram Pradhan
(c) Block Development Officer
(d) District Magistrate

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 258
The Panchayati Raj institutions depend for funds mainly on
(a) Local taxes
(b) Property tax
(c) Government finances
(d) Special taxes

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 259
Panchayati Raj is based on the ideology of:
(a) Democratic decentralisation
(b) Community co-operation and development.
(c) People?s participation in government
(d) Cultivating political awareness in the rural masses

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 260
Balwant Rai Mehta Committee?s report was published in the year:
(a) 1952
(b) 1950
(c) 1957
(d) 1956

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 261
Which Article in the Constitution deals with the village panchayats?
64

(a) Article 30
(b) Article 40
(c) Article 43
(d) Article 45

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 262
The Balwantrai Mehta Committee suggested tier system of Panchayats Raj.
(a) One
(b) Two
(c) Three
(d) Four

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 263
In which state was Panchayati Raj first introduced?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Bihar
(d) Andhra Pradesh

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 264
Under which of the Five Year Plans the introduction of Panchayath Raj in India was
suggested?
(a) First Five-year Plan
(b) Second Five-year Plan
(c) Third Five-year Plane
(d) Fourth Five year Plan

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 265
Kothari Commission Recommendations are related with
(a) Abolition of Civil Service
(b) Educational reforms
(c) Centre-State relations
65

(d) Tax reforms

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 266
Which Article gives the composition of Panchayats?
(a) Article 243B
(b) Article 243
(c) Articles 2431 and 243K
(d) Article 243C

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 267
How many methods are mentioned in the Constitution for amendment?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 268
Which is the apex of the three-tier system of Panchayati Raj?
(a) Gram Sabha
(b) Gram Panchayat
(c) Zilla Parishad
(d) Panchayat Samiti

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 269
Implementation of the Panchayati Raj in the country is a step towards fulfilment of:
(a) Fundamental rights
(b) Fundamental duties
(c) Directive principles
(d) Constitutional obligations

.correct answer : c
66

Q. No. 270
Which one of the Directive Principles is Gandhian?
(a) Equal pay for equal work for both men and women
(b) Organisation of village Panchayats as effective units of local self-
government
(c) Protection of workers, especially children
(d) None of the above

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 271
Local Self-government is:
(a) A system of administering local services by a local unit consisting of
elected persons
(b) A system of administering local services by servants of the central
authority
(c) A system of administering local services through field units set up by
the Central or State governments
(d) A system of administering local services by a body of people selected
by the Government on account of their public interests.

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 272
Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution directs the State
Governments to organise Village Panchayats?
(a) Article 32
(b) Article 40
(c) Article 48
(d) Article 51

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 273
Article 40 of the Constitution of India states that ?The State shall take steps to
organise X and endow them with such powers and authority a-, may be necessary
to enable them to function as units of self-government.? In this statement X stands
for:
(a) Village Panchayats
(b) Zilla Parishads
67

(c) Inter-State Councils

(d) None of the above

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 274
Which of the following Amendment deals with new languages in the Schedule?
(a) 93
(b) 94
(c) 92
(d) 95

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 275
The judges of the Supreme Court are appointed
(a) By the President in consultation with Prime Minister
(b) By the President in consultation with the Chief Justice of India and out
of the judges of the Supreme Court and High Court as he may deem
necessary for the purpose
(c) By the President in consultation with the Chief Justice of India
(d) By the President

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 276
The minimum number of Judges to sit on the Constitutional Bench or on Bench
which gives its advisory opinion on the reference by the President must be
(a) One third of the total strength of the court
(b) 3
(c) One half of the total strength of the Supreme Court
(d) 7

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 277
Which is not correct statement? The supreme Court
(a) Settles electoral disputes of the President and Vice-President of India
(b) Protects the Directive Principles of State Policy
(c) Interprets the Constitution
68

(d) Is a watch-dog of citizen?s liberty

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 278
The rules for regulating the practice and procedure of Supreme Court under Article
145 of the Constitution are made by the
(a) Supreme Court in consultation with the Bar Council of India
(b) Supreme Court
(c) Supreme Court with the approval of the President of India
(d) President of India

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 279
Judicial review in India does not extend to
(a) The privileges enjoyed by Parliament members
(b) The discretionary powers of the Governors
(c) The advice that the Council of Ministers gives to the President
(d) Any of the above

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 280
The salaries of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India
(a) Are fixed by the President of India
(b) Cannot be reduced during the term of their office except during a
financial emergency
(c) Can be reduced during their term of office
(d) Can never be reduced under any circumstances

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 281
The judges of the Supreme Court take on oath or affirmation before entering upon
office, conducted by
(a) President or some person appointed by him
(b) President or Vice-President
(c) Chief Justice of India
(d) None of the above
69

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 282
Public interest litigation applies to any case of public injury arising from
(a) The violation of the law
(b) The violation of a constitutional provision
(c) The breach of any public duty
(d) All the above

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 283
In which Part of the Constitution do we have the provisions regarding President?
(a) Part IV
(b) Part V
(c) Part VI
(d) Part VII

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 284
The Custom ?Once a speaker always a speaker? is followed in
(a) India
(b) UK
(c) US
(d) France

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 285
Which is the lengthiest amendment of the Constitution?
(a) 1 st
(b) 42
(c) 44
(d) 24

.correct answer : b
70

Q. No. 286
Assertion :- The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee recommended the setting up of
Panchayati Raj in India. Reason :-The 73rd amendment deals with Panchayathi Raj
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 287
Assertion :-The Constitution of India was adopted on 26th November, 1949.
Reason :- The bulk of the Constitution became operative on 26th January, 1950,
which date is referred to in the Constitution as its Date of Commencement
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 288
Assertion :-Written Constitutions are rigid. Reason :-Rigid Constitutions prescribe
special procedure for amendment.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 289
Assertion :-The Chapter on the Fundamental Rights was framed upon the model of
American Constitution. Reason :-Fundamental rights are enforceable.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : b
71

Q. No. 290
Assertion :- The Indian Constitution has adopted the Parliamentary system of
Government. Reason :-In a Parliamentary form of Government, the tenure of office
of the virtual executive is dependent on the will of the Legislature; while in a
Presiden- tial Government the tenure of office of the executive is independent of the
will of the Legislature.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 291
Parliament-can make any law for the whole or any part of India for implementing
international treaties
(a) With the consent of all the states
(b) With the consent of the majority of states
(c) With the consent of the states concerned
(d) Without the consent of any state

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 292
Indian Constitution provides for a ???. system.
(a) Presidential
(b) Unicameral
(c) Bicameral
(d) Unitary

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 293
What is the duration of zero hour in the Lok Sabha?
(a) 15 minutes
(b) Half an hour
(c) One hour
(d) Not specified
72

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 294
In which Schedule of the Constitution are the land reforms laws included?
(a) Seventh
(b) Eighth
(c) Ninth
(d) Tenth

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 295
Equal pay for equal work for both men and women has been laid down in the Indian
Constitution as, one of the
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Fundamental Duties
(c) Guidelines in the Preamble
(d) Directive Principles of State Policy

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 296
A Money hill can originate:
(a) Only in the Lok Sabha.
(b) Only in the Rajya Sabha
(c) In both the Houses simultaneously
(d) At the joint session of the two Houses

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 297
No person can be employed in factories or mines unless he is above the age of
(a) 12 years.
(b) 14 years.
(c) 18 years.
(d) 20 years.

