1.

In a magnetc forces z is
Directly proportional to h
Inversely to z
Inversly to h
Around 20 questions came from human perform
1. Semicercular canal is a part of
Inner ear
Outer ear
Middle ear
2. Angular acceleration is caused by
Ossicles
Semicircularcanals
Chleoa
Some questions on
Seat of pants
aourosal
3. remedy for hyperventilation-talk loud
met- just 5-6 quest
4. factors of formation of cu clouds
unstable turbulance good visibility

5. some quest on insolation

6. steam fog- when cold air flows over warm sea

7. calculate the temp using isa lapse rate

principal of flights

8. where is weight acted when on ground

between the wheels and the undercarriage
cg
aft of cg

9. few questions on cg aft and forward effect

on a level turn
stall speed increases
decreases
load fact decreases

10. defination of
vno
pressuure alt

11. lots of quest on acceleration and undershoot overshoot magnetic compass

RIC
12. ALTIMETER ERORS

13. cdmvt 3 quest

radio aids dint come much except for a lot of numericals
on vhf range
dme dist calcul
time problems
question on tcas

Paper mostly had Human Performance questions,lots of nav

numericals(CDMVT,drift,Departure),Turning
errors in Magnetic Compass,About 5 questions on CG,Find slant rage DME 2 numericals,Met-
steam
fog,lapse rate(basic questions),Regs basics about 7 questions-Visibilty,SSR codes,Ground
Air Light
signals.

Some of the Human Perf Questions I can recollect

1. The heart muscle is supplied with blood from

the coronary arteries.

2. Inhaling carbon monoxide can be extremely dangerous during flying. Which of the
following statement(s)
is/are correct?
Carbon monoxide is odourless and cannot be smelled.

3. The proprioceptive senses (Seat of-the-Pants-Sense):

give wrong information, when outside visual reference is lost

4. The purpose of the semicircular canals

Sense angular acceleration

5. With vertigo the instrument-panel seems to tumble. This is due to

the Coriolis effect in the semicircular canals
6. Although we have a field of vision of more than 180° it is important during flight to
use the scanning
technique, because:
only in the foveal area resolution is good enough to see an object clearly
7. When a pilot is starring at an isolated stationary light for several seconds in the dark
he might get the
illusion that:
the light is moving

8. The relationship between arousal and flying performance is

approximately the form of an inverted U

5. Range of DME is correct within a.3% of range b.0.5 NM c. 0.2 NM

6. Accuracy of DME is a. + - 0.5 NM b. Increases as aircraft is flying at closer range
7. DME is able to discriminate between pulses intended for itself and for other a/c
coz it rejects the pulses
not synchronized with its own random PRF
8. Flashing green lights to a/c already taxing on ground means-
9. Whiteout means a. A/c is flying over a snow covered lake and related
options
10.ILS Cat III (a) RVR is a. 200 mts b. 250 mts
11. theta =3 degree TAS=100 kts ROD=** ANS: 500 feet/minute
12.TCAS operation uses a. transponder replies from other a/c b. a special system
installed on board
13.DME uses frequency a.1000 MHZ b. 100 Mhz c. 100 KHZ
14.Question related to Primary and Secondary Radar. Primary radar relies on target
reflection and
secondary radar on transponder replies
15. Which is the most prominent error of NDB - Quadrental Error
16.A signal is received after fading at the receiver,Which is the most likely reason
a.Quadrental Error b.
Night effect c. mountainous/terrain effect d. Coastal error
17.90% of water vapour is present in a. troposphere b. lower stratosphere
18. A-B 90Nm Along the track 60 nm from A, aircraft is positioned 4nm to right.What
is the correction
required to track directly to B a. 12 left b. 8 left
19.NDB frequency a.190-1750 KHZ
20.Which of the following is present in Middle Ear a. Embolym b. Ossicles c. Semi-
circular canal d.
vestibular apparatus
21. VLE speed is a. the landing gear speed with full safety and related options
23.mach No. Definiton
24. Divergence brings in what kind of weather
25. Echoes are received 30 degree to left.A/c hdg is 120 M , Find QTE?
26. Convergency. SH, C.A.=7, P-Q=95 Degree GC ,P-Q RL=? Ans is 088 Degree
27. Perihelion occurs a. Beginning of January b. Beginning of July
28.Civil twilight a.6 degree below the celestial horizon
29.Lines joining places of equal variation are ISOGONALS
30.Class B airspace Met Minima above 10000 feet
31.Met minima for 4500-9000 feet outside controlled airspace
32.A (45N 10 W)and B(48*30** N 15 W) Find the A-B RL track a. 300 b.330 c.345
33.a. ND shows flight director bars
b.PFD is the main flying instruent
c.Altitude information is displayed on PFD
d.FMA related option
Combination of correct answers was given
34.Stage 2 sleep comprises of 50% of sleep.
35.100% Acuity is achieved at FOVEA
36.On reaching the saturation vapour pressure, a. it will stay at the same
temperature b. it will become
colder c. it will become warmer
37. An a/c has been hijacked and is asked to commence a descend,It cannot notify
ATC of its actions. a. It
will fly an Emergency triangle b, Declare emergency c. Descend to an altitude which
is at a deviation of
1000 ft wen flying FL290 above and 500fr if below FL290
38.Time of Useful consciousness at 35000feet is-
39, What SSR code is used for Emergency- 7700
40.An aircraft flyign with left static port blocked will- a. over read when side slipping
towards port b.
overread when side slipping towards starboard
41.Airfield is 0 metres above MSL,OAT is not given.QNH = 1022 HPa , QFF=? a. Less
than 1022 b. more
than 1022 c. 1022 d. Information is not sufficient to determine
42.One or more several static ports have been blocked on board a unpressurised
aircraft.Correct remedial
action will be- break the glass of Rate of climb indicator
43.Upsloping runway will give an illusion of - ??
44. Worload is defined as- a.90% of crew resources have been utilized b. 60% of
crew resources have
been utilized c. Depends on Pilot expertise d. Availability of resources Combinations
of answers is correct
45.Myopia is- a. Nearsightedness b. Farsightedness
46.NDB signal transmits a signal pattern in the horizontal plane which is a. omni-
directional b. Bi-lobar
pattern c. Cardiod balanced at 30HZ freq.
47.Physiological gases are a. O2 and CO2 b. O2 and CO , Two more combinations
were given
48.Ice on the aircraft surfaces will increase the landing distance by a. 40-50% b. 30-
40% c.10-15%
49.Stress management is
50.With respect to CO which of the following statements is correct- a. it has 5 Times
affinity to attach with
hemoglobin than oxygen b. It causes Hypoxia
51.100% oxygen corresponds to the FL of a. 10000 b. 40000
52. Cognitive Stress is-
53. On a 5 dot indicator, an a/c is flying at a range of 100Nm on a airway. How
many dots will correspond
to the deviation? a.1.5 dots b.2 dots c.3 dots
54.A pilot experiences bends in joints after the Flight, a. Seek Aviation Medical
Assistance immediately b.
Ignore as it will get better with time
55.Tidal Volume is- Answer is 500ML
56. To prevent Vertigo- Avoid rapid head movement during the turns
57. A ( 004N 30W ) aircraft flies 600 NM south then 600 NM east, 600 NM north, 600
NM west. Aircraft's
present position is?
58. When acknowledging mode and code pulse from ATC,pilot will reply by a.
Repeating both mode and
code pulse b. repeat only code pulse
59.Variation is applied at beacon on VOR and at A/C for NDB.
60.FL 150 , TAS=250 Kts , OAT= --12Degree Icing will occur- a. Over flat
terrain,away from
fronts,moderate to severe Mixed Ice b. Pushed by clouds against the
mountains,moderate to severe Mixed
Ice c. Moderate to severe Rime Ice
61.A/C magnetic hdg is 120, variation= 17W track is 15 degree to the left of HDG.
NDB bears (given in
question) ,What will be the NDB bearing to plot on a Polar stereo graphic chart?
62.A/C is going from A (QNH 1012HPa) to B (QNH 1012Hpa), the altimeter reading
differs.What could be
the possible reason for this? a. Aircraft is flying over a warmer airmass b. Flying over
a colder airmass c.
Altimeter error
63. Dew Point and Air temperature are less than 1 Degree apart, what kind of
weather will occur as a result
a. Fog and Stratus b. clear sky
64. CU and CB are formed due to a. Convection b. radiation
65. Fog is a.<1000 mts visibilty due to solid and ice particles
b. <1000 mts visibility due to solid and liquid particles
c.< = 1000 mts due to ice and .......... particles
d. < 1000 due to presence of precipitation
66.Geostrophic winds are proportional to a. density if air b. curvature of isobars
66.Average height of Stratosphere is a. 11 to 50 KM b. 50 to 85 KM
67.When is the coldest time of the day. 30 minutes after sunrise

