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physics papers (for 2023 syllabus) - V2

The document contains practice papers for Cambridge IGCSE Physics (5054) for the extended tier, including multiple-choice questions and structured questions. It provides instructions, mark schemes, and grade thresholds for the papers, which are designed for examination until 2025. The first paper consists of 40 multiple-choice questions, while the second paper includes structured questions with a total of 80 marks.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
95 views

physics papers (for 2023 syllabus) - V2

The document contains practice papers for Cambridge IGCSE Physics (5054) for the extended tier, including multiple-choice questions and structured questions. It provides instructions, mark schemes, and grade thresholds for the papers, which are designed for examination until 2025. The first paper consists of 40 multiple-choice questions, while the second paper includes structured questions with a total of 80 marks.

Uploaded by

musfirahnaz1701
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 42

Practice Papers for Cambridge

Physics (5054)
Extended tier

Your name: ………………………………………………

1st edition, for examination until 2025

Version 2
Table of Contents

Page no.

Paper 2 4

Paper 2 mark scheme 20

Paper 4 22

Paper 4 mark scheme 36

Grade thresholds 43
Paper 2 (Multiple-Choice Questions)

This paper resembles the typical questions asked in a Paper 2 for IGCSE Physics.

TIME ALLOWED: 45 minutes

TOTAL MARKS: 40

ADDITIONAL MATERIALS NEEDED: Ruler and Protractor

INSTRUCTIONS

• There are forty questions on this paper.


• Answer all questions.
• For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D.
• Choose the one you consider correct and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple-choice
answer sheet.

INFORMATION

• Follow the instructions on the multiple-choice answer sheet.


• Write in soft pencil.
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple-choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
• You may use a calculator.
• Take the weight of 1.0kg to be 9.8N (acceleration of free fall = 9.8 m/s2)

Page 4
1 Which person is accelerating?

A A sky diver falling towards the moon surface

B A passenger in a train that is stationary

C a sky diver falling at terminal velocity towards the earth surface

D a driver of a car that is moving at constant speed

2 Which word completes the statement below.

Mass is a measure of …………………….

A Inertia

B Weight

C Speed

D Voltage

3 Which list contains both vector and scalar quantities?

A velocity, force, acceleration.

B mass, length, time.

C energy, power, current.

D displacement, momentum, temperature.

4 The diagram below shows a meter rule in equilibrium.

At what point does the center of mass act?

A B C D

Page 5
5 Which pair has valid units for momentum

A N s and Kg m/s2

B N s and Kg m/s

C N/s and Kg m/s2

D N/s and Kg m/s

6 A car is driving on a motorway and uses up fuel as it drives.

What happens to the mass and weight of the car?

A They both change

B They both stay the same

C Mass stays the same but weight changes

D Mass changes but weight stays the same

7 A person accidentally drops a toy of unknown mass, from the fifth floor of a building to ground
floor.

Which equation can be used to calculate the speed at which the toy drops?

A v2 = h

B Ek = 0.5mv2

C s=dt

D 2h = v2

Page 6
8 A man has a mass of 85 kg.

What is the weight of the man?

A 850 N

B 85 kg

C 833 N

D 400 N

9 Calculate the spring constant of a spring that has a mass of 0.2 kg and accelerates at 0.6 m/s 2
when it is extended by 5 cm.

A 0.024 N/m

B 2.4 N/m

C 4.8 N/m

D 0.24 N/m

Page 7
10 A bike accelerates uniformly along a straight, horizontal road.

The speed of the bike increases from rest to 8 m/s in 25s.

Calculate the distance travelled by the bike in this time.

A 32 m

B 200 m

C 100 m

D 50 m

Page 8
11 Two transparent cylinders filled with water are shown below.

X X

Cylinder A

Cylinder B

What is the difference between cylinder A and cylinder B in the pressure exerted by the water
at point X?

A 0.0 Pa

B 0.3 Pa

C 0.5 Pa

D - 0.5 Pa

12 During sunlight, dust particles are seen moving randomly.

What is the cause of this random motion?

A Dust particles heating up due to radiation emitted by the sun.