.correct answer : b
73

Q. No. 298
Presidential system of government is incompatible with the
(a) Theory of Separation of Powers.
(b) Executive Accountability to the Legislature
(c) Judicial Review.
(d) Spoil system.

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 299
The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and
the States falls under its
(a) Advisory jurisdiction.
(b) Appellate jurisdiction.
(c) Original jurisdiction.
(d) Constitutional jurisdiction

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 300
In an election, electioneering has to cease in a constituency:
(a) 2 days before the poll
(b) 48 hours before the commencement of polling
(c) 48 hours before the closing hour of polling
(d) 24 hours before the poll

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 301 Which of the following is not a constitutional body?

(a) Election Commission
(b) Finance Commission
(c) Inter-state Council
(d) National Advisory Council

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 302 The Chief Election Commissioner of India is:

(a) Elected by the Parliament
(b) Nominated by the Prime Minister
(c) Appointed by the President
(d) None of the above
74

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 303
Rajya Sabha enjoys more powers than the Lok Sabha in case of
(a) Money Bills.
(b) Non-Money Bills.
(c) Setting up of new all-India services.
(d) Amendment of the Constitution.

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 304 Which constitutional amendment provides for reservation in

admission in private unaided institutions for members of scheduled castes/ tribes
and other backward classes?
(a) 92nd Constitutional Amendment
(b) 93rd Constitutional Amendment
(c) 91st Constitutional Amendment
(d) 90th Constitutional Amendment

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 305 The quorum to consitute a meeting of either House of Parliament

is ??.of the total membership.
(a) One-tenth
(b) One-fifth
(c) One-fourth
(d) One-third

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 306
In case of a deadlock between the two Houses over a particular issue, the joint
sitting of the two Houses of Parliament is presided over by the:
(a) President of India
(b) Vice-President of India
(c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(d) Member of the Lok Sabha specifically elected for that purpose

.correct answer : c
75

Q. No. 307 A Presidential proclamation can remain in force for:

(a) Three months
(b) Two months
(c) Six months
(d) Till the President revokes it

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 308 The President of India is elected for:

(a) 4 years
(b) 6 years
(c) 5 years
(d) 7 years

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 309 Which portion of the Indian Constitution reflects the mind and ideals
of its framers?
(a) Preamble
(b) Fundamental Rights
(c) Directive Principles
(d) Emergency Provisions

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 310
The Constitution of India provides for:
(a) Single citizenship
(b) Multiple citizenship
(c) Dual citizenship
(d) None of the above

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 311
Which of ?the following is not constitutional body?
(a) Election Commission
(b) Finance Commission
(c) Central Vigilance Commission
(d) Central Administrative Tribunal.

.correct answer : c
76

Q. No. 312
Which power is exclusively enjoyed by Lok Sabha?
(a) To amend the Constitution.
(b) To create new States.
(c) To pass the vote of no-confidence on Union Council of Ministers.
(d) To initiate impeachment p against a judge of the Supreme Court.

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 313
Who can initiate impeachment proceedings against the President of India?
(a) Only Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Any Vidhan Sabha
(d) Either House of? Parliament

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 314
How many members of the Lok Sabha must support a motion of No Confidence in
the Government before it can be admitted by the Speaker?
(a) 20
(b) 25
(c) 35
(d) 50

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 315
How many times can the President of India return a non-Money Bill - passed by
Parliament?
(a) Twice
(b) Once
(c) Thrice
(d) Never

.correct answer : b
77

Q. No. 316
The amendment procedure laid down in the constitution of India is on the pattern of:
(a) Government of India Act, 1935
(b) Constitution of U.S.A.
(c) Constitution of Canada
(d) None of the above

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 317
Which one of the following Articles under the Indian Constitution empowers the
President to appoint a commission to investigate the condition of? backward
classes in general and suggest ameliorative measures??
(a) Article 319
(b) Article 340
(c) Article 342
(d) Article 344

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 318
Which constitutional functionary, who is not a Member of Parliament, maybe called
to state his views before the Parliament?
(a) Attorney-General
(b) Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
(c) The Chief Election Commissioner
(d) The Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 319
Which of the following non-members of Parliament has the right to address it?
(a) Attorney-General of India
(b) Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
(c) Chief Justice of India
(d) Chief Election Commissioner

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 320
78

Which of the following authorities recommends the principles governing the grants-
in- aid of the revenues of the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India?
(a) Public Accounts Committee
(b) Union Ministry of Finance
(c) Finance Commission
(d) None

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 321
Who among the following decides if a particular bill is a Money Bill or not?
(a) President
(b) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(d) Finance Minister

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 322
The Directive Principles of State Policy included in the Constitution of India have
been inspired by the Constitution of:
(a) The U.S.A.
(b) Ireland
(c) Canada
(d) Australia

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 323
The Constitution of India does not mention the post of:
(a) The Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(b) The Deputy Prime Minister
(c) The Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) None

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 324
The Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of:
(a) Rajya Sabha
79

(b) Inter-State Council

(c) Planning Commission
(d) Finance Commission

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 325
In which case did the Supreme Court concede the right of Parliament to amend the
Constitution but denied it the right to amend the basic structure of the
Constitution?
(a) Golak Nath case
(b) Keshavananda Bharati case
(c) Minerva Mills case
(d) None of the above.

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 326
Elections to the House of the People and the Legislative Assemblies of States in
India are conducted on the basis of:
(a) Single transferable vote
(b) Limited suffrage
(c) Proportional representation
(d) Adult franchise

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 327
The doctrine of Double jeoparady is mentioned in Article..
(a) 20
(b) 14
(c) 15
(d) 16

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 328
The control of the preparation of electoral rolls for Parliament and Legislative
Assemblies in India vests with the:
(a) Cabinet
80

(b) Prime Minister

(c) President
(d) Election Commission

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 329
How many times has the Preamble to the Constitution of India amended?
(a) Once
(b) Twice
(c) Thrice
(d) Never

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 330
The salaries and allowances of Union Ministers are determined by the
(a) President of India
(b) Prime Minister of India
(c) Council of Ministers
(d) Parliament

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 331
Ad hoc Judges are appointed in the Supreme Court when
(a) some Judges go on leave.
(b) none is available for permanent -appointment
(c) there is an abnormal increase in the cases pending before the Court.
(d) there is no quorum of Judges available to hold any session of the
Court

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 332
Which of the following part of the Constitution deals with elections?
(a) X
(b) XV
(c) XX
(d) XVI
81

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 333
How many languages are included in the 8th Schedule of Constitution?
(a) 14
(b) 12
(c) 18
(d) 15

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 334
Which of the following Indian States has a separate Constitution?
(a) Sikkim
(b) Jammu & Kashmir
(c) Mizoram
(d) Goa

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 335
The only instance when the President of India exercised his power of veto related to:
(a) The Hindu Code Bill
(b) The PEPSU Appropriation Bill
(c) The Indian Post Office (Amendment) Bill
(d) The Dowry Prohibition Bill

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 336
Acting Chief Justice of India is appointed by the
(a) . Chief Justice of India.
(b) Chief Justice of India with the previous, consent of the President.
(c) President.
(d) President in consultation with Chief Justice of India.