Regs:
DGCA stuff, squawk code, type of transponder, class 'B' VFR above 10,000MSL etc.
Met
Find height of tropopause from charts
Lapse rate questions
A/C flying south in southern hemi with stbd drift, which pressure is it flying into?
What is pressure alt?
when are pressure alt n density alt same?
Human Performance
Stress
Rate of alcohol consumption in body
Middle and inner ear related questions
Eye questions including fovea and rods
Nav
Diagrams of AH and you have to identify the one with the given condition
Altimeter numerical
flying from A to B, speed 0.84M. Distance 300nm, you have to increase your ETA by
2min, when will you
decrease your speed? Previous ETA was given
Speed/Time problems
Gyro
Local time numerical
Tech
AOA questions
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
----------------------------------------------
First few questions were of Air Regulation:
. Height and radius of VFR in congested Areas
. Fl to be flown in case of unlawful interference
. Fl to be flown, True Heading was given along with variation and deviation, but what
flight, VFR or IFR
wasn't given.
. Steady green light when a/c is on ground
. Series of red lights when a/c is in flight
. Two questions were there on the radio failure in IFR.
Meteorology
. Conditions in front of Stationary Front
. Chart was given with Isobars and fronts along with TAF clearly showing features of
cold front, had identify
the station
Human Performance
. Two questions on stress a
. What behavior is not good in team work
. Alcohol is filtered by which organ
Navigation
. What is the Chart length between 180E and 180W on same lat .
. Chart length was given on 59 lat, what is the chart length on some other lat
. Three Alternates were given with the course and the wind component, which
alternate is close in terms of
time
. A to B distance was given and wind component, what is the total time between A to
B and then back to A.
. What is the GS and Heading, Course and Wind component were given
. QNH of ground is 1023 and elevation is 1500, how much you have to climb for FL
750
. In Mercator chart RL is a straight or curved line ?
. What is the Drift on **lat?
. What is the distance when an A/C descends 15000ft at the rate of 1500ft/min
. Radio Altimeter turns Analog to Circular at - a. below 1000ft, b. at or below 1000ft,
c. at DH.
. One Altimeter is calibrated for Inst./Pos. error and other 1 is not, what happens is
IAS changes
. Power of NDB is 100KW what is the range?
Technical
. Increase in altitude but Angle of Attack, mass and IAS remains same, what
happens to the Angle of Climb
. With Increase in altitude what happens to the TAS and Drag
time &rel velocities
hysterisis error
combination of what all site errors adf has
topple of DGI at pole
topple/wander of DGI at somewhere else on earth
where does the wing mounted compass send its signals..amplifier/dgi etc
1 question on taf with a miniature map asking you to identify the airport it applies to
CDMVT 2-3 q
bearing 2-3 q.. NDB bearing & qdm etc given
what does attitude indicator indicate after straight level flight 180 deg turn...
load factor in a turn
stall speed
stall angle
VMU
speed ...direction ....new latitude of place
Lambert's departure
cp pnr
Eustachian tube
stress
REM sleep
-----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
--------------------------------------

increase in flaps will cause v2 to increase, decrease or remain unchanged.