B Dust particles evaporating because they are heating up due to radiation emitted by the sun.

C The collisions between dust particles and air molecules.

D The attraction between dust particles and air molecules.

13 Which material is best suited to make the handle of a cooking pan.

A Wood

B Copper

C Iron

D Glass

Page 9
14 Which statement correctly describes the reason why there is a shortage of water during
draught?

A During draughts, warmer temperatures cause more water to evaporate from open water
bodies.

B During draughts, colder temperatures cause more water to freeze.

C During draughts, it is windy, which increases the rate of evaporation.

D During draughts, the lack of wind causes water to evaporate.

15 During a camp, several students organized a bonfire.

They kept their hands near the fire to warm their hands.

What is the method by which the heat is transferred?

A Conduction

B Convection

C Radiation

D None of the above

16 A piston contains 3400 cm3 of gas. The pressure of this gas is 0.9 × 105 Pa.

The piston is now moved so that there is a pressure is 2.5 × 10 5 Pa.

A student uses Boyle’s law to calculate that there is 1200 cm 3 of gas when the piston is moved.

Which statement explains why there is less than 1200 cm3 of gas at this point?

A The rate of change of the resultant force was not constant when the piston was moved.

B The rate of change of temperature was not constant when the piston was moved.

C The density of the gas was not constant.

D The temperature was not constant when the piston was moved.

Page 10
17 It takes 400 MW of power to boil 1 kg at 100 ⁰C.

The specific latent heat of vaporisation is 2260 J/g.

How much time does it to take to boil the water?

A 5.65 s

B 5.65 x 10-3 s

C 177 s

D 0.177 s

18 Calculate the difference between the minimum and maximum distance that a human can hear.

A 15000 m

B 15000 km

C 19980 m

D 30000000 m

19 An object mirror is next to mirror as shown below.

X Y

A 4.5 cm B

mirror

What is distance XY?

A 4.5 cm

B 9 cm

C 13.5 cm

D 10 cm

Page 11
20 A red monochromatic light travels at a speed of k × 109 m/s when it is refracted from air into a
glass.

The critical angle of this glass is 53 degrees.

Find the value of k.

A 2.4

B 0.24

C 0.38

D 3.8

21 Waves transfer energy without transferring …………………….

What is the missing word that completes the sentence above?

A Matter

B Light

C Atoms

D Electrons

22 Which option best describes the application in which converging lens are used?

A Food manufacturing

B Spectacles

C Windows

D Blankets

Page 12
23 Why do cell phones use microwaves to communicate rather than radio waves?

A Microwaves can penetrate through some walls

B Microwaves travel faster than radio waves

C Microwaves have more frequency than radio waves

D Microwaves can travel to a bigger range than radio waves

24 The incidence angle of a ray approaching a glass is 35⁰.

The glass has a refractive index of 1.5.

What is the angle of refraction of the ray?

A 22.5˚

B 59˚

C 35˚

D 45˚

25 Which table correctly shows the truth table for OR gate?

Page 13
26 Which of the following factors does not affect the e.m.f induced due to the magnetic field
produced inside an a.c. generator?

A The strength of the magnetic field

B Number of turns in the coil

C The rate of rotation of the coil

D The potential difference across the coils.

27 Wire A has a resistance of 5 Ω.

Wire B is made when the length of Wire A is extended by 4 times.

Wire C is made by reducing the area of Wire B by 2 times.

What is the resistance of wire C?

A 20 Ω

B 10 Ω

C 40 Ω

D 80 Ω

28 The currents of 4.0 A and 3.0 A enter a junction in a circuit.

There is no other current entering the junction.

What is the total current leaving the junction?

A 7.0 A

B 1.7 A

C 1.0 A

D 3.5 A

Page 14
29 Which metal is used to make the core of a transformer?

A Iron

B Aluminum

C Steel

D Platinum

30 A 100 % efficient transformer has a current of 4 A and voltage of 5 V in its primary coil.

What is current of the transformer in the secondary coil if the secondary coil has a voltage of 40
V?