.correct answer : c
82

Q. No. 337
Who decides the size and membership of the Union Cabinet?
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) President of the ruling party
(d) Lok Sabha

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 338
The President can dissolve Lok Sabha at the advice/request of whom of the
following before the completion of the tenure?
(a) At the written request of the members
(b) At the advice of the Prime Minister
(c) At the written request of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(d) At the advice of the Vice-President

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 339
Which Article of the Constitution of India empowers the Parliament to amend the
Constitution?
(a) 370
(b) 368
(c) 390
(d) 376

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 340
A Judge of the Supreme Court can hold office upto the age of:
(a) 58 years
(b) 62 years
(c) 60 years
(d) 65 years

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 341
83

Who among the following was the advisor of the Constituent Assembly?
(a) Ambedkar
(b) Palkiwala
(c) B.N.Rao
(d) None of the above.

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 342
What was originally the voting age in the Constitution before its 61st Amendement?
(a) 20 years
(b) 19 years
(c) 21 years
(d) None of the above

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 343
There is no reservation for SC and ST for Lok Sabha in
(a) Arunachal Pradesh.
(b) Jammu & Kashmir.
(c) Meghalaya.
(d) All of the above.

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 344
Money Bill has been defined by the Constitution under Article
(a) 109
(b) 110
(c) 111
(d) 112

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 345
Which of the following is in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India?
(a) Population control and family planning
(b) Public health and sanitation
(c) Capitation taxes
84

(d) Treasure trove

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 346
The retirement age of a Member of the State Publice Service Commission is??
years.
(a) 58
(b) 60
(c) 62
(d) 65

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 347
The Ninth Schedule to the Constitution was included in the Constitution of India
under which of the Contitutional Amendments?
(a) First Amendment
(b) Twenty-fourth Amendment
(c) Forty-second Amendment
(d) It was a part of the original Constitution

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 348
Which of the following statements is correct with regard to the structure of the
Union Government?
(a) It is Unitary
(b) It is Federal
(c) It is Federal in peace times and Unitary in the Emergencies
(d) It is Unitary in peace times and Federal in Emergencies

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 349
What should be the minimum? strength, of the elected members in a State
Legislative Assembly?
(a) 250
(b) 500
(c) 300
85

(d) 60

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 350
Which of the following is not a prescribed qualification for appointment as a Judge
of the Supreme Court?
(a) He should have worked as a Judge of a High Court for a minimum
period of five years
(b) He should not be more than 55 years of age
(c) He should have worked as an advocate in any High Court for a
minimum period of ten years
(d) He should be an eminent jurist in the opinion of the President

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 351
Legally the authority to declare war or peace is with the:
(a) Chief of the armed forces
(b) The Prime Minister of India
(c) The President
(d) The Defence Minister

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 352
The Tenth Schedule of the Constitution of India relates to:
(a) The national languages of India
(b) Administration of the Scheduled and Tribal areas
(c) Judicial Review
(d) Anti-defection Law

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 353
The Contingency Fund of the State is operated by:
(a) The Governor
(b) The Chief Minister
(c) The State Finance Minister
(d) By all the three jointly
86

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 354
Which important human right is protected in Article 21 of the Constitution of India?
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right to Freedom of Religion
(c) Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression
(d) Right to life and liberty

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 355
The Planning Commission is:
(a) A Constitutional body
(b) A wing of the Ministry of Planning, Government of India
(c) An extra-constitutional and non-statutory advisory body
(d) Endowed with the responsibility of implementing the Five-year Plans

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 356
Who among the following are not appointed by the President?
(a) Governor of State
(b) Chief Justice and Judges of High Courts
(c) Vice-President
(d) Chief Justice and Judges of Supreme Court.

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 357
by which amendment, the Fundamental Duties of Indian citizens were added to the
Constitution?
(a) Forty-first Amendment
(b) Forty-second Amendment
(c) Forty-third Amendment
(d) Forty-fourth Amendment

.correct answer : b
87

Q. No. 358
Under the provisions of which Article of the Constitution is President?s rule
imposed in a State?
(a) 351
(b) 352
(c) 356
(d) 361

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 359
Which writ is issued by a High Court or the Supreme Court to compel an authority
to perform a function that it was not performing?
(a) Writ of Certiorari
(b) Writ of Habeas Corpus
(c) Writ of Mandamus
(d) Writ of Quo Warranto.

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 360
There is no provision for the impeachment of:
(a) The Vice-President
(b) The Chief Justice of the High Court
(c) The Chief Justice of India
(d) The Governor

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 361
In order to be officially recognised as Leader of the Opposition in Lok Sabha, his
party should have at-least of the total strength of the House.
(a) 10%
(b) 15%
(c) 20%
(d) 25%

.correct answer : a
88

Q. No. 362
The members of State Public Service Commission are appointed and suspended by
the:
(a) President
(b) Governor
(c) President and Governor respectively
(d) Governor and President respectively

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 363
Who among the following can be removed from office through impeachment by
Parliament?
(a) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Vice-President of India
(d) President of India

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 364
Joint sittings of the two Houses of Parliament are presided over by the
(a) President of India
(b) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(d) An MP nominated by the President

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 365
The power to grant pardon to persons convicted of an offence is vested in.
(a) President and Governor
(b) Parliament
(c) Union Law Minister
(d) Attorney-General

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 366
Elections to fill-up one-third seats of Rajya Sabha are held
89

(a) Every year

(b) Once in two years
(c) Once in five years
(d) Once in six years

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 367
Which right has been deleted from the list of Fundamental Rights and has become a
statutory right?
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right to Freedom
(c) Right to Property
(d) Right to Constitutional Remedies

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 368
To be recognised as a National Party, a party must be recognised State Party in at
least
(a) three states.
(b) four states
(c) five states.
(d) six states.

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 369
?The original structure of the Indian Constitution cannot be changed.? In which of
the following cases did the Supreme Court give this verdict?
(a) Minerva Mills Case
(b) Golak Nath Case
(c) Keshavananda Bharati Case
(d) None of the above

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 370
From where did the makers of the Indian Constitution derive the ?Parliamentary
Structure of the Government??
90

(a) Britain
(b) United States of America
(c) Ireland
(d) None of the above

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 371
The words ?secular? and ?socialist? were added to the Indian Constitution in 1975
by amending the
(a) Preamble
(b) Directive Principles
(c) Fundamental Rights
(d) All of the above

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 372
Which Article under the Directive Principles puts the responsibility to provide free
and compulsory primary education on State?
(a) Article 40
(b) Article 42
(c) Article 43
(d) Article 45

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 373
The Constitution of India contains:
(a) 395 Articles and 8 Schedules
(b) 395 Articles and 12 Schedules
(c) .391 Articles and 14 Schedules
(d) 359 Articles and 10 Schedules

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 374
The Indian government is called parliamentary because:
(a) President is the head of the Executive
(b) The Executive is responsible to the Legislature
91

(c) The Constitution is supreme

(d) Lok Sabha members are directly elected by the people

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 375
Which one of the following amendments to the Indian Consitution is called a Mini
Constitution?
(a) 24
(b) 38
(c) 39
(d) 42

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 376
India is a Republic because:
(a) It is a member of the Commonwealth
(b) It has an elected Parliament
(c) It has a written Constitution
(d) The Head of State (the President) is elected

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 377
The number of Fundamental Duties mentioned in the Constitution is:
(a) 9
(b) 10
(c) 11
(d) 12

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 378
A Money Bill passed by Lok Sabha is deemed to have been passed by Rajya Sabha
also when no action is taken by the Upper House within
(a) 10 days.
(b) 14 days.
(c) 20 days.
(d) 30 days.
92

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 379
Separation of Judiciary from the Executive has been provided in which part of the
Indian Constitution?
(a) The Preamble.
(b) The Fundamental Rights.
(c) The Directive Principles of State Policy.
(d) The Seventh Schedule.