is max cruise thrust greater, lesser or equal to max continous thrust
how does change in altitude affect specific fuel consumption(sfc) - increase, decrease,
remains constant.
what is the best air:fuel ratio by weight for jet engines
at which point or region of a jet engine is the pressure at its highest
For a given aerofoil, the AOA which results in a stall:
(a) remains constant regardless of bank, load or TAS
(b) varies directly with the degree of bank
(c) varies with the speed of airflow around aerofoil
The stall speed of an aircraft will increase with:
(a) decrease in the load factor
(b) increase in the pitch attitude for straight and level
(c) increase in the all up weight of the aircraft
The three axis of an aircraft intersect at the:
(a) centre of pressure
(b) centre of gravity
(c) midpoint of the datum line
When approaching the stall, the separation point
(a) always stays in the same position
(b) moves rearward
(c) moves towards the transition point
The primary function of the rudder, while entering a turn from straight-and-level flight, is
to:
(a) overcome yaw caused by lowered aileron on higher wing
(b) overcome yaw caused by lowered aileron on lower wing
(c) overcome yaw caused by raised aileron on higher wing
An aircraft is in a state of equilibrium in:
(a) a steady rate 1 turn
(b) in a steady climb
(c) during take off
Adverse aileron yaw is reduced by the use of:
(a) vortex generators
(b) frise type ailerons
(c) boundary layer fences
Flying near high ground or mountains with winds in excess of 15km, you can expect strong
turbulence and
down draughts. What would you do to avoid damaging the aircraft and / or loosing control?
(a) maintain your heading and speed
(b) slow down to manoeuvring speed
(c) slow down to manoeuvring speed and fly upwind of ridge
On a cold, clear, humid night with a light wind, radiation fog will form. What might form
when the wind picks
up to 15kts?
(a) dew
(b) frost
(c) stratus
Which clouds are the least likely to produce airframe icing?
(a) middle cloud
(b) high cloud
(c) vertical development cloud
Nav-inst-radio
1.accuracy of DME
2.radio altimeter measures ??
a)true altitude
b)true height
c)2 more irrelevant opns..
{thr were 2 same ques}
3.if u r 210 NM away frm DME, y wont u get the indication?
4.on SSR whr is transponer nd interrogator?
5.VSI operates coz of difference in
a)static
b)dynamic
c)total
6.LSS in troposphere?
7.VSI blocked during descent
8.2 ques on acceleration/deceleration error
9.one ques on turning error
10. RIC ques
11.speed of sound depends on?
12.circumference of earth
13.circumference at 60N
14.ques to calculate radius of cone of confusion
15.if u travel at some speed on circumference of equator at some tym...hw much speed u
shud travel at 60
deg lat to travel at same tym.
speed at equator was given
16.
R/T ques
1.readability 5 means?
2.phrase monitor
3.phrase go ahead
4.some basic radio call
MET
1.height of high clouds
2.high clouds are
a.cirroform
b.cumuliform
two more optons i dnt rem
3.sfc temp +10 deg C dew point temp +15 deg C.. wt will b the base of cloud?(ans 2000
feet)
4.2 ques related to subsidence
lost comm
alot of CG ques
Vfe
rate of turn/radius of turn
1. Double white cross on runway means.
2. Aircraft overtaking the other means
a. Angle of 80 with Symmetry axis
b. Angle of 70 with symmetry axis
3. Transponder to be set to what mode and code during radio comm failure.
4. When passing through transition layer, what will u report – (when in altitude and
when in levels)
5. IFR obstacle clearances of normal areas and mountainous areas.
6. U want to do IFR flight in a controlled airspace, and don’t want advisory service, -
do u need to file flight plan etc.
7. In an un accelerated level flight, the weight of the aircraft acts through.
a. C.P
b. C.G ETC
8. The weight of an Aircraft on ground acts:
a. C.P
b. C.G.
9. If the total moments of the arms are positive, then the reference is:
a. Nose of A/C
b. Centerline of wheels.
10. Exchange of oxygen from blood to cells and co2 from cells to blood is known as:
a. Internal resperation.
b. External respiration
11. Lazzie farie effect is a result of:
a. Lack of communication
b. Inverstion of authority.
12. Anderson model
13. During IMC, which sense should one believe:
a. Visusal sense, to interpret the attitude indicator,
b. Seats of the pants sense.
c. Vestibular sense.
14. Couple of question relating to the 12*root*Flight level formula.
15. A question on VHF range.
16. VOR co-ordinates given. Variation at VOR given. A/C co-ordinates given and
variation at A/C given. On which radial is the aircraft.
17. Light gun signal or flashing green to a/c on ground.
18. Due to winds you have drifted away 3 NM to the left of course after 30 NM of 120
NM. Find correction angle to come back to track.
19. G.C A-B is 100. Lat is given. Find R.L A-B.
20. What is a compass swing done for.
21. Error between compass north and magnetic north is known as.
22. The magnetic pole goes around the true pole of the earth. How much time does
is take for one such going around.
23. Auditory nerve is connected to:
a. Cochlea
b. Semi-circular canals-
c. Oliths
d. Cortex.
24. Question on given METAR of VIDP.
25. Cold air flowing over warm land:
a. Cumulous, poor vis.
b. Stratiform, good visbility,
c. Stratiform , poor visibility.
26. Liters of blood pumped by heart in a min ? (72 bpm, 70ml per beat.)
27. Frequency of HF to be halved or doubled during night.

STARTING WITH GEN NAV :

PAYLOAD BASIC QUESTION ie, find out the payload with other details given dont really remember the entire
question with options. You guys gotta spare me on the lol.

nyway moving further

ON a lamaberts chart where is the convergecy correct , something on these lines . its there in keith williams i
believe.

