9.

The conversion of 68 degrees Fahrenheit (F) is equivalent te

A. 20 degrees Centigrade (0 C)
(b) 45 degrees Centigrade (0 C)
(C) 30 degrees Centigrade (0 C)
10. TAF is code name for:
a. Aerodrome special weatherreport
b. Aerodrome special weather report
c. Terminal aerodrome forecast
11. An advancing cold, dry stable air mass displacing warm, meist unstable
subtropical air mass is called:
a. Cold Front
(b) Warm Front
(C) Occluded Front
12. The dissipating stage of a thunderstorm is associated with:
a. Continuous updraft (upward motion)
b. Continuous downdraft (downward motion)
c. Both updraft and downdraft and the beginning of rain.
13. The instrument used for measuring atmospheric pressure is called:
a. Thermometer. (b) Anemometer (C) Barometer
14. QNH is defined as barometric pressure at:
a. Mean sea level
b. Aerodrome level
c. Elevation
15. Isobars are lines connecting (marking) points of equal:
(a) Pressure.
(C) Wind
(b) Temperature
16. The wind that blows around the curved isobars is called: .
B Gradient wind
(a) Isobaric Wind
(C) Geostrophic wind
17. The flow of the wind from the mountain to the valley during the night is called:
.(a) Geostrophic wind
.(b). Anabatic wind
(c ) Katabatic wind
18. According to Buys Ballots law, closely spaced isobars are associated with:
.(a) Light wind
(b) Strong wind
(C) No wind
19. Stratus (ST) is classified according to its height as:
(a) Low cloud.
.(b) Medium cloud
(C) High cloud
20. When the aero plane is taking-off, visibility which is most important to the pilot
is:
(a) Air to air visibility.
(b) Horizontal visibility
(C) Slant range visibility
21. Ozone layer exists in the:
(a) Troposphere.
(b) Mesosphere
(C) Stratosphere
22. During the night cloud coverage:
.(a) Does not affect the heating of the earth
.(b) Decreases the heating of the earth
(c) Increases the heating of the earth.
23.METAR IS ACODE NAME FOR
(a) Aerodrome forcast
.(b) Aerodrome routine actual weather report
(c) Aerodrome special weather report.
24. Sea breeze occurs:
(a) During both day and night
(b) During the day only
(C) During the night only
25. Terrestrial heating (radiation) occurs
(a) Both by day and night
(b) only by night
(c)only by day.
26. Turbulence which is caused by : heat from the sun and makes warm air mass
rises and cold air sinks is Called
(a) Thermal turbulence
(b) jet stream turbulence
(c)wake turbulence
27. The altitude in the International Standard Atmosphere (ISA) indicated on an
altimeter set to 1013.2 hpa is called:
.(a) Indicated Altitude
(b) pressure Altitude .
(c) true Altitude
d .Jet stream turbulence
28. Before the passage of a warm front, visibility is likely to be:
.(a) Fair in haze
(b) Poor, but improving
(c) Poor.
29. While passing of a cold front, the clouds associated is:
(a) Cumulus (Cu), then clearing
(b) Cumulonimbus (Cb).
,(C) Increasing cirrus (Ci)
d. cirrostratus (Cs) and Cb
30. The variation of wind speed and/or direction from place to place is called:
.(a) Mountain waves
(b) Gradient wind
(c) Wind shear.

31. The most dangerous form of air frame icing is:

a. Clear ice.
b. Rime ice
c. Hoar frost
32. The 250 hectopascal (hpa) constant pressure chart corresponds to:
(a) FL 390
(b) FL 340
(C) FL 180
33. Charts that are issued every 6 hours and contain the forecast position of
surface fronts, clouds and weather conditions as well as freezing level are called:
(a) Significant weather charts.
.(b) Surface analysis charts
.(C) Constant pressure charts
34. The chart that is issued twice daily and contains the forecast wind speed and
direction as well
as forecast temperature is called:
(a) Significant weather chart.
.(b) Diagnostic constant pressure chart
( c) Prognostic upper air constant pressure chart
35. An airplane is flying so that the altimeter indicates 20000 feet with the current
regional QNH set on the subscale. If the airplane flies from low pressure (1009 hpa)
towards the area of high pressure (1030 hpa) and the pilot fails to revise the sub
scale setting as QNH changes, then the airplane will:
a. Maintain 20000 feet above mean sea level
b. Gradually descend (over read).
(c) Gradually climb (under read)
19. The aim of aviation security shall be:-
a to safeguard international civil aviation against acts of unlawful interference
b- To sport hijackers
c- Giving a good service to pax
d- Assisting pilot in-command to achieve safety of the flight
20 :as outside air pressure decreases, thrust output will
a- increase due to greater efficiency of jet aircraft in thin air
b- Remain the same as the greater speed obtained from reduced drag will allow
greater inlet velocities
c- Remain the same since compression of inlet air will compensate for any decrease
in air pressure
d. Decrease due to lower air density
21. What effect dose high outside air temperature have upon the Ermoele
thrust?
A thrust will be reduced to the decrease in air density
b- Thrust will remain the same due to compression of the air entering the engine
c- Thrust will increase as turbine temperature will be higher
d- Thrust will remain the same, but turbine temperatures will be higher

22.Which is a correct airplane speed symbol and definition?

a- VI is the rotation speed Ls decision speed
b- VR is the minimum control speed Rotation Speed
c- VI is the minimum landing gear extended speed b
d-V2 is the take off safety speed Lo take off safety Speed.