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 380
The territorial extents of Indian States and Union Territories are prescribed in the:
(a) First Schedule
(b) Second Schedule
(c) Fourth Schedule
(d) Seventh Schedule

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 381
Assertion :-If a person feels that his Fundamental Rights have been infringed, he
can approach a law Court for his right. Reason :-Fundamental Rights are justiciable.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 382
Assertion :?After three round table conferences, the British government published
a white paper in March, 1933 containing an outline of a new constitution. Reason :-It
contained a scheme for federal and provincial autonomy.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
93

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 383
Assertion :-The first Interim Government was announced on August 24, 1946.
Reason :-On September 2, 1946 the Interim Government headed by Nehru was
sworn in.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 384
Assertion :-The Constitution of India recognizes the supremacy of judiciary.
Reason :-The legality of a reasonable restriction of fundamental rights is to be de-
termined by the courts of law.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 385
Assertion :? The Indian Constitution promises not only political but also social
democracy. Reason :-The concept of social democracy was explained by
Dr.Ambedkar in the Constituent Assembly.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 386
Assertion :-One of the fundamental principles of the Indian Constitution is the Rule
of Law. Reason :-Indian constitution guarantees to every citizen the equality before
94

law and has recognized the judiciary as the guardian of the rights of people.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 387
Assertion :-For any violation of any of the Directive Principles of State Policy, the
affected party cannot move the court. Reason :-The Directives Principles are not
justicible.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 388
Assertion :-Secularism is a basic feature of the Constitution of India in the sense
that the State should be neutral to the different religions. Reason :-One of the
Directive Principles of State Policy states that uniform civil code may be
implemented.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 389
Assertion :-The goal envisaged by the Constitution of India is that of a welfare state
and the establishment of a socialist, secular, democratic state. Reason :-The word
secularism, is included in the preamble of the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment
in 1976.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
95

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 390
Assertion :-The original Constitution of India contained as many as 295 Articles and
5 Schedules. Reason :-The Constitution of India has the distinction of being the
most lengthy and detailed constitutional document the world has so far produced.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 391
Assertion :-In the Constitution of India the unity and fraternity of the people of India,
professing numerous faiths, has been sought to be achieved by enshrining the ideal
of a secular State. Reason :-The ideal of a Secular State means that the state
protects all religions equally and does not itself uphold any religion as the state
religion.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 392
Assertion :-A joint sitting is not called in case of Constitutional Amendment bills.
Reason :-A bill for amendment of the Constitution has to by passed by each House-
separately by the special majority laid down.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 393
Assertion :-Fundamental Rights are absolute in nature. Reason :-Fundamental
96

rights are valid with certain restrictions which have been provided by the
Constitution itself.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 394
Assertion :-President of India is the Executive Head of the State. Reason :-He holds
the supreme command of India?s defence forces
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 395
Assertion :-Election Commission is a constitutional body Reason :-The Chief
Election Commissioner of India is appointed by the President
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 396
Assertion :-By inserting the word socialist in the Preamble by the 42 nd
Amendment Act of 1976, socialism as the goal of Indian polity was ensured.
Reason :-The Supreme Court of India has interpreted the concept socialism in
S.R.Bommai?s case.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : b
97

Q. No. 397
Assertion :-The Constitution stipulates that India shall be a union of states.
Reason :-There are 28 states in India.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 398
Assertion :-The Constitution of India is often termed as a borrowed document.
Reason :-The concept of Rule of Law is borrowed from UK.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 399
Assertion :-The preamble of the Indian Constitution serves two purposes. Reason :-It
indicates the source from which the Constitution derives its authority, also it states
the objects which the Constitution seeks to establish and promote.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 400
Assertion :-The Constitution makes a distinction between the legislative power to
levy a tax and the power to appropriate the proceeds of tax so levied. Reason :-There
is a concurrent sphere in the matter of tax legislation.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
98

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 401
Assertion :- The High Court can issue any writs to enforce the provisions of the
Constitution. Reason :-There are 5 type of writs
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 402
Assertion :-By Rule of Law we ordinarily mean supremacy of law. Reason :-This
means that nobody is above law and the law applies to everyone equally.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 403
Assertion :-The High Court is consulted by the Governor in appointment, posting
and promotion of District judges, it is consulted along with the State Public Service
Commission by the Governor, in appointing persons to the judicial service of the
State. Reason :-Control over District Courts and other subordinate courts is vested
in the Supreme Court.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 404
Assertion :-The Public Service Commissions are advisory bodies Reason :-The
Union Public Service Commission presents annually a report to the President on the
work done by it
99

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 405
Assertion :- Article 25 stipulates that all persons have the right to entertain any
religious belief and to propagate it. Reason :-India is a secular state
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 406
Assertion :-In a parliamentary form of government, the tenure of office of the virtual
Executive is dependent on the will of the legislature. Reason :-Being a Republic,
India could not have a hereditary monarch. Thus, an elected President at the head of
the executive power in India.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 407
Assertion :-The Finance Commission consists of a Chairman and four other
members Reason :-All of them were appointed by the president.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 408
100

Assertion :-The Janata Party Governemnt repealed an important Fundamental

Right, namely, the Right to Property. Reason :-Right to property is now only a legal
right.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 409
Assertion :-The State of Jammu and Kashmir has a special status. Reason :-Jammu
and Kashmir was accorded a special status by Article 370
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 410
Assertion :-An emergency due to war, external aggression or armed rebellion may
be referred to as national emergency. Reason :-The first Proclamation of Emergency
under Article 352 was made by the President on October 26, 1962 in view of the
Chinese aggression.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 411
The amendment procedure laid down in the Constitution of India is on the pattern
of:
(a) Government of India Act 1935
(b) Constitution of South Africa
(c) Constitution of U.S.A.
(d) Constitution of Canada

.correct answer : b
101

Q. No. 412
The provisions concerning the elections .of the members of the Rajya Sabha have
been influenced by the Constitution of:
(a) South Africa
(b) Switzerland
(c) U.S.A.
(d) Government of India Act, 1935

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 413
The provisions relating to the right of the President of India to suspend the
Fundamental Rights- of Indian citizens are based on provisions contained in the:
(a) Canadian Constitution
(b) South African Constitution
(c) Weimer Constitution of Germany
(d) The Government of India Act, 1935

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 414
The Indian Constitution had borrowed the idea of Fundamental Duties from the:
(a) Constitution of U.S.S.R.
(b) British Constitution
(c) French Constitution
(d) Italian Constitution

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 415
The maximum influence on the Constitution of India was exercised by:
(a) The Constitution of U.S.A.
(b) The Constitution of U.K.,
(c) The Government of India Act, 1935
(d) The Constitution of Ireland

.correct answer : c
102

Q. No. 416
The minimum age to be eligible for Prime Ministership ?in India is:
(a) 21 years
(b) 25 years
(c) 30 years
(d) 35 years

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 417
The tenure of the Council of Ministers lasts:
(a) As long as it enjoys the support of the electorate
(b) As long as it enjoys the support of the majority of the members of the
Parliament
(c) Six years
(d) Five years.