DR nav u find the trk and gs rest all the details were given just have to use your cx2 .

again one more question similar find the crosswind component cx2 based question

that wat i cud recollect abt nav at the momnt

moving on to met

again not many questions here

validity of tafor

rime ice existiong temp range

microburst relatd

calculate oat at temperature at 33000 feet

thunderstorm related question cant remember

Regs

dangerous goods if u wanna carry in aircraft the permission has to be taken from whom?

dangerous good which annexure

search and rescue facilities info u would get from where ?

fuel requiremnets to carry for a jet engine trip fuel + altn aerod fuel+ holding fuel 30 mins

what is HJ? SUNSET TO SUNRISE OR SUNRISE TO SUNSET

Radio nav

intruding aircraft threat advisory symbol on tcas 2

gpws mode 3 wat is the warning and alert

efis altimetre indication whether on primary function display or navigation display.

How can you spot small or large water droplets on AWR by varing the freq or the range something on these lines.
Instruments

static port blocked on asi .

tas is constant in troposphere while climbing wat happens to mach.

mach number formula tas by lss

what is the function of AIR DATA COMPUTER

how is sat calculated.

PERFORMANCE(how i wish if this topic wouldnt be there)

flaps with higher setting when compared to flaps with lower setting what happens to climb limited mass.

same question as above what happens to climb performance ?

if v1 is increased what increases toda or tora or asda ?

VR shouldnot be less than? v1 and 1.05%vmca or 1.05%v1 and vmca?

what happens to vmca with increase in altitude ?

on a wet runway if v1 decreases what happen to the climb related mass?

which speed increases and which is the speed that decreases between MMO AND VLO ? THIS QUESTION WAS
BOUNCER?

principles of flight

spoiler where is located and how does it get extended ?

technical

what is called a stage in axial flow compressor?

one question based on constant speed propeller drive motor

function of turbine in a jet engine?

single spool gas turbine engine related question .

human performance

symptoms of stress.

how much sleep does the body need.

what is team spirit mean in cockpit ?

hypoxia symptom
4. When vectoring an aircraft to intercept the localizer course, the final vector
furnished shall be such as to enable the aircraft to intercept the localizer course at
an angle not greater than:
a) 30 degrees.
b) 25 degrees.
c) 15 degrees.
d) 20 degrees.

5. In a precision approach category I lighting system, the centre line and crossbar
lights shall be:
a) Fixed lights showing variable white.
b) Flashing lights showing variable white.
c) Fixed lights showing variable green.
d) Flashing lights showing variable green.

8. What does the abbreviation ""HJ"" mean?

a) Sunrise to sunset.
b) Sunset to sunrise.
c) No specific working hours.
d) Continuous day and night service.

12. An accumulator in a hydraulic system will :

a) store fluid under pressure.
b) increase pressure surges within the system.
c) reduce fluid temperature and pressure.
d) reduce fluid temperature only.

13. Cabin pressure is controlled by :

e) delivering a substantially constant flow of air into the cabin and controlling the
outflow.
a) controlling the flow of air into the cabin with a constant outflow.
b) the cabin air re-circulation system.
c) the cabin air mass flow control inlet valve(s).

OR

The cabin pressure is regulated by the:

f) Outflow valve.
g) Air cycle machine.
h) Air conditioning pack.
i) Cabin inlet airflow valve.

14. If the cabin altitude rises (aircraft in level flight), the differential pressure:
j) decreases
k) increases
l) remains constant
m) may exceed the maximum permitted differential unless immediate preventative action is
taken.

15. The function of a constant speed drive (CSD) in an AC generating system is to :

n) drive the generator at a constant speed.
o) vary generator rpm in order to compensate for various AC loads.
p) directly maintain a constant proportion between the rpm of an engine and a generator.
q) vary the engine rpm (within limits) to compensate for various AC loads.

16. On-board electrical systems are protected against faults of the following type:1. AC
generator over-voltage2. AC generator under-voltage3. over-current4. overspeed5.
under-frequency6. undue vibration of AC generatorsThe combination of
correct statements is :
r) 1,2,4,5
s) 1,2,4,6
t) 1,3,5,6
u) 2,3,4,5,6

17. In a single spool gas turbine engine, the compressor rpm is :

v) the same as turbine rpm.
w) independent of turbine rpm.
x) greater than turbine rpm.
y) less than turbine rpm.

18. A stage in an axial compressor:

z) is made of a rotor disc followed by a row of stator blades
aa) has a compression ratio in the order of 2.1
bb) is made of row of stator blades followed by a rotor disc
cc) has a compression ration in the order of 0.8
19. A ""hung start"" is the failure of an engine to accelerate to its normal idle speed. It
may be caused by:
dd) an attempt to ignite the fuel before the engine has been accelerated sufficiently
by the starter.
b) compressor surging.
c) the starter cutting out early in the starting sequence before the engine has accelerated to
the required rpm for ignition.
d)failure of the fuel to ignite in the starting sequence after the engine has been accelerated
to
the required rpm by the starter.

20. Using compressor bleed air to power systems:

ee) decreases aircraft performance
ff) has no influence on aircraft performance
gg) increases aircraft performance
hh) is limited to the phases of take-off and landing

For a turbine engine, the term self-sustaining speed relates to the speed at which
21. the engine :
ii) will run without any external assistance.
jj) is designed to idle after starting.
kk) operates most efficiently in the cruise..
ll) will enable the generators to supply bus-bar voltage.

22. In very cold weather, the pilot notices during startup, a slightly higher than normal
oil pressure.This higher pressure :
mm) is normal, if it decreases after startup.
nn) is abnormal and requires the engine to be shut down.
oo) is abnormal but does not require the engine to be shut down.
pp) requires an oil change.

23. A smoke mask is a :

qq) mask with flow on request and covers the whole face.
rr) continuous flow mask and covers the whole face.
ss) mask with flow on request and covers only the nose and the mouth.
tt) continuous flow mask and covers only the nose and the mouth.