A 50 A

B 5A

C 0.5 A

D 0.05 A

31 A parallel circuit consists of two resistors, each of 4 Ω in different ‘loops’ of the circuit.

What is the total resistance of the circuit?

A 8.0 Ω

B 0.5 Ω

C 2.0 Ω

D 4.0 Ω

Page 15
32 A nucleus consists of 4 neutrons and 5 protons.

How many nucleons does it have?

A 9

B 1

C 4

D 5

33 Which statement is not a conclusion Rutherfurd made about the atom through the scattering of
alpha particles through a thin sheet of gold?

A An atom has a very small nucleus surrounded by mostly empty space.

B An atom has a nucleus that is positively charged

C The nucleus contains most of the mass of the atom

D There are same number of electrons orbiting the nucleus as there are protons.

34 What is the name of the process when two nuclei join together?

A Nuclear Fusion

B Nuclear Fission

C Radioactive Decay

D Background Radiation

35 Which statement explain an atom may be radioactive?

A It has too many neutrons

B It has too many nucleons

C It has too many protons

D It has too many electrons

Page 16
36 How long does it take for moon to orbit the earth?

A 23 days

B 1 month

C 1 year

D 23 years

37 How long are two light years?

A 9.5 × 1028 m

B 1.9 × 1016 m

C 1.9 × 1015 m

D 9.5 × 1015 m

38 Which of the following statements are incorrect about the formation of a star?

A A star is formed from interstellar clouds of gas and dust that contain hydrogen.

B A red giant from a less massive star forms a planetary nebula with a white dwarf star at its
centre.

C A protostar becomes a stable star when the inward force of gravitational attraction is
balanced by an outward force due to the high temperature in the centre of the star.

D The nebula from a supernova cannot form any new stars with orbiting planets.

Page 17
39 Phobos is a moon that orbits Mars.

It has an orbital speed of 2100 m/s and an orbital period of just 7 hours and 39 minutes.

Calculate the average radius of the orbit Phobos takes.

A 9.2 × 106 m

B 1.5 × 106 m

C 1.7 × 106 m

D 2.6 × 106 m

40 The table below shows some data about different objects in our universe.

Object Description
An object that orbits the sun in an elliptical
Tempel 1
path
Pluto A dwarf planet
A large collection that consists of billions of
Andromeda
stars
Puck A moon that orbits Uranus

Which object is a galaxy?

A Tempel 1

B Pluto

C Andromeda

D Puck

Page 18
Component Score: /40 Component Grade:

Percentage: %

Page 19
Mark Scheme

Question Answer

1 A

2 A

3 D

4 B

5 B

6 A

7 D

8 C

9 B

10 C

11 A

12 C

13 A

14 A

15 C

16 D

17 B

18 B

19 B

20 B

21 A

22 B

23 A

24 A

25 B

26 D

Page 20
27 C

28 A

29 A

30 C

31 C

32 A

33 D

34 A

35 A

36 B

37 B

38 D

39 A

40 C

Page 21
Paper 4 (Structured questions)

This paper resembles the typical questions asked in a Paper 4 for IGCSE Physics

TIME ALLOWED: 1 hour 15 minutes

TOTAL MARKS: 80

ADDITIONAL MATERIALS NEEDED: Ruler and Protractor

INSTRUCTIONS

• Write your name in the space available at the top of the paper.
• Answer all the questions.
• Write answers in the spaces provided.
• The use of calculator is allowed.
• Use a blue or black pen to answer questions. The use of HB pencils is allowed for diagrams.
• You are reminded of having clear presentation and legible handwriting in your answers.
• You must show all your workings and use units correctly to gain full marks.
• Take the weight of 1.0kg to be 9.8N (acceleration of free fall = 9.8 m/s2)

Page 22
1 (a) Audrey kayaks to a speed of 4 km/h from rest in 6 minutes.

The velocity of her kayak increases at a constant rate in this time.

Then, she kayaks at this speed of 4 km/h for a time of t minutes.

After this time, she decelerates back to rest in 12 minutes at a constant rate.

Sketch the speed time graph for the motion of her kayak, clearly labelling the time values in
terms of t and any important speed values.

speed

(……...)

time (………….)
[4]

(b) She kayaks for 1 500 m in this journey.