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 418
The electoral system in India is largely based on the pattern of.
(a) Britian
(b) France
(c) USA
(d) None

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 419
Which one of the following is the popularly elected House of the Parliament?
(a) Lok Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) Lok Sabha as well as Rajya Sabha
(d) None of the above

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 420
The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to the:
(a) President
103

(b) Prime Minister

(c) Lok Sabha
(d) Rajya Sabha

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 421
The seat of a Member of Parliament can be declared vacant if he absents himself
from the House without permission fora period of:
(a) 60 days
(b) Two years
(c) Six months
(d) One year

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 422
The Fundamental Duties of the Indian citizens are enshrined in:
(a) Part IV of the Constitution
(b) Part III of the Constitution
(c) Part IV A of the Constitution
(d) Schedule IV

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 423
What do we say if members of a party in the Parliament cast their votes regardless
of the party to which they belong?
(a) Free-voting
(b) Cross-voting
(c) Defection
(d) Crossing the floor

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 424
Which Schedule deals with the seat allotments in Rajya Sabha?
(a) Third Schedule
(b) Fourth Schedule
(c) Seventh Schedule
104

(d) Ninth Schedule

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 425
As a result of the recent amendment to the Constitution the minimum age for
contesting the Panchayat elections is:
(a) 18 years
(b) 20 years
(c) 21 years
(d) 25 years

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 426
In which of the following points our Constitution is similar to that of the United
States of America?
(a) Rigid Constitution
(b) Fundamental Rights
(c) Directive Principles
(d) Rule of law

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 427
Part IX of the constitution envisages ???.. system of Panchayats.
(a) Single
(b) Two-tier
(c) Three-tier
(d) None of the above

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 428
The Right to personal liberty is in:
(a) Article 19
(b) Articles 20 to 22
(c) Articles 20 to 23
(d) Articles 21 and 22
105

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 429
Which Article of the Constitution makes Hindi the official language of India?
(a) 345
(b) 346
(c) 348
(d) 343

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 430
The concept of constitution first originated in:
(a) Japan
(b) Switzerland
(c) Britain
(d) U.S.A.

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 431
The Chairman of Public ?Accounts Committee is
(a) elected by Union Cabinet.
(b) appointed by Speaker.
(c) appointed by President..
(d) elected by Members of PAC.

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 432
The Vice-President holds office:
(a) During the pleasure of the President
(b) For a term of 4 years
(c) For a term of 5 years
(d) As long as the Parliament wants him to

.correct answer : c
106

Q. No. 433
Who among he following is known as the watchdog of public finance??
(a) Finance Minister
(b) Finance Commission
(c) Comptroller and Auditor-General
(d) Prime Minister

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 434
Who can take part in proceedings of either House of the Parliament and can be a
member of any Parliamentary Committee but not entitled to vote?
(a) Comptroller and Auditor-General
(b) Attorney-General for India
(c) Advocate-General
(d) None

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 435
A non-member appointed as a Minister must get himself elected as a Member of
Parliament within a period of:
(a) 1 month
(b) 2 months
(c) 4 months
(d) 6 months

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 436
Who does distribute portfolios among the Ministers?
(a) President
(b) Lok Sabha
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Vice-President

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 437
The strength of the Council of Ministers is fixed by:
107

(a) The. Constitution

(b) The Prime b6nister
(c) The Parliament
(d) The President

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 438
The 91 st Constitution (Amendment) Act, 2003?
(a) Limits the size of Council of Ministers to 15% of the total membership
of the Lower House of the legislature
(b) Further tightens the Anti-defection Act
(c) Both A) and B)
(d) Neither (A) nor (B)

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 439
Who is the ex-officio Chairman of each Zonal Council?
(a) The Chief Minister of one of the Sates
(b) The Union Home Minister
(c) The Governor of one of the States
(d) Any member elected by the Council .

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 440
If an Indian citizen is denied a public office because of his religion, which of the
following Fundamental Rights is denied to him?
(a) Right to Freedom
(b) Right to Equality
(c) Right to Freedom of Religion
(d) Right against Exploitation.

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 441
In the Constitution of India, the Right to ?Constitutional Remedies? has been
provided in Article:
(a) 30
108

(b) 31
(c) 35
(d) 32

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 442
The recommendations of the 12th Finance Commission are for the period
(a) 2002-2007
(b) 2005-2010
(c) 2006-2011
(d) 2004?2009

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 443
Which article of the Constitution of India provides for subordinate courts or district
courts?
(a) Article 102
(b) Article 103
(c) Article 124
(d) Article 233

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 444
The maximum strength of the Rajya Sabha is:
(a) 250
(b) 245
(c) 240
(d) 200

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 445
In order to be elected a member of Council of States a person must not be less than:
(a) 30 years.
(b) 25 years
(c) 21 years
(d) 35 years
109

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 446
Appointments to All India Services are made by:
(a) The Prime Minister
(b) The Parliament
(c) The President
(d) The Union Public Service Commission

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 447
Who among the following is considered to be the custodian of the Lok Sabha?
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Leader of Opposition
(c) Chief whip of the ruling party
(d) Speaker

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 448
The President nominates?..members to the Rajya Sabha from amongst persons ?
having, ?special knowledge or practical experience in literature, science, art, and
social service.
(a) 10
(b) 11
(c) 12
(d) None

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 449
The Estimates Committee of the Parliament consists of members of only:
(a) Rajya Sabha
(b) Lok Sabha
(c) Both the Houses
(d) None of the above

.correct answer : b
110

Q. No. 450
Which Amendment led to the inclusion of Sindhi in the Eighth Schedule of the
Constitution?
(a) 21st
(b) 22nd
(c) 23rd
(d) 24th

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 451
Which of the following subjects does not belong to the Union List?
(a) Defence
(b) Central Excise and Customs
(c) Education
(d) Transport and Communication

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 452
How many times at least has the Parliament to meet in a year?
(a) Thrice
(b) Twice
(c) Once
(d) None of the above

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 453
The Lok Sabha:
(a) Cannot have its life extended beyond 5 years
(b) Is never dissolved within 5 years
(c) Is dissolved after every 5 years
(d) Is never subject to dissolution

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 454
The Fundamental Rights are available against the:
111

(a) Legislature
(b) Executive
(c) Judiciary
(d) State

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 455
The Constitution of India has borrowed many provisions from the:
(a) Regulating Act of 1773
(b) Minto-Morley Reforms of 1909
(c) Government of India Act, 1935
(d) The Government of India Act, 1919

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 456
The Residuary powers of the Union are given in:
(a) Article 249
(b) Article 248
(c) Article 247
(d) Article 250

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 457
Which amendment to the Constitution of India gave precedence to the Directive
Principles enumerated in the Constitution over Fundamental Rights?
(a) 39th Amendment
(b) 40th Amendment
(c) 41st Amendment
(d) 42nd Amendment

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 458
A candidate to be the member of the Lok Sabha should not be less than:
(a) 21 years
(b) 25 years
(c) 30 years
112

(d) 35 years

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 459
Administrative powers of the Union and the States are:
(a) Conflictive
(b) Contradictory
(c) Co-extensive
(d) None of the above

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 460
The election to the House of People is:
(a) Direct
(b) Indirect
(c) By nomination
(d) None of the above

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 461
The State which has got the largest representation in the Lok Sabha is:
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Uttar Pradesh

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 462
Which one of the following is correct about the Rajya Sabha?
(a) 1/3 of its members retire after every two years
(b) It can be dissolved by the President of India
(c) Its normal life can be extended by one year
(d) None of the above

.correct answer : a
113

Q. No. 463
Power, authority and responsibilities of municipalities are listed in which one of the
following schedules of the Constitution of India?
(a) Ninth
(b) Tenth
(c) Eleventh
(d) Twelth

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 464
In the States with bi-cameral legislature, the upper House is known as:
(a) Vidhan Parishad
(b) Vidhan Sabha
(c) Council of States
(d) Council of Representatives