24. A class A fire is a fire of:

uu) solid material, generally of organic nature
vv) liquid or liquefiable solid
ww) electrical origin
xx) metal or gas or chemical (special fires)

25. Carriage of dangerous goods is allowed, provided that:

a) the airline complies with the Technical Instructions
b) national aviation administration permission has been granted
c) government permission has been granted
d) no passenger is carried on the same flight

26. Dangerous goods annex - ???

27. If the static source to an airspeed indicator (ASI) becomes blocked during a
28. descent the instrument will:
a) over-read
b) read zero
c) continue to indicate the speed applicable to that at the time of the blockage
d) under-read

29. Considering the maximum operational Mach number (MMO) and the maximum
30. operational speed (VMO), the captain of a pressurized aircraft begins his descent
31. from a high flight level. In order to meet his scheduled time of arrival, he decides
32. to use the maximum ground speed at any time of the descent. He will be limited :
a) initially by the MMO, then by the VMO below a certain flight level
b) initially by theVMO, then by the MMO below a certain flight level
c) by the MMO
d) by the VMO in still air

33. At a constant Mach number, the calibrated air speed (CAS) :

a) decreases when the altitude increases
b) increases when the altitude increases
c) remains unchanged when the outside temperature increases
d) remains unchanged when the outside temperature decreases

34. An Air Data Computer (ADC) :

a) Transforms air data measurements into electric impulses driving servo motors in
instruments
b) Is an auxiliary system that provides altitude information in the event that the static
source
is blocked
c) Converts air data measurements given by ATC from the ground in order to provide
correct
altitude and speed information
d) Measures position error in the static system and transmits this information to ATC to
provide correct altitude reporting

35. An ""intruding traffic advisory"" is represented on the display system of the TCAS 2
(Traffic Collision Avoidance System) by displaying :
a) a yellow full circle.
b) a blue or white empty lozenge.
c) a blue or white full lozenge.
d) a red full square.

36. If an aircraft is flying (with flaps and landing gear retracted) in proximity to terrain
and its GPWS (Ground Proximity Warning System) get activated, because it is
detecting that the aeroplane has an excessive rate of descent, the system provides
the following aural warning signals :
a) ""SINK RATE, SINK RATE"" followed by ""WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP"" (twice)
b) ""DON'T SINK, DON'T SINK""
c) ""TERRAIN, TERRAIN"" followed by ""WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP"" (twice)
d) ""TOO LOW, TERRAIN"" (twice) followed by ""TOO LOW GEAR"" (twice)

OR

The Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) generates the following sound
signal or signals when the aircraft is sinking after a take-off or a go-around :
e) DON'T SINK repetitive only
f) WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP repetitive only
g) DON'T SINK always followed by WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP
h) DON'T SINK followed by WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP if the sink rate overshoots a second
level

37. Regarding Electronic Instrument System (EFIS) :1- the Navigation Display (ND)
displays Flight Director Bars.2- the altimeter setting is displayed on the PFD
(Primary Flight Display).3- the PFD is the main flying instrument.4- the FMA (Flight
Mode Annunciator) is part of the ND.The combination regrouping all the correct
statements is :
a) 2, 3.
b) 3, 4.
c) 1, 4.
d) 1, 2.

38. The airplane outside air temperature ""probe"" measures the :

a) ""total"" air temperature minus kinetic heating effects in order to obtain the
static temperature.
b) ""static"" air temperature minus kinetic heating effects in order to obtain the total
temperature.
c) ""total"" air temperature minus compressibility effects in order to obtain the static
temperature.
d) ""static"" air temperature minus compressibility effects in order to obtain the total
temperature.
39. The Mach number:
a) is the ratio between the TAS of the aeroplane and the local speed of sound.
b) is the ratio between the TAS of the aeroplane and the speed of sound at sea level.
c) is the ratio between the IAS of the aeroplane and the local speed of sound.
d) increases at a given TAS, when the temperature rises.

40. When V1 has to be reduced because of a wet runway the one engine out obstacle
clearance / climb performance:
a) decreases / remains constant.
b) increases / increases.
c) remains constant / remains constant.
d) decreases / decreases.

41. The most dangerous low level wind shears are encountered
a) when strong ground inversions are present and near thunderstorms
b) in areas with layered clouds and wind speeds higher than 35 kt
c) during any period when wind speed is greater than 35 kt and near valleys
d) near valleys and at the windward side of mountains.

42. What are the meteorological prerequisites, at low level, for thunderstorms formed
by lifting processes, over land?
a) High temperatures, high humidity.
b) High air pressure (> 1013 hPa), high temperatures.
c) Low temperatures, low humidity.
d) Subsidence, inversion.

43. Which of the following statements describes a microburst ?

a) A high speed downburst of air with a generally lower temperature than its
Surroundings
b) A high speed downdraft of air with a higher temperature than its surroundings
c) An extremely strong wind gust associated with a tropical revolving storm
d) A small low pressure system where the wind circulates at high speed

44. Under which conditions would you expect the heaviest clear ice accretion to occur
in a CB?
a) Between -2°C and -15°C
b) Between -20°C and -30°C
c) Close to the freezing level
d) Between -30°C and -40°C

45. At a certain position, the temperature on the 300 hPa chart is -48°C, according to the
tropopause chart, the tropopause is at FL 330. What is the most likely
temperature at FL 350 ?
a) -54°C.
b) -50°C.
c) -56,5°C.
d) -58°C.

Met
Find height of tropopause from charts
Lapse rate questions
A/C flying south in southern hemi with stbd drift, which pressure is it flying into?
What is pressure alt?
when are pressure alt n density alt same?