23. Rolling is defined as:
rotation of an aircraft about its lateral axis
b- rotation of an aircraft about its lateral axis
c. rotation of an aircraft thate caused by the ailerons
d- rotation of axis aircraft about its vertical axis
24. A/C B737 M.T.O.W 53070 Kgs MLW 47627 operating from an airport with 8000
PA having a runway length 12000 asphalt no slope wind 10 knots head flaps
position IEPR setting 2.15 and OAT 20c fuel burn to destination 5000 Kgs determine
the maximum allowable takeoff weight and the limiting factor (ref. Fig & Fig 5A)
a-49200 Kgs; RWY limit
b-58070 Kgs; MLW limit
c-42600 Kgs; climb limit
d-41000 Kgs; climb limit
25. A/C B737 intended to land at a gravel RWY 6000' long, with a slop 1% uphill
PA6000 OAT 35° C. determine the maximum allowable landing weight (Ref fig.6)
a-42800 Kgs; RWY limit
b-43500Kgs; climb limit
c-44400Kgs : RWY limit
d-45000Kgs; climb limit
26. the reciprocal for RWY 33 is :-
(a) RWY 15
b-RWY 25
c- RWY 23
d-RWY 13
27. VFR flight will be suspended when:-
a- the ground visibility is less than 8Km
b- the ground visibility is more than 5Km
c- the ceiling is more than 450 Km
(d) the ground visibility is less than 5 Km
28. The phrase "Read you four" means:-
a- readable now and than
b-perfectly readable
c- unreadable
(d) readable
29. ATC clearance is an authorization for an A/C to proceed under conditions
specified by :-
a-RCC
b-FIC
c- ATS reporting office
(d) ATC units
30. A flight plan submitted before departure to an ATS reporting office at
departure aerodrome for flights to be provided with ATCS or advisory service, shall
be submitted at least:
a-30 min. before departure
b-10 min. before departure
(c )60 min. before departure
d-45 min. before departure
31. That portion of airspace where it is determined that ATCS will be provided to
IFR and VFR flight, shall be designated as:-
a- Class A airspace
IFR ONLY.
(b) Class B airspace
c-Class F airspace
d-Class G airspace
32. An (IFR) flight operating TRACK 210º m shall be flown at :-
a- FL 290
b-FL 190
c-FL 085
(d) fT 100
33. the identification of the restricted area number 6, which is located within
Khartoum FIR, is: -
a-HSP 6 Prolebtied
b HSR 6 Restricted-
c-HSD 6 Danger.
d-HSS 6
34. what is the c.g in percent of MAC for an aircraft its T.O.W 176240 lbs & total
moment 160520000 if MAC length 180.9 inches & LEMAC 860.5?
A 27.8 percent MAC
b- 28.9 percent MAC
c-29.1 percent MAC
d-30 PERCENT MAC
35. what is dry operating index of an aircraft if its dry operating weight 60000 Kgs,
total moment 1950000 kgs/meter, reference station located at 31,5 meter
&indexing constant considered 1000.
a--6 D.O. Index
b--60 D.O. Index
c- +60 D.O. Index
d-None of the above
36. MAC defined as :-
a- speed of aircraft relative to the speed of sound
b- angle between chord line & relative wind
e- center of gravity of an aircraft
d imaginary line which CG of an aircraft displayed within it

37. the flight dispatcher assumes a leadership role within the operational
environment through:-
a- conflict resolution
b- radio communications
G avoiding errors
d- inquiry, advocacy and assertion
38. Not achieving enough sleep of the right type will result in the person feeling:-
a- stress
b- Strain
C Fatigue
d-Sick
39. Ref to annex 6 part 1,4.6.1; who is required to furnish the PIC while in flight
with information that may be necessary for the safe conduct of the flight?
a- the flight dispatcher
b-the ATC
c- the TWR operator
44. flash point of flammable liquied at:-
a- 66.50
b-55.6"
e-66.6"
D 60.50
45. Maxing ratio is measured in:-
a- kilograms
b-gram per gram
c- gram per kilogram
d kilogram per gram
46. Atmospheric ozone is mainly encountered in the:-
a stratosphere
b- Troposphere
c- Zone below tropopause
d- Zone above stropopause
47. Which of the following may cause thunderstorm?
lightning
b- Humidity
c-up draft
d-gust

1. When did I.C.A.O come in presence?

a-on April 4th. 1974
(b) on dec 7th. 1944
c-in Nov 1945
d. none of the above
2. The continued validity of an A.O.C or equivalent document shall depend on:-
a- the operators identification
b-The operator's identification maintaining the required standard of operations
approved by the state of the operators.
( c) Such mandatory material as may be required by L.C.A.O./
d- Aircraft type.
3. The sovereign body of I.C.A.O is:-
a-the assembly
b- The air navigation commission
(c ) The council
d. Civil aviation directore
Communction
Q081 Where is the normal location of the jetstream relative to surface lows and
fronts?
A The jetstream is located north of the surface systems.
B. The jetstream is located south of the low and warm front.
C. The jetstream is located over the low and crosses both the warm front and the
cold front.
D. The jetstream is located south of the surface systems.
Q082/ Which are the only cloud types forecast in the Terminal Aerodrome
Forecast?
A. Altocumulus.
B: Cumulonimbus.
C. Stratocumulus.
D. Towering Cumulus.
Q083/ The adverse effects of ice, snow, or frost on aircraft performance and flight
characteristics include decreased lift and; Ind
A. Increased thrust.
B. A decreased stall speed.
C. An increased stall speed.
D. All above are not correct.
Q084/ which type weather conditions are covered in the Convective SSIGMET;
A. Embedded thunderstorms, lines of thunderstorms, and thunderstorms with 3/4-
inch hail or tornadoes.