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 465
The members of the Legislative Assembly are:
(a) Nominated by the Governor
(b) Directly elected by the people
(c) Elected by the local self-government bodies
(d) None of the above

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 466
The minimum age for the membership of the Legislative Council is :
(a) 45 years
(b) 30 years
(c) 35 years
(d) 21 years

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 467
114

Article 233 provides that the High Court is to be consulted by the??Jn the matter of
appointing, posting and promoting district judges.
(a) Chief Minister
(b) Governor
(c) President
(d) None

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 468
The ordinary Judges of the High Court are appointed by the President in
consultation with :
(a) The Chief Justice of the High Court
(b) The Chief Justice of India
(c) The Governor of the State
(d) All of the above

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 469
The President has the power to appoint and remove
(a) The Attorney General of India
(b) The Governor of a State
(c) Chairman or a member of the Public Service Commission
(d) All of the above

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 470
A person can be a member of the State Council of Ministers without being a
member of State Legislature:
(a) For a maximum period of six months
(b) For a maximum period of one year
(c) For an indefinite period
(d) For no time

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 471
The President must summon each House of Parliament at such intervals that shall
115

not intervene between its last sitting in one session and the date appointed for its
first sitting in the next sassion.
(a) Nine months
(b) Nine months
(c) Six months
(d) One year

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 472
Which one of the following Union Territories has maximum number of seats in Lok
Sabha?
(a) Pondicherry
(b) Delhi
(c) Chandigarh
(d) Andaman and Nicobar Islands

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 473
The Executive head of the State is
(a) The Governor
(b) The Chief Minister,
(c) The State Cabinet
(d) The State Legislative Council

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 474
The Vice-President of India is
(a) A member of either House of Parliament
(b) A member of Rajya Sabha
(c) A separate wing of the Parliament
(d) Not a member of Parliament

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 475
If the Rajya Sabha does not send the Money Bill back to the Lok Sabha within a
period of 14 days, the Bill will be:
116

(a) Taken as passed by both the Houses

(b) Taken as rejected by both the Houses
(c) Reconsidered by Lok Sabha
(d) Sent to the President

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 476
Proclamation of Emergency must be submitted to the Parliament for its approval
within:
(a) One month
(b) Two months
(c) Six months
(d) One year

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 477
The Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha is:
(a) Appointed by the President
(b) Appointed by the Prime Minister
(c) Elected by the Lok Sabha
(d) Appointed by the Chief Justice of India

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 478
The President of India can declare:
(a) National emergency
(b) Constitutional emergency
(c) Financial emergency
(d) All of the Above

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 479
In India the President has
(a) All the power
(b) More powers than the Prime Minister
(c) Only nominal powers
117

(d) None of the above

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 480
How is the Vice-President of India elected?
(a) By an electoral college consisting of the elected members of Lok
Sabha
(b) By the people directly
(c) By an electoral college consisting of the members of both the Houses
of Parliament
(d) By an electoral college consisting of the elected members of both
Houses of Parliament and the State Assemblies

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 481
The election to the office of the President is conducted by:
(a) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
(b) The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
(c) The Chief Justice of India
(d) The Election Commission of India

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 482
In In dia, the resolution of vote of no-confidence in Union Council of Ministers is
passed by:
(a) Rajya Sabha
(b) Lok Sabha
(c) Judiciary
(d) None

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 483
The Attorney-General of India is appointed by the:
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Chief Justice of India
118

(d) Law Minister

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 484
The High Court in each State consists of a Chief Justice and:
(a) 7 other Judges
(b) 5 other Judges
(c) Such other Judges as may be decided by the President
(d) Such other Judges as may be decided by Parliament

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 485
No Money Bill can be introduced in the Legislative Assembly without the prior
recommendation of the:
(a) Speaker
(b) Governor
(c) Chief Minister
(d) Finance Minister

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 486
What is the power of Rajya Sabha regarding Money Bills??
(a) It can amend it
(b) It call reject it
(c) It call withhold the it for 14 days to make recommendations
(d) It has no power

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 487
Which of the following Acts used the term Federation of India for the first time?
(a) The Act of 1909
(b) The Act of 1919
(c) The Act of 1935
(d) None of the above

.correct answer : c
119

Q. No. 488
The Council of Ministers of the State is collectively responsible to :
(a) The Legislative Assembly of the State
(b) The Governor
(c) The President
(d) All of the above

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 489
In India, the power of Judicial Review is:
(a) Unconstitutional
(b) Extraconstitutional
(c) Constitutional
(d) None of the above

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 490
The Constitution as originally adopted had:
(a) 22 parts, 396 articles, and 6 schedules
(b) 22 parts, 395 articles and 8 schedules
(c) 22 parts, 395 articles and 10 schedules
(d) 22 parts, 390 articles and 7 schedules

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 491
Who appoints the Speaker pro-term of Lok Sabha?
(a) The President
(b) The Secretary-General of Lok Sabha
(c) Ex-Speaker
(d) The senior most member of Lok Sabha automatically becomes the
Speaker pro-tem.

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 492
120

The Anti-Defection law is not applicable to

(a) Speaker
(b) Home Minister
(c) Defence Minister
(d) All of the above

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 493
The President of India is elected:
(a) directly by 2/3 rd majority
(b) Indirectly by simple majority
(c) Indirectly by Electoral College
(d) Directly by simple majority

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 494
How many times can a President of India be re-elected?
(a) Cannot be re-elected
(b) Only once
(c) Only twice
(d) Any number of times

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 495
Who acts as the President, if he dies or resigns, until a new President is elected?
(a) Chief Justice of India
(b) Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
(c) Chief Election Commissioner
(d) Vice-President of India

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 496
Which one of the following is not in the Union List?
(a) Foreign Affairs
(b) Railways
(c) Airways
121

(d) Public health

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 497
The Chairman of which Committee is usually from the opposition?
(a) Fstimates Committee
(b) Public Accounts Committee
(c) Petitions Committee
(d) Rules Committee

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 498
Which of the following, Articles defines Money Bill?
(a) Article 111
(b) Article 110
(c) Article 112
(d) Article 113

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 499
Usually, the head of the State dissolves the Parliament before- its term expires, on
the advice of the:
(a) Law Minister
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Speaker
(d) Parliamentary Affairs Minister

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 500
Generally, the Legislative Council of a State is created or abolished on the
recommendaion of:
(a) The Chief Minister
(b) The Council of Ministers
(c) The Governor
(d) Legislative Assembly
122

.correct answer : d

Hanumant's CJQuest Core - Objective Questions on Constituion of India - Set 11

Q. No. 501
Education which was initially a State subject was transferred to the Concurrent List
by the:
(a) 24th Amendment
(b) 25th Amendment
(c) 42nd Amendment
(d) 44 th Amendment

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 502
Originally, the membership of Lok Sabha-was??..which was increased to?..
(a) 475, 500
(b) 452, 525
(c) 400, 525
(d) 500, 552

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 503
The Speaker of Lok Sabha has to address his letter of resigiation to the:
(a) Prime Minister of India
(b) Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) President of India
(d) Vice-President of India

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 504
The salary and other allowances of the Judges of the High Courts are charged on:
(a) The Consolidated Fund of India
(b) The Consolidated Fund of the State
(c) Both the Consolidated Funds of India and the States
(d) The Contigency Fund of India
123