Human Performance
Stress
Rate of alcohol consumption in body
Middle and inner ear related questions
Eye questions including fovea and rods

Nav
Diagrams of AH and you have to identify the one with the given condition
Altimeter numerical
flying from A to B, speed 0.84M. Distance 300nm, you have to increase your ETA by 2min,
when will you decrease your speed? Previous ETA was given
Speed/Time problems
Gyro
Local time numerical

Tech
AOA questions

First few questions were of Air Regulation:

. Height and radius of VFR in congested Areas
. Fl to be flown in case of unlawful interference
. Fl to be flown, True Heading was given along with variation and deviation, but what flight,
VFR or IFR wasn't given.
. Steady green light when a/c is on ground
. Series of red lights when a/c is in flight
. Two questions were there on the radio failure in IFR.

Meteorology
. Conditions in front of Stationary Front
. Chart was given with Isobars and fronts along with TAF clearly showing features of cold
front, had identify the station

Human Performance
. Two questions on stress a
. What behavior is not good in team work
. Alcohol is filtered by which organ

Navigation
. What is the Chart length between 180E and 180W on same lat .
. Chart length was given on 59 lat, what is the chart length on some other lat
. Three Alternates were given with the course and the wind component, which alternate is
close in terms of time
. A to B distance was given and wind component, what is the total time between A to B and
then back to A.
. What is the GS and Heading, Course and Wind component were given
. QNH of ground is 1023 and elevation is 1500, how much you have to climb for FL 750
. In Mercator chart RL is a straight or curved line ?
. What is the Drift on **lat?
. What is the distance when an A/C descends 15000ft at the rate of 1500ft/min
. Radio Altimeter turns Analog to Circular at - a. below 1000ft, b. at or below 1000ft, c. at
DH.
. One Altimeter is calibrated for Inst./Pos. error and other 1 is not, what happens is IAS
changes
. Power of NDB is 100KW what is the range?

Technical
. Increase in altitude but Angle of Attack, mass and IAS remains same, what happens to the
Angle of Climb
. With Increase in altitude what happens to the TAS and Drag

time &rel velocities

hysterisis error
combination of what all site errors adf has
topple of DGI at pole
topple/wander of DGI at somewhere else on earth
where does the wing mounted compass send its signals..amplifier/dgi etc
1 question on taf with a miniature map asking you to identify the airport it applies to
CDMVT 2-3 q
bearing 2-3 q.. NDB bearing & qdm etc given
what does attitude indicator indicate after straight level flight 180 deg turn...
load factor in a turn
stall speed
stall angle
VMU
speed ...direction ....new latitude of place
Lambert's departure
cp pnr
Eustachian tube
stress
REM sleep

-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------
-------------------------------
Q1. When an altimeter is used for SSR it is always referenced to:
A) 1013.25 hPa
B) The pressure setting in use
C) QFE
D) QNH

Q2. If an aircraft is equipped with one altimeter which is compensated for position error and
another altimeter which is not, and all other factors being equal:
A) there will be no difference between them if air the data computer is functioning normally.
B) At high speed the non compensated altimeter will indicate a lower altitude.
C) at high speed, the non compensated altimeter will indicate a higher altitude.
D) ATC will get an erroneous altitude report SSR.

Q3. VLO is defined as:

A) Minimum possible speed that the aircraft could lift off the ground
B) The maximum speed for landing gear operation
C) The long range cruise speed
D) Actual speed that the aircraft lifts off the ground

Q4. The rate of climb:

A) Is the downhill component of the true airspeed
B) Is angle of climb times true airspeed
C) Is the horizontal component of the true airspeed
D) Is approximately climb gradient times true airspeed divided by 100

Q5.. For a single engine class B aeroplane, V2 may not be less than:
A) not applicable
B) 1.15Vs
C) 1.2Vs
D) 1.5Vs

Q6. Regarding take-off, the take-off decision speed V1:

A) Is always equal to VEF (Engine Failure speed)
B) Is an airspeed at which the aeroplane is airborne but below 35 ft and the pilot is
assumed to have made a decision to continue or discontinue the take-off
C) Is the airspeed of the aeroplane upon reaching 35 feet above the take-off surface
D) Is the airspeed on the ground at which the pilot is assumed to have made a decision to
continue or discontinue the take-off

Q7. The load factor in a turn in level flight with constant TAS depends on:
A) the radius of the turn and the weight of the aeroplane
B) the radius of the turn and the bank angle
C) the bank angle only
D) the true airspeed and the bank angle

Q8. Given the following:

True Course: 315°
Wind velocity: 230/40
TAS: 420 knots

What is the wind correction angle and the groundspeed? (WCA / GS)
A) -6° / 415
B) +6° / 425
C) +6° / 415
D) -6° / 425

Q9. How many feet you have to climb to reach FL 75?

Given:
Departure aerodrome elevation = 1500 ft
QNH = 1023 hPa
Temperature = ISA
1 hPa = 30 ft
A) 7800 ft
B) 6300 ft
C) 6600 ft
D) 6000 ft

Q10. The measured course 042° T

The variation in the area is 6° W and the wind is calm
The deviation is 4° W
In order to follow this course, the pilot must fly a compass heading of:
A) 044°
B) 058°
C) 040°
D) 052°

Q11. Linear acceleration can give a false impression of a:

A) climb.
B) turn.
C) descent.
D) spin.

Q12. Which of the following statements, if any, are correct?

Euphoria is a possible result of hypoxia
Euphoria can lead to degraded decisions in flight
A) Neither.
B) 1 & 2.
C) 1 only.
D) 2 only.

Q13. Clear ice is most often experienced, when the outside temperature is:
A) 0° to minus 20° C.
B) Minus 5° to minus 10° .
C) 0° to minus 5° C.
D) Minus 5° to plus 5°

Q14. FL 80, an OAT +06° C is measured. What will the temperature be at FL 130, if you
consider the temperature gradient of the Standard Atmosphere?
A) -6° C
B) 0° C
C) +2° C
D) -4° C

Q15. FL 160, an OAT -22° C is measured. What will the temperature be at FL 90, if you
consider the temperature gradient of the Standard Atmosphere?
A) -4° C
B) +4° C
C) 0° C
D) -8° C

Q16. An approximate equation for calculation conversion angle is:

A) CA=dlong x sin Lat. x sin Long.
B) CA=0,5 x dlat x sin Lat.
C) CA=(dlong-dlat) x 0,5.
D) CA=0,5 x dlong x sin lat.