B. Cumulonimbus clouds with tops above the tropopause and thunderstorms with
1/2-inch hail or funnel clouds.
C. Any thunderstorm with a severity level of VIP 2 or more.
D. Embedded cumulonimbus clouds.
Q085/ what is the effect on total drag of an aircraft if the airspeed decreases in
level flight below that speed for maximum L/D?
a. Drag increases because of lower induced drag.
B. Drag increases because of increased parasite drag.
C. Drag decreases because of lower induced drag.
D.No effect.
Q086/ what airport condition is reported by the tower when more than one
wind condition at different positions on the airport is reported?
A. Light and variables
B. Wind shear.
C. Frontal passage.
D. Local wind
Q037/ The minimum gradient required for a 3 engines airplane during the encond
segment is:
a. 0,3%
b. 2.7%
c. Zero.
d. 1.5%
4 engines
QU38/ what is the maximum distance that a departure alternate airport may be
located from the departure airport for a two-engine airplane?
A. 1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air with both engines operating.
b. 1 hour at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine operating.
C. 2 hours at normal cruise speed in still air with both engines operating.
d. 2 hours at normal cruise speed in still air with one engine operating.
Q039/ A person whose duties include the handling or carriage of dangerous articles
and/or magnetized materials must have satisfactorily completed an established
and approved training program within the preceding:
a. 24 calendar months.
B. 12 calendar months.
C. 8 calendar months.
D. 6 calendar months.
The minimum egradient requires Por 3 engines 2.7%
Q040/ Given:
Dry Operating Weight = 22 800 kg
800kg * 22 =
Maximum Take-Off Weight = 52 400 kg
Maximum Zero-Fuel Weight = 43 100 kg
Maximum Landing Weight = 46 700 kg
Trip fuel = 4 000 kg
Fuel quantity at brakes release = 8 000 kg
The maximum-traffic load is:
a. 13 300 kg
b. 12 900 kg
C. 14 600 kg
D. 9 300 kg
Q041/ which of the following combinations adversely affects take-off and initial
climb performance?
A. High temperature and high relative humidity
B. Low temperature and high relative humidity
C. High temperature and low relative humidity
D. Low temperature and low relative humidity
Q058 Based on this Information, the CG would be located how far aft of datum?
Weight 1............……. 120 lb at 15" aft of datum
Weight 2. ……………….200 lb at 117 aft of datum
Weight 3. ……………….75 ib at 195" aft of datum
a. 100.8 inches.
B. 109.0 inches.
C. 121.7 inches.
D. 123.8 inches.
Q047/ if your destination sirport has no ICAO Indicator, in the appropriate box of
your ATC flight plan, you insert:
A. XXXX
B IIII
C ZZZZ
D. AAAA
Q048) Calculate the centre of gravity In % MAC (mean aerodynamic chord)
w.dt following data:
Centre of gravity =12.55m
Leading edge = 9.63m
Length of MAC = 8m
A. 23.1% MAC
B. 83.4% MAC
C. 47.0% MAC
D. 36.3% MAC
Q050/ where do squall lines most often develop?
A. in an occluded front
B Ahead of a cold front
C. Sehind a stationary front.
D. Ahead of a warm front.
Q051/whst affects indicated stail speed?
A. Weight, load factor, and power.
B. Load factor, angle of attack, and power.
C. Angle of attack, weight, and air density.
D. All above are correct.
Q018/ which document specifically authorizes a person to operate an stalt in a
particular geographic area?
A. Operations Specifications
B. Operating Certificate
C. Dispatch Relaase
D. Oparations manual

Q019/ A position located at longitude 180E, its time zone will be:
A. 12S
B. 12E.
C. 12W
D. 12N.
Q020/ If a turbine-engine-powered, pressurized airplane is not equipped with
quick-donning oxygen masks, what is the maximum flight altitude Bumcrized
without one pilot wearing and using an oxygen mask?
A. FL 200
B. FL 290
C. FL 260
D. FL 300
Q021 A pilot in command must complete a proficiency check or simulator training
within the preceding;
A. 6 calendar months
B. 12 calendar months
C. 24 calendar months
D. Not required
Q022/ Given local time at specific elty is 10:45 PM and time zone 5W, the
equivalent UTC time is:
A. 1745
B. 2245.
C. 0345.
D. 2745.
Q023/ The training required for crawmembers or flight dispatchers who have been
qualified and served in the same capacity on other airplanes of the same group is
A. difference training
B. transition training
C. upgrade training
D. Refresher training
Q075/ what is the process by which ice can form on a surface 'directly fro water
vapor on a cold, clear night?
A Sublimation.
B. Condensation.
C. Supersaturating.
D. Deposition.
Q076/ which precipitation type usually indicates freezing rain at higher altitudes?
A. Snow.
B. Hail.
C. Ice pellets.
D. Water droplets.
Q077/ Streamers of precipitation trailing beneath clouds but evaporating before
reaching the ground are known as;
A. Virgin.
B. Sublimation.
C. Condensation trails.
D. Fog.
Q078/ From which measurement of the atmosphere can stability be determined?
A. Ambient lapse rate.
B. Atmospheric prescure.
C. Difference between standard temperature and surface temperature.
D. Pressure lapse rate.
Q079/ The formation of either predominantly stratiform or predominantly
cumuliform clouds is dependent upon the;
A. Source of lift.
B. Stability of the air being lifted.
C. Percent of moisture content of the air being lifted.
D. Terrain.
Q080/ which type precipitation is an indication that supercooled water is present?