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 505
The subjects on which the State government enjoys exclusive powers are given in:
(a) The Coucurrent List
(b) The State List
(c) Provincial List
(d) The Residuary List

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 506
The subjects on which both the Centre and the State government can legislate are
contained in:
(a) The UInalon List
(b) The State List
(c) The Concurrent List
(d) The Residuary List

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 507
How many Union Territories are in India?
(a) 9
(b) 8
(c) 7
(d) 10

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 508
The UPSC consists of a Chairman and:
(a) Eight other members
(b) Eleven other members
(c) Six other members
(d) A number of members as shall be determined by the President

.correct answer : d
124

Q. No. 509
The Preamble can also be amended under:
(a) Article 363
(b) Article 259
(c) Article 158
(d) Article 368

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 510
Which Article requires the State to make effort s to secure a uniform civil code
throughout the territory of India?
(a) Article 43
(b) Article 53
(c) Article 44
(d) Article 38

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 511
Provincial autonomy was introduced in India under the:
(a) Government of India Act, 1935
(b) Act of 1991
(c) Minto-Morley Reforms Act, 1909
(d) None of the above

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 512
The Committee which suggested far-reaching changes by way of 42nd
constitutional Amendement was headed by:
(a) M.C.Setalwad
(b) Swaran Singh
(c) Palkiwala
(d) Subbarao

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 513
125

Who said ?The Principles (Directive Principles) should be made the basis of all
future legislation??
(a) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
(b) Dr. B.N. Rau
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru
(d) Dr. Zakir Hussain

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 514
In which Schedule of the Constitution are the land reforms laws included?
(a) Seventh
(b) Eighth
(c) Ninth
(d) Tenth.

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 515
The Fundamental Rights:
(a) Formed a part of the original Constitution
(b) Were added by the Fourth Amendment
(c) Were added under the Forty-Second Amendment
(d) Were added by the Parliament in 1952

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 516
Who among the following is the Chairman of the National Integration Council ?
(a) The President
(b) The Vice-President
(c) The Prime Minister
(d) The Chief Justice of India

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 517
India?s foreign policy is based on
(a) The Communist bloc
(b) The Western bloc
126

(c) Non-alignment
(d) Aggression

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 518
A Directive Principle of State Policy says that the State shall endeavour to promote
international peace and security. It is mentioned in :
(a) Article 50
(b) Article 51
(c) Article 52
(d) Article 53

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 519
Clemency of death sentence can be granted by
(a) Chief Justice of India
(b) President
(c) Governer of the state in which the crime is committed
(d) Prime Minister

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 520
Universal Adult Franchise implies a right to vote to all:
(a) Residents of the State
(b) Adult residents of the State
(c) Adult citizens of the State
(d) Adult female citizens of the State

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 521
The source of India's sovereignty lies in the:
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) People of India
(d) Preamble to the Constitution
127

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 522
The Speaker can ask a member of the House to stop speaking and let another
member speak. This phenomenon is known as
(a) yielding the floor
(b) crossing the floor.
(c) anti-defection
(d) decoram

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 523
Which Article authorises the Parliament to form new States, and alter areas,
boundaries or names of existing States?
(a) Article 2
(b) Article 3
(c) Article 6
(d) Article 8

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 524
What is the duration of ?zero hour? in Lok Sabha?
(a) 15 minutes
(b) Half-an-hour
(c) One hour
(d) Not specified

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 525
All-India Services come under Article:
(a) 310
(b) 312
(c) 316
(d) 319

.correct answer : b
128

Q. No. 526
Which of the following Constitutional posts is enjoyed for a fixed term?
(a) President
(b) Chief Justice
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Governor

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 527
The State which bas the largest number of seats reserved for the Scheduled Tribes
in Lok Sabha is
(a) Bihar.
(b) Gujarat.
(c) Uttar Pradesh.
(d) Madhya Pradesh.

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 528
From which Constitution was the Concept of a Five Year Plan borrowed into the
Indian Constitution?
(a) USA
(b) USSR
(c) UK
(d) Ireland

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 529
Which of the following exercises, the most profound influence, in framing the Indian
Constitution?
(a) British Constitution
(b) US Constitution
(c) Irish Constitution
(d) The Government of India Act, 1935.

.correct answer : d
129

Q. No. 530
Assertion :-The absence of vote, in the first instance will make the position of the
Speaker as impartial as in England. Reason :-The Speaker?s conduct in regulating
the procedure or maintaining order in the House is subject to the jurisdiction of the
Constitutional Bench of the Supreme Court.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 531
Assertion :-Hindi in Devanagari script is the official language of India. Reason
:-Languages of India are listed in the Eighth Schedule
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 532
Assertion :-The adoption of uniform civil code, though mentioned in the Constitution
of India, is yet to be accomplished. Reason :-Directive principles are non-justisiable.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 533
Assertion :-A secular State means a State which observes neutrality and
impartiality towards all religions. Reason :-A secular State is founded on the idea
that the State views the relation bet-ween man and God as a matter of individual
and private choice.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
130

(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 534
Assertion :-As the head of the executive power, the President has been vested by
the Constitution with certain powers which may be said to be residuary in nature.
Reason :-The President has certain special powers in respect of the administration
of scheduled area and tribes and tribal Area in Assam.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 535
Assertion :-The Council of Ministers is a composite body. Reason :-The number of
members of the Council of Ministers is specified in the Constitution.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 536
Assertion :-In India, there are a large number of political parties. Reason :-Freedom
to form associations or unions is a fundamental right guaran- teed to all Indian
citizens by the Constitution.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 537
Assertion :-The council of ministers is collectively responsible to the lower House.
131

Reason :-Most of the ministers are from lower house

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 538
Assertion :-The Indian Constitution is the bulkiest Constitution in the world, about
five times the size of the Constitution of U.S.A. Reason :-The fathers of the
Constitution wanted to include all good elements from about four score
Constitutions of the free world at that time and special clauses have been provided
for laying down the Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles, rules for elections, a
list of national languages and details about the conduct of the government.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 539
Assertion :In order to be a Vice-President a person must be qualified for election as
a member of the Council of States. Reason :The Vice-President is normally to act as
the Chairman of the Council of States.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 540
Assertion :-The President has the power to legislate by ordinance at a time when it
is not possible to have a parliamentary enactment on the subject, immediately.
Reason :-The ambit of the ordinance making power of the President is different
from the legislative powers of Parliament.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
132

(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 541
Assertion :-Both houses of Parliament as well as of a State Legislature have similar
privileges under the Constitution. Reason :-In general, the position of the Speaker is
similar to that of the Speaker of the English House of Commons.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 542
Assertion :-The election and electoral college of the Vice President is same as that
of the President. Reason :-The Vice President is the highest dignitary of India
coming next after the President.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 543
Assertion :-The Election Commission decides the schedule of election to Parliament
or State Legislatures. Reason :-The Constitution provides for an independent body
in the form of Elec- tion Commission to conduct free and fair elections
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 544
Assertion :- Article 37 declares that the Directive Principles of State Policy are
133

fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the State to
apply these principles in making laws. Reason :-The Directive Principles have been
made enforceable by the courts
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 545
Assertion :-In spite of the academic and theoretical denunciations of Second
Chamber, the Constituent Assembly was practically unanimous about the
usefulness and necessity of the Council of States as an integral part of the general
scheme of the Union Government. Reason :-The maximum strength of the Rajya
Sabha is fixed at 250.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 546
Assertion :- Although the word Federation finds no mention in the Constitution of
India, India is a federation. Reason :-In a P arliament democracy executive is held
responsible to the legislature.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 547
Assertion :-In a parliamentery democracy the President cannot function without a
Cabinet headed by the Prime Minister. Reason :-Parliamentery form of government
represents the whole nation.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
134