Calculate the total time that takes.

……………………………….

[4]

[Total: 8]

Page 23
2 (a) State the principle of conservation of energy.

……………………………………………………………………………………………….……………………

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

[2]

(b) A ball of mass 75 g falls down a cliff that is 12 m high.

(i) Calculate the gravitational potential energy of the ball.

………………………… J [2]

(ii) The ball has a kinetic energy of 7.7 J when it reaches the ground.

Calculate how much energy was lost to other sources when it fell.

………………………… J [1]

[Total: 5]

Page 24
3 An ice cube has a density of 0.90 g/cm3.

It has a mass of 100 g and a volume of 5x cm3.

(a) Calculate the length of each side of the ice cube.

……………………………….

[4]

(b) The ice cube has a specific heat capacity of 2100 J/Kg ⁰C

Calculate the energy required to change the temperature of ice by 1 degree Celsius.

……………………………….

[2]

(c) Calculate the thermal capacity of the ice cube.

……………………………….

[2]

[Total: 8]

Page 25
4 (a) Give two examples where a thermocouple thermometer is used rather than liquid in glass
thermometer.

1 ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

2 ……………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

[2]

(b) Define the following terms in relation to a thermometer:

(i) range,

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) sensitivity.

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

[2]
(b) State and explain two factors that affect the sensitivity of liquid in glass thermometer.

Factor 1 ……………………………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

Explanation ……………………………………………………...………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

Factor 2 ……………………………………………………………………………………………………...

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

Explanation …………………………………………...…………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

[4]
[Total: 8]

Page 26
5 Fig. 5.1 shows the electromagnetic spectrum.

…………….. ……………
Gamma Ultraviolet Visible
Infared Microwaves
Rays Rays Light
…………….. ………………

Increasing ……………………………………………….

Decreasing …………………….....................................

Fig. 5.1

(a) Complete the missing labels in Fig. 5.1. [4]

(b) Ultraviolet rays have a speed of k x 106 m/s.

Find the value of k.

k = …………………….

[1]

(c) (i) State a section of the spectrum that is used in medical applications.

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

[1]

(ii) State a section of the spectrum that is used for thermal imaging.

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

[1]

(d) State and explain the use of optical fibers in telecommunications.

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

[3]

[Total: 10]
Page 27
6 (a) State which type of sound wave has a frequency of 42 000 Hz.

Explain your answer.

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

[2]

(b) State the speed of sound in a:

(i) Lemonade, …………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) Iron block. …………………………………………………………………………………

[2]

(c) A sound wave is diffracted through an open door.

State how the following factors affect the diffraction of the wave.

(i) Width of the gap made when the door opens

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

[1]

(ii) Wavelength of the sound

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

[1]

(d) Using your answer from (b) (i), calculate the wavelength of the sound that has a frequency
of 30 Hz in the lemonade.

……………………….. [2]

[Total: 8]

Page 28
7 A component in a circuit that obeys ohm’s law receives a current of c A and a voltage of 14 V.

It receives a power of 56 W.

(a) Calculate the resistance it has.

R = ………………………… Ω [4]

(b) Calculate the number of electrons that flow in this component during 2 minutes of its
operation.

The elementary charge, e, is 1.6 × 10-19.

…………………………………… [3]

(c) Another component receives a voltage of 6 V.

The circuit consists of these two components only and is connected in series.

Calculate the electromotive force that the battery provides.

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

[1]

(d) A transformer can be a component of an electrical circuit.

Draw the circuit symbol for a transformer.

[1]

[Total: 8]

Page 29
8 This question is about electrical fields.

(a) State what is meant by electric field.

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

[1]

(b) Complete the following statements.

A positively charged object ……………………... to another positively charged object.

A negatively charged object ……………………... to another positively charged object.

[2]

(c) A student tries to clean a plastic rod using a woolen cloth.

In terms of particles, explain how the rod becomes negatively charged.

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

[2]

(d) Another rod is positively charged.

Explain how this rod can attract a piece of aluminum foil.