A. Wet snow.
B. Freezing rain.
C. Ice pellets.
D. Water droplets
Q024/ Allowance fuel is;
A. Taxi fuel plus trip fuel.
B. Taxi fuel plus alternate fuel.
C. Taxi fuel plus final reserve fuel.
D. Taxi fuel pius reserve fuel.
Q025/ Fuel tinkering is uplifted from specific departure point mainly when:
A. No fuel available at destination.
B. Prices differentials.
C. Scheduled desired,
D. All above are correct.
0026/ VOR transmit within VHF frequency band;
A. 900 110 kHz.
B. 108.0-117.92 MHz.
C. 108.0 MHz.
D. 118 MHz.
Q027/ If the actual ZFW exceeds the structural limit:
A Payload must be reduced.
B. Fuel must be reduced.
C. TOW must be increased.
D. LW must be reduced
Q028/Wingspan is the:
A. Distance from leading edge to trailing edge.
B. Distance from wingtip to wingtip.
C. Distance from wingtip to fuselagu.
D. None of above is correct.
Q029/ The amount of lift generated by the wings depends upon; , wing area, and
density of the air.
A. Angle of attack
B. The four forces acting upon airplane.
C. Speed, platform of the wing, and drag.
D. Relative wind, altitude, and airplane weight.
Q030/ (Refer to figure 0.1.2) What are the track, total distance, and MSA for the
sector Asmara Hodedah?
A. 276, 240, 12300 ft
3. 097°, 233, 13100 ft.
C. 276°, 233, 11600 ft.
D. 097°, 240, 12400 ft.
Q087/ Hazardous vortex turbulence that might be encountered behind large
aircraft is created only when that aircraft is:
A. Developing lift.
B. Operating at high airspeeds.
C. Using high power settings.
D. Operating at low airspeeds.
Q088/ Describe dynamic longitudinal stability;
A. Motion about the longitudinal axis.
B Motion about the lateral axis
C. Motion about the vertical axis.
D. Motion of the airplane around the CG location.
Q089/ Turbulence encountered above 15,000 feet AGL, not associated with cloud,
formations, should be reported as:
A. Convective turbulence.
B. High altitude turbulence.
C. Clear air turbulence.
D. Low altitude turbulence.
Q090/ A person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic
beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding;
A. 8 hours.
B. 12 hours.
C. 16 hours.
D. 24 hours.
Q091/ within what frequency range does the localizer transmitter of the ILS
operate?
A. 108.10 to 118.10 MHz
B 108.10 to 111.95 MHz
C. 108.10 to 117.95 MHz
D. 108.10 to 118.00 MHz
Q092/ The lowest ILS Category II minimums are;
A. DH 50 feet and RVR 1,200 feet.
B. DH 100 feet and RVR 1,200 feet.
C. DH 150 feet and RVR 1,500 feet,
D RVR 700 feet
Q042/ which of the following statements is correct?
A. clearway is an area beyond the runway which can be used for an aborted take-off.
B. If a clearway or a stopway is used, the lift-off point must be attainable at least at
the end of the permanent runway surface.
C. A stopway means an area beyond the take-off runway, able to support the
aeroplane during an aborted take-off.
D. An under run is an area beyond the runway end which can be used for an aborted
take-off.
Q043/ Prior to listing an airport as an alternate airport in the dispatch/flight
ralease, weather reports and forecasts must indicate that weather
conditions will be at or above authorized minimums at that airport;
A. For a period 1 hour before or after the ETA.
B. During the entire flight.
C. During the enroute only.
D. When the flight arrives.
Q044/ what causes hypoxia?
A. decrease of Oxygen partial pressure.
B. Excessive carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
C. An increase in Nitrogen content of the air at high altitudes.
D. A decrease of pressure.
Q045/ VFR flights shall not be flown over the congested areas of cities at a height
less than;
A. The highest obstacle.
B. 500 ft above the highest obstacle.
C. 2000 ft above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 ft from the aircraft.
D. 1000 ft above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600 m from the aircraft.
Q046/ what label, if any, must be placed on a package containing acetone?
A. No label is required.
B. POISON.
C FLAMMABLE LIQUID.
D. Toxic gas
11. DME provides slant-range distance which is:-
a- equal to the ground distance
b. more than the ground distance
C. less than the ground distance
d. it depends upon A/C altitudes.
12. instrument approach charts shall show
a- the airports co-ordinates
b- the airports take off minima
c- the airports landing minima
d the airports reference point
13. When flaps are used:-
a- lift is increased during takeoff
b. Lift is increased during takeoff but decreased upon approaching to land
c. Thrust is increased during takeoff
d. Airflow is spoiled during landing
14. The cockpit voice recorder (CVR) can be erased:-
a-During cruise
b- At any time and situation on ground
c. Only on ground with power on and parking brake set
d. During approach
Q007/ The standard temperature at FL300 is;
a. 15° C
B. Minus 45° С.
C. Minus 59.4° С.
d. Minus 44:4°C.
Q008/ What is the effect of runway slope on the take-off?