(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 548
Assertion :-The President is empowered to establish an inter State Council under
Article 263 of the Constitution. Reason :-The Constitution outlines a set of three fold
duties that may be assigned to this body.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 549
Assertion :-The Constitution makes a distinction between the legislative power to
levy a tax and the power to appropriate the proceeds of tax so levied. Reason :-There
is no concurrent sphere in the matter of tax legislation.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 550
Assertion :The Rajya Sabha is a permanent body. Reason :The Rajya Sabha cannot
be dissolved.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 551
Assertion :-The Legislative Council of a State is not subject to dissolution. Reason
:-One third of the members of the Legislative Council retire on the expiry of every
135

second year.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 552
Assertion :-A welfare State is one which is wedded to the principle of promoting the
general welfare and well being of the people. Reason :-India in principle, is a welfare
State.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 553
Assertion :-The independence of the Comptroller and Auditor General has been
secured by many provisions of the Constitution. Reason :-The Comptroller and
Auditor general may be removed in the same man- ner as of a Supreme Court
judge.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 554
Assertion :-The Council of Ministers hold office during the pleasure of the President.
Reason :-The President can dismiss the ministers at his discretion
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : c
136

Q. No. 555
Assertion :- Article 76 of the Constitution of India makes provision for the
appointment of the Attorney General. Reason :- The Attorney General has a
privilege to address the Houses of Parliament.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 556
Assertion :-The judges of a High Court cannot be transferred. Reason :-The
independence of the judges of High Courts is sought to be main- tained by the
Constitution
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 557
Assertion :-Lot of difference exists between the office of the Speaker and that of the
Vice-President. Reason :-The Vice President is not a member of either House of
Parliament.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 558
Assertion :-President of India is only the Constitutional head. Reason :-India has
adopted Parliamentary system of government.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
137

(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 559
Assertion :-The Directive Principles though not enforceable by courts are justifiable.
Reason :-The greatest progress in carrying out the directives has taken place as
regarding the Directive of Article 39(b).
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 560
Assertion :-The President has a right to seek advisory opinion of the Supreme Court
on any question of law. Reason :- The Constitution makes it obligatory for the
President to accept the advice rendered by the Supreme Court .
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 561
Assertion :-Fundamental Rights are ensured to citizens in many countries like India,
Japan, U.S.A., USSR, France, Switzerland and many other countries. Reason :-Legal
Rights have been further divided between Fundamental, Political and Social or Civil
rights.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 562
138

Assertion :- Preventive detention is very much included in the Chapter on

Fundamental Rights of the Indian Constitution. Reason :-Preventiv e detention is
definitely a Fundamental Right of the State against individuals.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 563
Assertion :Special provision for the protection of children is made in Art. 24. Reason
:Children below the age of fourteen years, if employed to work in any factory or
mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment, are depreived of education
and proper physical and mental development.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 564
Assertion :- There are separate provisions in the Constitution relating to the
administration of Acquired territories. Reason :-P arliament has exclusive legislative
power over a Union Territory, including matters which are enumerated in the State
List.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 565
Assertion :-There are fifteen Articles of the Constitution, from 35 to 50, that deal
with the Directive Principles. Reason :-The Directive Principles enshrine the
fundamentals for the realization of which the State in India stands.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
139

(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 566
Assertion :-The Legislature of every State shall consist of the Governor and the
State Legislature. Reason :-In some of the States, the Legislature shall consist of
two Houses, namely, the Legislative Assembly and the Legislative Council, while in
the rest there shall be only one House i.e., the Legislative Assembly.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 567
Assertion :-The Indian Constitution provides Fundamental Rights to its citizens.
Reason :It aims at protecting the rights and liberties of the Indian citizens.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 568
Assertion :-The Supreme Court has been assigned by the Constitution a special role
as the protector and guarantor of Fundamental rights. Reason :-The writ jurisdiction
of the High Court is larger than that of the Supreme Court.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 569
Assertion :-The Constitution of India is very flexible. Reason :- Since its inception,
140

the Constitution has been amended more than 90 times

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 570
Assertion :-Rajya Sabha is subject to dissolution. Reason :-Members of Rajya Sabha
are elected for 6 years and one-third of them retire every second year
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 571
Assertion :-The difference between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles is
negligible and marginal. Reason :-The Directive Principles enshrined in the
Constitution of India is taken from the Irish Constitution.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 572
Assertion :-President is the formal head of state in India. Reason :-Indian Parliament
consists of President, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 573
141

Assertion :-It is the duty of every citizen to obey the Constitutional mandate. Reason
:-Holders of public office should not take decisions solely in terms of the public
interest.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 574
Assertion :-The Parliamentary government has a fixed tenure. Reason :-Presidential
government has a flexible tenure.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 575
Assertion :-Equality before the law is not applicable to the President of India.
Reason :-The President of India enjoys special powers and privileges under the
Constitution
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 576
Assertion :-The Advocate-General of a State has no right to speak or take part in
the proceedings of the State Legislature. Reason :-The Advocate-General is not a
member of the State Legislature
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : d
142

Q. No. 577
Assertion :-The Fundamental Rights are guaranteed by the Constitution not only
against the action of the Executive but also against that of the Legislature. Reason :-
Any act of the Executive or of the Legislature which takes away or abridges any of
these rights shall be void and the courts are empowered to declare it as void.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 578
Assertion :Disagreement between the two Houses of the Union Parliament is to be
resolved by a joint sitting. Reason :There is no such provision for solving differences
between the two Houses of the State Legislature.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 579
Assertion :-The Indian Constitution closely follows the British Parliamentary model.
Reason :-In India the Upper House of the Parliament has judicial powers.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 580
Assertion :-According to article 256, the executive power of every State is to be
exerci- sed in such a way to ensure compliance with the laws made by Parliament.
Reason :-The idea of the Union giving directions to the States is foreign to most
federations.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
143

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 581
Assertion :-Directive Principles are not enforceable by any court. Reason :-Directive
Principles are more or less fundamental in the governance of the country.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 582
Assertion :-No Governor can be removed from office till the completion of his term.
Reason :-Article 156 of the Indian Constitution provides that a Governor shall hold
office for a term of five years from the date on which he enters upon his office.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : d

Q. No. 583
Assertion :-True federal distribution of powers came into being with the
Government of India Act, 1919. Reason :-The Provinces got power by way of
delegation from the Centre.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 584
144

Assertion :-India has a parliamentary system of government. Reason :-Indian

Parliament is bicameral
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : b

Q. No. 585
Assertion :-In India, the Judiciary is independent of the Executive. Reason
:-Judiciary favours the government and helps in the implementation of its plans.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 586
Assertion :-There are limitations on the Legislative authority of the State
Legislature. Reason :-Certain bills on the State List can be introduced in the State
Legislature only with the President?s approval
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : c

Q. No. 587
Assertion :- Any individual affected due to the violation of any of the Directive
Principles cannot move the court. Reason :-The Directive Principles are not
justiciable
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : a
145

Q. No. 588
Assertion :-The President of India is indirectly elected by an electoral college.
Reason :-Under a parliamentary system of government, the Head of the State is only
a nominal head.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : a

Q. No. 589
Assertion :-In India we have a multiparty system. Reason :-People have a wider
choice in the selection of their representatives.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

.correct answer : b