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

[3]

[Total: 8]

Page 30
9 Earth and Mercury are two planets in our solar system.

(a) Give two ways in which the orbits of earth and mercury are similar.

1 ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2 ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

[2]

(b) Give two ways in which the orbits of earth and mercury are different.

1 ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

2 ………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

[2]

Page 31
(c) Moon A orbits Saturn and Moon B orbits Mars.

Moon A and Moon B have a similar orbital period, but Moon A has an orbital speed of 10 y
m/s and moon B has an orbital speed of y m/s.

Explain why.

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

[2]

(d) Explain why there is a chance that a planet and a comet can collide in our solar system.

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

…………………………………………………………………………………………………………………….

[2]

[Total: 8]

Page 32
10 (a) State what is meant by

(i) half-life,

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(ii) radioactive decay,

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………

(iii) isotope.

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………

[3]

(b) State the nature of an alpha particle.

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

……………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

[1]

(c) A decay equation is shown below.

3 3
1H→ x He+ -01e
x = …………………...

[1]

Page 33
(d) A radioactive element contains 6.9 × 1042 atoms. It has a half-life of 13 hours.

Calculate the number of atoms of this sample that decay in the following 52 hours.

number = ...........................................................

[3]

[Total: 8]

Page 34
Marker/Assessor’s use only:

Question Number Mark Scored


1
2
3
4

5
6
7
8
9
10
Total (out of 80)
Percentage
Component grade

Page 35
Mark Scheme

Question Answer Marks


1 (a) Values and units correctly labelled B1
Straight line with positive gradient going from 0 km/h to 4 km/h or equivalent with other
B1
units chosen
Horizontal line from 6 to 6+t or equivalent with other units chosen B1
Straight line with negative gradient going back to (0,18+t) or equivalent with other units
B1
chosen
Graph should look like this:

NOT TO SCALE

1 (b) Distance = Area under the graph B1


0.5(18+t)(4)
Finding correct expression in terms of t eg. 1.5 = M1
60
t = 18 s A1
A1
Total time = 36 s
(FT)
Total 8

Question Answer Marks


2 (a) Energy is never created or destroyed B1
Energy can only be transformed. B1
2 (b) (i) E=mgh C1
E = 8.8 J A1
2 (b) (ii) A1
1.1 J
(FT)
Total 5

Page 36
Question Answer Marks
3 (a) Density = mass/volume C1
x = 0.022 (correct method to calculate x) M1
Volume = 5 × 0.022 = 0.11 A1
Length of each side = 0.48 cm A1
3 (b) E = m c ΔT C1
E = 210 J A1
3 (c) Thermal capacity = mass × density C1
0.09 J / ⁰C A1
Total 8

Page 37
Question Answer Marks
4 (a) Any two correct applications mentioned such as:

Measuring temperature of different colours of flames produced during a flame test


2
To measure temperature of iron produced inside a blast furnance

B1 for each correct application mentioned


4 (b) B1 for each correct definition

Sensitivity – How easy it to detect small changes in temperature.


2
Range – The lowest and highest temperatures the thermometer can measure.

4 (c)

Correct factors affecting the sensitivity mentioned (B1) + correct explanation (B1) for
each pair

(max 2 pairs)

Factor: Using a thermometer with a larger glass bulb

Explanation: larger bulb contains more liquid and therefore, allows for a larger change
in the level of the liquid in the tube 4

Factor: The diameter of the capillary tube

Explanation: Using a narrow tube will lead to small changes in volume results in the
liquid moving a larger distance along the tube

Factor: Using a glass bulb with a thinner wall

Explanation: heat can be transferred to the bulb more easily and a small change in
temperature can be more easily detected
Total 8

Page 38
Question Answer Marks
5 (a)

B4

5 (b) k = 300 A1
5 (c) (i) X rays or Gamma rays A1
5 (c) (ii) Infrared radiation A1
5 (d) They are used to transmit signals over long distanced B1
They send information over fibre by turning electronic signals into light B1
Total 9