A. An uphill slope will increase the take-off distance
b. An uphill slope will increase the take-off performant
c. A downhill slope will increase the take-off distance
d. A downhill slope will decrease the take-off perform
Q009/ That part of a runway surface which is used for no luding any clearway or
stopway, is referred to as:
a The take-off run available (TORA)
b. The landing distance available (LDA)
C. The emergency distance available (EMDA)
D. Take-off distance available (TDA)
Q0010If the density of the atmosphere is reduced, the ta
A. Increased
B. Decreased
C. Unaffected
D. Controlled by wind
Q0011Deviation is the angular difference between:
A. True direction and magnetic direction
B. True direction and compass direction
C. Magnetic direction and true direction
D. Magnetic direction and compass direction X
7. by setting the altimeter to:-
a-30.00 Hg
b 29.92 Hg
C. The setting assigned ATC
d-The current reported altimeter setting of the nearest available station
8.a dashed line, on a navigation charts, joining places having zero
variation is called:-
A. isobar
b. isogonic
(c ) Agonic
d. Isotherm
9. TAS is defined as:
a- the airspeed displayed by the airspeed indicator
b. Equivalent airspeed corrected for air density
c- Calibrated airspeed corrected for compressibility
d-Indicated airspeed corrected for position error
10. What are the components of the ILS
a- localizer, markers and VASI
(b) Localizer, glide slope and marks
D. glide slop, localizer and REV
D. Localizer, RVR and VAST
Q012/ The minimum sector fuel is the that amount which includes:
A. Taxi fuel plus reserve fuel.
B. Trip fuel plus reserve fuel.
C. Alternate fuel plus reserve fuel.
D. Allowance fuel plus reserve fuel.
Q013/ The earth is divided into:
A. 12 time zones.
B. 24 time zones.
C. time zones
D. 360 time zones,
Q014/ The minimum regulatory amount of the contingency fuel in normal
operations are;
A. 3%.
B. 5%
C. 6%.
D. 8%.
Q015/ The maximum number of consecutive hours of duty that a flight dispatcher
may be scheduled is:
A. 12.
B. 8
C. 10.
D. 6
Q016/ Approximately one nautical mile equals;
A. 6080 feet.
B. 5280 feet.
C. 3280 feet.
D. 1280 feet
Q017/ Regulations state that an alternate airport for destination may not be
required providing that:
A. To fly to the aerodrome to which the flight is planned and thereafter for a period
of 45 minutes.
B. To fly to the aerodrome to which the flight is planned and thereafter for 15 per
cent of the flight time planned to be spent at the cruising level(s).
C. To fly for two hours with all engines operating.
D.To fly for one hour with one engine inoperative. Max I HR with one eng
48. ICAO standard atmosphere is characterized by:-
A. gradient
b. severe icing
B. constant
d- strong instability
49. the heat capacity of substance is determined by:-
a- the amount of heat required to change the temperature by one degree
b The amount of heat per unit mass required changing the temperature by one
degree
e- The amount of heat required to do work against gravity
d- the amount of heat consumed work
50. which of the following describes a frontal system at mature stage?
a. narrow cloud band
B. an organized of occlusion
C. formation of occlusion
d-bright sunshine
51. in order to drive boyles'law from the well known gass law, take:
a temperature as constant
b- pressure as constant
C. Jative humidity as start
Q068/ Density altitude may be determined by correcting:
A. True altitude for nonstandard temperature.
B. Pressure altitude for non-standard temperature.
C. Indicated altitude for temperature variations.
D. Pressure altitude for pressure variations.
Q069/ What are the standard temperature and pressure values for mean se. level?
A. 15 °F and 29.92" Hg.
B. 59 °C and 29.92 mb.
C. 59 °F and 1013.2 mb. HP
D. All are correct.
Q070/ what causes wind?
A. Carioles force.
B Pressure differences.
C. The rotation of the Earth.
D. Temperature variations.
Q071/ The windflow around a low pressure are;
A Cyclonic.
Adiabatic.
Anticyclone.
D. Vertical.
Q072/ which statement is true regarding high- or low-pressure systems?
A. A high-pressure area or ridge is an area of rising air.
B. A low-pressure area or trough is an area of rising air.
C. A high-pressure area is a trough of descending air.
D. A low-pressure area or ridge is an area of sinking air.
Q073/Temperature spread is the difference between;
A. The outside air temperature and dewpoint temperature.
B. The outside air temperature relative humidity.
C. The outside air temperature and air pressure
D The outside air temperature and absolute humidity.
Q074/ The ratio of the existing water vapor in the air, as compared to the
maximum amount that could exist at a given temperature, are called;
A. The dewpoint.
B. Saturation point.
C. Relative humidity.
D. Absolute humidity.
15 If a pilot on radio transmits to you the word ACKNOWLEDGE, whit does he
want
a- he wants you to check with the originator
b- he wants you to repeat your massage
C. he wants to know that you have resaved and understood his message
D. he wants to inform you that he has received your massage
16.SELCAL code is provided for each A/C by:
a. CAA
b. the operator
C. the manufacturer
d. the state of registry
17.the speed of radio equals:-
a. 300 000000 Km/second
b. 300 000 MHz
C. 300 000 Km/second
d. 3000 000 MTR/second
18. ATS flight plan may be filed though radio communication:
a. it is forbidden
b. false
c. true
d. it depends upon captains discursion
Q0015/An aerodrome which is 1800 fest above mean sea level has an observed
QNH of mb. What is the approximate pressure altitude?
A.2250 feet
B. 2107 fost
C. 1580 feet
D. 11.1956 feet
Q016/ What is the shortest (great circle) distance between position (A) $30 30
W060 00 and position (B) N20 10 W060 007
a. 2640 feet
b. 2689 feet
c. 3480 feet
d. 3505 feet
Q017/ What would be the effect of an increase in temperature upon the air density
and aircraft performance?