Q17. Using an NDB it is possible to experience which of the following errors or limitations?
A) Night effect, station interference and latitude error.
B) Coastal refraction, timing error and lack of a failure warning system.
C) Coastal refraction, timing error and night effect.
D) Night effect, station interference and lack of a failure warning system.

Q18. On an EHSI display, wind velocity can be displayed in which of the following modes?
A) Map, Plan, Full ILS and Full VOR.
B) Expanded ILS, Expanded VOR, Plan and Full ILS.
C) Plan, Full ILS, Expanded VOR and Full VOR.
D) Map, Expanded ILS, Full ILS and Full VOR.

Q19. Radio altitude is shown on the EADI and changes from a digital display to a circular
scale:
A) below 1000 ft AGL.
B) at 1000 ft and below AGL.
C) at 2500 ft.
D) at DH.

Q20. If the needle and the ball of a Turn & Slip indicator both show left, what does it
indicate:
A) turn to left & too much bank.
B) turn to right & too little bank.
C) turn to left & too little bank.
D) turn to right & too much bank.

Q21. Following 180° stabilized turn with a constant attitude and bank, the artificial horizon
indicates:
A) too high pitch up and too high banking.
B) attitude and banking correct.
C) too high pitch-up and correct banking.
D) too high pitch-up and too low banking.

Q22. The speed VLO is defined as:

A) the speed at which the aircraft leaves the ground, not more than V2 and not less than VR
B) the maximum speed for extending or retracting the landing gear
C) the minimum speed in the landing configuration with one engine inoperative at which it is
possible to maintain control of the aeroplane within defined limits whilst applying varying
power
D) the stall speed in the landing configuration

Q23. Any acceleration in climb, with a constant power setting:

A) decreases the rate of climb and the angle of climb
B) improves the rate of climb if the airspeed is below VY
C) improves the climb gradient if the airspeed is below VX
D) decreases rate of climb and increase angle of climb

Q24. Given true track 352° , variation 11° W, deviation -5° and drift 10° S the required
compass heading isSIMILAR)
A) 347°
B) 005°
C) 358°
D) 018°

Q24. What is the advantage of the remote indicating compass (slaved gyro compass) over
the direct reading magnetic compass?
A) It senses the earths magnetic field rather than seeks it, so is more sensitive.
B) It is connected to a source of electrical power and so is more accurate.
C) It is lighter.
D) It is not affected by aircraft deviation.
Q25. From position A (04° N 030° W) an aircraft flies 600 NM due south, then 600 NM due
east, the 600 NM due north, then 600 NM due west. What is the aircrafts final position in
relation to A?
A) Overhead A.
B) Due east of A.
C) Due west of A.
D) Due south of A.

Q26. On the 27th of February, at 52° S and 040° E, the sunrise is at 0243 UTC. On the
same day, at 52° S and 035° W, the sunrise is at: (SIMILAR)
A) 0243 UTC.
B) 0523 UTC.
C) 0743 UTC.
D) 2143 UTC.

Q27. The great circle track X - Y measured at x is 319° , and Y 325° Consider the following
statementsSIMILAR)
A) Northern hemisphere, Rhumb line track is 322° .
B) Northern hemisphere, Rhumb line track is 313° .
C) Southern hemisphere, Rhumb line track is 331° .
D) Southern hemisphere, Rhumb line track is 322° .

Q28. On a typical computer generated SSR display the following data on a particular flight
will be shown:
A) Squawk code, Flight level , True heading, Airplane callsign.
B) Destination, Flight level , Ground speed, Airplane callsign.
C) Squawk code, Magnetic heading , Ground speed, Airplane callsign.
D) Squawk code, Flight level , Ground speed, Airplane callsign.

Q29. A DME transponder does not respond to pulses received from radars other than DME
because:
A) DME only responds to the strongest 100 interrogators.
B) DME transmits and receives on different frequencies.
C) it will only accept the unique twin DME pulses.
D) each aircraft transmits pulses at a random rate.

Q30. An aircraft DME interrogator transmits pair of pulses for limited periods at switch on.
The transmission pattern is: (similar)
A) 15000 pps for 100 seconds, thereafter 60 pps until lock on, then 27 pps.
B) 270 pps for 100 seconds, thereafter 150 pps until lock on, then 25-30 pps.
C) 27000 pps for 100 seconds, thereafter 60 pps until lock on, then 30 pps.
D) 150 pps for 100 seconds, thereafter 60 pps until lock on, then 27 pps.

Q31. An aircraft heading 325° (M) has an ADF reading of 330° Relative. The heading to
steer to intercept the 280° track inbound to the NDB at 50° is:
A) 340(M)
B) 330(M)
C) 310(M)
D) 320(M)

Q32. The maximum VHF range when flying at FL100 would beSIMILAR)
A) 120 nm
B) 100 nm
C) 85 nm
D) 12 nm

Q33. An aircraft on an IFR flight in VMC experiences radio communication failure. The
aircraft is assumed to:
A) Land at the destination aerodrome.
B) Return to the aerodrome of departure.
C) Land at the nearest suitable aerodrome.
D) Land at the alternate aerodrome.

Q34. The procedure for an aircraft that suffers communications failure during an IFR flight in
visual met conditions, should:
A) Proceed direct to its destination.
B) Maintain at last cleared level and speed for 20 minutes and then continue in accordance
with the flight plan.
C) Carry out instrument approach at the nearest airfield.
D) Land at the nearest suitable airfield.