Question Answer Marks


6 (a) Ultrasound A1
It has frequency that is bigger than 20 kHz B1
6 (b) (i) 1500 m/s (allow 1000 – 2500 m/s) A1
6 (b) (ii) 5100 m/s (allow 3000 – 7000 m/s) A1
6 (c) (i) Size of the gap is inversely proportional to the effect of the diffraction (spreading out of
B1
waves)
6 (c) (ii) Lower wavelength means higher frequency (Wavelength and frequency of the wave is
B1
inversely proportional)
6 (d) v=fλ C1
B1
50 m
(FT)
Total 8

Page 39
Question Answer Marks
7 (a) P = IV C1
c=4A A1
P = I2 R C1
R = 3.5 Ω A1
7 (b) Q = It C1
Number of electrons = 480 ÷ 1.6 × 10-19 allow FT M1
3.0 × 1021 (electrons) A1
7 (c) 20 V A1

7 (d) A1

Total 8

Question Answer Marks


8 (a) A region in which an electrical charge experiences a force B1
8 (b)
A positively charged object repels to another positively charged object. A1

A negatively charged object attracts to another positively charged object. A1

8 (c) Electrons mentioned B1


negative charges / electrons move from cloth or move to rod B1
8 (d) When the foil is held close to the positively charged rod, the electrons in the foil move
B1
away from the positive charge on the foil
This causes the top of aluminum foil to be negatively charged. B1
Negatively charged objects attracts to positively charged objects, so the foil attracts to
B1
the rod.
Total 8

Page 40
Question Answer Marks
9 (a) Any two from:

Mercury orbits closer to the Sun.

Earth travels more distance in its orbit


B2
Mercury’s orbit is more elliptical

Mercury travels much faster than earth

Earth takes longer to complete an orbit

Ora
9 (b) Any two from:

Distance from earth to sun constant but comet/mercury’s distance changes

Speed from earth to sun constant but comet/mercury’s distance changes

The sun is more centralised for Earth’s orbit B2

Mercury/comet and Earth have different planes of orbit

Comet/Mercury travels a larger distance in its orbit

Ora
9 (c) The orbital radii of the two moons are different

Orbit radius of moon A is (10 times) bigger than moon B


B2
B1 each for statement/idea mentioned in the explanation

9 (d) Any two from:

Orbits of a planet and comet can intersect or overlap

A comet and a planet can be at the same place at the same time B2

The orbit periods of a comet and planet can be different

Total marks 8

Page 41
Question Answer Marks
10 (a) (i) the time it takes for the radioactivity to fall by half. B1
10 (a) (ii) The breaking up of the nucleus B1
10 (a) (iii) Isotopes are atoms of the same element that have an equal number of protons but a
B1
different number of neutrons.
10 (b) Any relevant property stated about alpha particle such as:
B1
It is helium nuclei (not nucleus)
10 (c) 2 A1
10 (d) 52 hours = 4 half lives or evidence of halving 4 times (seen or implied) B1
Number left = 4.3 × 1041 A1
Number decayed = Total – Number left = 6.9 × 1042 - 4.3 × 1041 = 6.5 × 1042 atoms A1
Total 8

Page 42
Grade Threshold (estimated)
Max.
Paper A B C D E F G
Marks
02 40 26 22 16 15 13 11 9

04 80 53 43 34 28 22 15 11

Grade A* does not exist for a component.

Overall thresholds

Minimum mark (out of 200) after component weightings for grade:

A* A B C D E F G

155 131 109 84 73 59 44 34

Please note that this threshold is predicted and set by skilled alumni of the subject
rather than on the data of the candidates giving the exams. Hence, accuracy of the
threshold is not 100 % but reasonable estimates are made to reflect the thresholds
in 2023 on the information given by the exam board.

Also, since we were unable to make a paper 5 or 6, we have used the weightings of
paper 2 and 4 to estimate the overall threshold.

For example:

The overall threshold for an A grade was set as follows.

Paper 2: Mark × weighing factor = 26 × 1.5 = 39

Paper 4: Mark × weighing factor = 53 × 1.25 = 66.25

Total

(105 [Total mark of 105.25 rounded down] / 160) × 200 = 131.25

[Threshold rounded down to 131]

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