A. Reduced density and reduced aircraft performance
B. Increased density and reduced aircraft performance
c. Increased density and increased aircraft performance
d. Reduced density and increased in aircraft performance.
Q018/A position located at longitude 150E, its time zone will be:
a. 10S
b. 10 W
C. 10 E
d. 12.5 E
Q019/ Maximum endurance:
a. Is the same as maximum specific range
B. Will be achieved by flying with minimum fuel flow (kg/hrs)
C. Will be achieved flying with minimum fuel consumption (kg/NM),
d. Is the same as maximum specific range with wind correction
Q020/Wingspan is the;
a. Distance from leading edge to trailing edge
B. Distance from wingtip to wingtip.
C. Distance from wingtip to fuselage
d. None of above is correct
Q021/ The minimum climb gradient required for a 2 engines airplane during the
second
segment of the takeoff path is;
a. 0.3%
B. 1.5%
C. 2.7%
d. Positive
Q022/ Dangerous goods class 8 is titled;
a. Gasses
(b) Corrosive substances
c. Flammable liquids
d. Explosive
15.If a pilot on radio transmits to you the wordacnowledg , what does he
want
a- he wants you to check with the originator
b- he wants you to repeat your massage
c. he wants to know that you have resaved and understood his message
d- he wants to inform you that he has received your massage
16.SELCAL code is provided for each A/C by:-
a-CAA
b- the operator
c. the manufacturer
d- the state of registry
17.the speed of radio equals:-
a. 300 000000 Km/second
b. 300 000 MHz
c. 300 000 Km/second
d. 3000 000 MTR/second
18. ATS flight plan may be filed though radio communication:-
a- it is forbidden
b- false
c-true
d. it depends upon captains discursion
29. ATC clearance is an authorization for an A/C to proceed under conditions
specified by :- ATM
a-RCC
b-FIC
c- ATS reporting office
d. ATC units
30. A flight plan submitted before departure to an ATS reporting office at
departure aerodrome for flights to be provided with ATCS or advisory service, shall
be submitted at least:
a-30 min. before departure
b-10 min. before departure
c. 60 min. before departurec.
d-45 min. before departure
31. That portion of airspace where it is determined that ATCS will be provided to
IFR and VFR flight, shall be designated as:-
a- Class A airspace
b. Class B airspace
c-Class F airspace
d-Class G airspace
32. An (IFR) flight operating TRACK 210º m shall be flown at :-
a- FL 290
b-FL 190
c-FL 085
d. FT 100
Q015/An aerodrome which is 1800 fest above mean sea level has an observed
QNH of mb. What is the approximate pressure altitude?
A. 2250 feet
B. 2107 fost
C. 1580 feet
D. 11.1956 feet
Q016/ What is the shortest (great circle) distance between position (A) $30 30
W060 00 and position (B) N20 10 W060 007
a. 2640 feet
b. 2689 feet
c. 3480 feet
d. 3505 feet
Q017/ What would be the effect of an increase in temperature upon the air density
and aircraft performance?
A. Reduced density and reduced aircraft performance
B. Increased density and reduced aircraft performance
c. Increased density and increased aircraft performance
d. Reduced density and increased in aircraft performance.
Q018/A position located at longitude 150E, its time zone will be:
a. 10 S
b. 10 W
C. 10 E
d. 12.5 E
Q019/ Maximum endurance:
a. Is the same as maximum specific range
B. Will be achieved by flying with minimum fuel flow (kg/hrs)
C. Will be achieved flying with minimum fuel consumption (kg/NM),
d. Is the same as maximum specific range with wind correction
Q020/Wingspan is the;
a. Distance from leading edge to trailing edge
B. Distance from wingtip to wingtip.
C. Distance from wingtip to fuselage
d. None of above is correct
Q021/ The minimum climb gradient required for a 2 engines airplane during the
second
segment of the takeoff path is;
a. 0.3%
B. 1.5%
C. 2.7%
d. Positive
Q022/ Dangerous goods class 8 is titled;
a. Gasses
(b) Corrosive substances
c. Flammable liquids
d. Explosive
Q031/ Ving are used to;
A. Set lower limit forV
B. Set lower limit for V
C. Set lowor limit for Vi
D. Set lower limit for V
Q032/ V₁ are defined as;
A. Engine failure speed.
B. Takeoff engine failure speed.
C. Takeoff critical engine failure speed.
D. Landing engine failure speed.
Q033/ V₂ is mainly affected by:
A. Pressure altitude.
B. Weight.
C. Obstacle.
D. Runway length.
Q034: The length of the runway declared available and suitable for the ground run
of an airplane taking off is:
A. TDOA.
B. ASDA.
C.TORA.
D. TOR
Q035/ The maximum TODA is:
A. TORA plus stopway.
B. TORA plus clearway
C. Only TORA.
D. TORA plus stopway and clearway.
Q036/ The abbreviation WAT stands for:
A. Weather, Atmosphere, Temperature.
B. Weight, Airplane, Time
C. Weight, Altitude, Temperature.
D. Wing, Area, Thrust.
Q052/ what are some characteristics of an airplane loaded with the CG at the oft
limit?
A. Lowest stail speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability.
B. Highest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability.
C. Lowest stall speed, lowest cruise speed, and highest stability.
D. Highest stall speed, lowest cruise speed, and highest stability.
Q053/ A pilot who is scheduled for a practical test for an airline transport oligt.
certificate, in an aircraft, must hold;
A. A first-class medical certificate.
B. At least a current third-class medical certificate.
C. A second-class medical certificata.
D. Not required.
Q054/ which feature as associated with the tropopause?
A. Absence of wind and turbulence.
B. Absolute upper limit of cloud formation.
C. Abrupt change of temperature lapse rate.
D. Layer of ozone formation.
Q055/ which statement is true regarding takeoff performance with high pensity
altitude conditions?
A. The acceleration rate will increase since the lighter air creates less drag
B. The acceleration rate is slower because the engine and propeller efficiency is
reduced.
C. A higher-than-nomial indicateo airspeed is required to produce sufficient lift since
the air is less dense.
D. No effect
Q056/ If the atmospheric pressure and temperature remain the same, how would
an increase in humidity affect takeoff performance?
A. Longer takeoff distance: the air is more dense.
B. Longer takeoff distance; the air is less dense.
C. Shorter takeoff distance: the air is more dense,
D. Shorter takeoff distance; the air is less dense.
Q057/ what effect does an uphill runway slope have upon takeoff performance?
A. Decreases takeoff speed.
B. Increases takeoff distance.
C. Decreases takeoff distance
D. No effect

Q001/Maximum Landing Weight (MLW) is best defined as

A. Maximum permissible total weight on landing under normal operating
conditi
b. Maximum permissible total weight on landing
c. Maximum permissible total weight on the approach to land
.d. Maximum permissible total weight on taxiing to park
Q002/ Maximum Zero Ft Weight (MZFW) is best defined as
a. Maximum permissible weight of the aircraft with no useable fuel
b. Maximum permissible weight of the aircraft with no passengers or fuel
c. Maximum permissible weight of the aircraft with no crew or fuel
d. Maximum permissible weight of the aircraft without occupants and baggage
Q003/ A An aircraft flies at TAS 260 kt for 480 nm with wind component
kt head 20
The flight time covered shall be:
a. 1:48
b. 1:42
c. 2:00
d. 1:50
:Q004/ Maximum Take of Weight (MTOW) is best defined as*
a. Maximum permissible total weight at the start of the take off run
b. Maximum permissible total weight prior to taxiing
C. Maximum permissible total weight prior to take off
d. Maximum permissible total weight
Q005/ The zero fuel weight of an aeroplane is always
a. MTOW + takeoff fuel weight
b. TOW-takeoff fuel weight
C. MTOW-takeoff fuel weight
d. TOW + takeol
Q007/11 V_{1} exceeda balanced length? V what action must be taken to ensure
field
A. V mbs must be increased so as to be the same as V_{t}
B. v_{1} must be reduced to V max
C. V ottte must be increased so as to be greater than v_{xi}
D. mbs must be reduced to avoid exceeding the brake unit heating absorption
capability.
Q008/ To remain current as a flight dispatcher, a person must, in addition to other
requirements;
A. Within the preceding 12 calendar months, spend 2.5 hours observing flight deck
operations, plus two additional takeofis and landings, in one of the types of airplanes
in each group he/she is to dispatch.
B. Within the preceding 12 calendar months, spend at least 5 hours observing flight
deck operations in one of the types of airplanes in each group he/she is to dispatch.
C. Within the preceding 12 calendar months, spend at least 5 hours observing flight
deck operations in each type of airplane, in each group he/she is to dispatch.
D. Within the preceding 24 calendar months, spend at least 5 hours observing flight
deck operations in each type of airplane, in each group he/she is to dispatch.
Q009/ what is load factor??
A. Lift multiplied by the total weight.
B. Lift subtracted from the total weight.
C. Lift divided by the total weight
D. Lift added to the total weight.
Q010/ which of the following is considered a primary flight control?
A. Slats.
B. Elevator.
C. Dorsal fin.
D. All above.
Q011/ Given true direction of 363 ^ 9 and magnetic direction of 367 ^ 0 the
varjation will be;
A. 4 degree E
B. 4 DEG W
C. 4 deg
D. None of above.
Q015/ An aerodrome which is 1800 feet above mean sea level has an observed
QNH 998 mb. What is the approximate pressure altitude?
a. 2250 feet
b. 2107 feet
c. 1580 feet
d. 1956 feet
Q016/ What is the shortest (great circle) distance between position (A) S30 30
W060( and position (B) N20 10 W060 007
a. 2640 feet
b. 2689 feet
c. 3480 feet
d. 3505 feet
Q017/ What would be the effect of an increase in temperature upon the air density
an aircraft performance?
a. Reduced density and reduced aircraft performance
b. Increased density and reduced aircraft performance
c. Increased density and increased aircraft performance
d. Reduced density and increased in aircraft performance.
Q018/ A position located at longitude 150E, its time zone will be;
a. 10S
b. 10 W
C 10 E
d. 12.5 E
Q019/ Maximum endurance:
a. is the same as maximum specific range
b. Will be achieved by flying with minimum fuel flow (kg/hrs)
C. Will be achieved flying with minimum fuel consumption (kg/NM) d. Is the same as
maximum specific
D. range with wind correction
Q020/ Wingspan is the;
.A. Distance from leading edge to trailing edge
B. Distance from wingtip to wingtip
C. Distance from wingtip to fuselage
d. None of above is correc
Q021/ The minimum climb gradient required for a 2 engines airplane during the
second egment of the takeoff path is;
a. 0.3%
b. 1.5%
2.7%
d. Positive
Q022/ Dangerous goods class 8 is titled;
a. Gasses
b. Corrosive substances
c. Flammable liquids
d. Explosive
Q038/ The ATC units are;
A. Area control, approach control and briefing control
B. Aerodrome control, approach control and area control.
c. Approach control, area control and communications contre
d. Information control, aerodrome control and area control
Q039/ VOR is;
A. VLF Omni-directional Range
B. VHF Omni-directional Range
c. Vertical Omni-directional Range
d. Voice Omni-directional Range
Q040/V, is:
a. Engine failure speed
b. Emergency speed
c. Critical engine failure speed
d. Takeoff speed
Q041/ The most critical climb segment is:
A. First segment/
b. Second segment
c. Third segment
d. Fourth segment
Q042/ A pressure altitude which is corrected for non-standard
a. Absolute altitude
b. Density altitude/
c. Indicated altitude
d. True altitude
Q043/ Under Load is: wig
a. Total Traffic Load - Allowed Traffic Load
b. Operating Weight-Total Traffic Load
c. Allowed Traffic Load - Total Traffic Load
d. None of the above
Q044/ Weight multiplied by arm equals:
a. Centre of gravity
b. Mass
d. Moment
Q045/ MAC length is the difference between:
a. "TEMAC" and reference datum
b. "LEMAC" and "TEMAC"
C. TEMAC and reference datum
Q062/ The center of gravity of an aircraft is computed along the;
A. Lateral axis.
B. Vertical axis.
C. Longitudinal axis.
D. Horizontal axis.
Q063/ The center of gravity of an aircraft can be determined by:
A. Dividing total arms by total moments.
B. Dividing total moments by total weight.
C. Multiplying total arms by total weight.
D. Dividing total moments by total arms.
Q064/ In what part of the atmosphere does most weather occur?
A. Tropopause.
Troposphere.
C. Stratosphere.
D. Mesosphere.
Q065/ which is the primary driving force of weather on the Earth?
A The Sun uneven heating of the atmosphere.
B. Carioles force.
C. Rotation of the Earth.
D. Pressure systems.
Q066/ The average lapse rate in the troposphere is;
A. 2.0° C per 1,000 feet.
B. 3.0° C per 1,000 feet.
C. 5.4° C per 1,000 feet.
D. 6.5° C per 1,000 feet.
Q067/ The most frequent type of ground or surface-based temperature inversion is
that produced by:
A. Terrestrial radiation on a clear, relatively still night.
B. Warm air being lifted rapidly aloft in the vicinity of mountainous terrain.
C. The movement of colder air under warm air or the movement of warm air over
cold-air.
D. Cold air being lifted upward from the surface of the Earth.
Q085/ Describe dynamic longitudinal stability,
A. Motion about the longitudinal axis.
B. Motion about the lateral axis.
c. Motion about the vertical axis.
d. No dynamic stability.
Q086/ What are some characteristics of an airplane loaded with the CG at the aft
limit?
a. Lowest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability.
B. Highest stall speed, highest cruise speed, and least stability.
c. Lowest stall speed, lowest cruise speed, and highest stability.
d. No effect.
Q087/ At what Mach range does the subsonic flight range normally occur?
a. Below.75 Mach..
6. From.75 to 1.20 Mach.
c. From 1.20 to 2.50 Mach.
d. Above.75 Mach.
Q088/ What is the relationship between induced and parasite drag when the gross
weig is increased?
A. Parasite drag increases more than induced drag.
B. Induced drag increases more than parasite drag.
c. Both parasite and Induced drag are equally increased.
d. Both induced drag and parasite urag are equaily decreased.
Q089/ In the troposphere layer, the temperature;//
a- Remains constant
b- Increases with altitude
C. Decreases with altitude
d- None of the above
Q090/ Temperature of 90° F is equal to;
a. 32° C
b. 58° C
c. -18° C
d. None of above
Q091/ Air tends to move;
a. From low to high pressure areas
B. From high to low pressure areas
c. Only within high pressure area
d. Only within low pressure area
Q093/ If the ambient temperature is colder than standard at FL310, wi the
relationship between true altitude and pressure altitude?
A They are both the same, 31,000 feet.
B. True altitude is lower than 31,000 feet.
C. Pressure altitude is lower than true altitude.
D. No effect.
Q094/ The most rapid accumulation of clear ice on an aircraft in flight may occur
with temperatures between 0 °C to -15 °C in;
A. Cumuliform clouds.
B. Stratiform clouds.
C. Any clouds or dry snow.
D. Fog.
Q095/ What are the minimum requirements for the formation of a thunderstorm?
A. Sufficient moisture and a lifting action.
B. Sufficient moisture, an unstable lapse rate, and lifting action
C. Towering cumulus clouds, sufficient moisture, and a frontal zone.
D. An unstable lapse rate and stratiform clouds.
Q096/ what feature is associated with the cumulus stage) of a thunderstorm?
A. Frequent lightning.
B Continuous updrafts.
C. Beginning of rain at the surface.x
D. Beginning of dissipating.
Q097/ GIVEN:
ZZZZ 151355Z AUTO 22010KT 10SM CLR 13/10 A2993.
The reported visibility and station pressure are;
A. 10 kilo meter, 29.93 mbs.
B. 10 statute miles, 29,93 Hg.
C. 10-meter, 29.93 Hg.
D. 10 statute miles, 2993 Hg.
AIM
Q098/ what is the purpose of MOAs?
A. To protect military aircraft operations from civil aircraft.
B. To separate military training activities from IFR traffic.
C. To separate military training activities from both IFR and VFR traffic.
D. To separate military training activities from VFR traffic