Q35. An aircraft encountering radio communication failure on an IFR flight in VMC is

assumed to:
A) Continue the flight to destination aerodrome in any case.
B) Leave controlled airspace and continue the flight within uncontrolled airspace.
C) Squawk IDENT and proceed to the alternate aerodrome.
D) Continue to fly in VMC, land at the nearest suitable aerodrome, report its arrival.

Q36. Q.When acknowledging mode and code, pilot needs to:

a. Acknowledge code only
b. Acknowledge both code and mode

Q37. Q. What does series of green flashes indicate when on ground?

Q38. Q.Lift and drag depend on

a. Pressure distribution of wing aerofoil section
b. cambered airfoil

Q39. While turning the aircraft the pilot moves his/her head. What effect might the pilot be
exposed to.
a) Coriolis Force

Q40. Decompression is caused by:

c) Nitrogen coming out of solution

Q41. The Retina

b) Receives light, through electrical reactions, converts it into electrical signals.

Q42. Hyperventilation is likely to occur as a result of:

B) the body attempting to compensate for a drop in partial oxygen pressure.

Q43. Generally a healthy person can compensate for the lack of oxygen with altitude upto:
10,000-12,000 feet.

Q44. Which gas diffuses from the blood to the lungs during external respiration?
Carbon Dioxide

Q45. Which illusion does linear acceleration cause?

Climbing

46. 100% Oxygen without direct pressure onto the face can be used up to:
40,000 feet

Q47. When being affected by Flicker Effect, the pilot should

Turn off the strobe lights

Q49. With pulse rate of 72 beats a minute and a stroke volume of 70ml. what is the cardiac
output.
5 litres a minute

Q50. A person suffering from Glaucoma will have

Increased pressure of the eye

Q51. Decompression sickness symptoms can occur

Following loss of cabin pressure at altitudes higher than 18,000 feet

Q52. The effect of carbon monoxide: Increases with altitude

Q53. Clear Ice forms at temp: Near Freezing

Q54. A passenger complains of an inflated stomach at 8,000 feet. What action would you
advised the passenger to take:

1. Unbuckle the seat belt and rub the stomach.

2. Avoid eating foods with fermentation qualities and or carbonated drinks.
3. Stand up and expel gases from the intestine.
4. Drink large amounts of water.
1,2,3 is correct 4 is false.

Q55. The metabolism of alcohol is affected by time

Q56.Hyperventilation can after a long period of time lead to unconsciousness due to.
low partial pressure of oxygen to the brain

Q57. The time of useful consciousness (TUC) following loss of cabin pressurization at 35,000
feet is. 30-60sec

Q58Under normal conditions which gas diffuses from the blood to the alveoli.
Carbon dioxide

Q59. Should a pilot fly with a bad cold he/she could suffer from: Sinus Pain

Q60. Above what height night vision can start to reduce?

5,000 feet

Q61. You suffer pain in an ear on a descent should you:

Level off and, if necessary climb to the level where it first occurred.
Q62. Q. An aircraft is flying over sea.FL 100.True altitude 10000ft.local QNH 1003. What
can you say about the airmass over which the aircraft is flying:
a. It is warmer than ISA
b. It is colder than ISA
c. Its average temperature is same as that of ISA
d.The information is not sufficient

Q63. Q.What kind of precipitation is from clouds found in middle latitudes:

a. Drizzle
b.Hail
c. Heavy rain with large droplets
d. Medium rain with large droplets

Q64. Q.What does series of red flashes from ATC mean for aircraft in flight?
airport unsafe to land

Q65. Q.When excessive carbon dioxide has been removed , the blood
a. becomes alkaline attaching more oxygen to haemoglobin at lungs
b. becomes acidic

Q66. Eustachian tube is to:

a. equalise pressue between middle ear and external atmosphere
b. equalise pressure between sinuses and external atmosphere

Q67. Apparent wander at 45 degrees north

Q68. Rhumb line on direct Mercator:

a. Straight line
b. Convex to nearer pole

Q69. Arousal:
a. Body preparedness for a difficult task
b.High level of arousal means high vigilance
c. All of the above

Q70.Time taken for body to adjust to circadian rhythm if flight time exceeds 24 hrs:IS 1-1.5
HR TIME CHANGE THEN 1 DAY
a. 1-1.5 hrs per day

Q. True track 358 Var 4 deg east. Flight level chosen will be:
a. FL 75
b. FL 80
c. FL 65
d. FL 70

Q71. Initial phase of lock on Aircraft to DME, the Aircraft's transmits at what pulses.
Q. In fever below 35 deg C.
a) mental disorders, coma
b) shivering tends to cease, apathy

Q72. Hysteresis error of altimeter is due to.

Q. In an unaccelerated flight weight =
Q. At 18,000 partial oxygen pressure is 1/2 of what at Sea level. what statement justifies it.
a) Oxygen 1/2 of what it is at sea level
b) blood is 50% saturated with oxygen

Q73. What is random error, choose from the following example.

a) A shooter mistakenly shoots from the gun
b) A shooter shoots 1 in away from the target
c) Pilot put wrong info in the FMS
d)

Q74. Movement of air masses in the warm front.

Q. Heading indicator will stop rotating in the vertical plane at.
A) Equator
b) 45deg Lat
c) 30deg Lat
d) Poles

Q75. At medium lat Coriolis force experienced:

a) 7.5deg to right
b) 15deg to left
c) 7.5 deg to the left
d) 10.5 deg to the right

Q76. Range of NDB at 10 kw

a) 500nm
b) 100nm
c) 1000nm
d) 50nm

Few more

increase in flaps will cause v2 to increase, decrease or remain unchanged.

is max cruise thrust greater, lesser or equal to max continous thrust

how does change in altitude affect specific fuel consumption(sfc) - increase, decrease,
remains constant.

what is the best air:fuel ratio by weight for jet engines

at which point or region of a jet engine is the pressure at its highest

For a given aerofoil, the AOA which results in a stall:

(a) remains constant regardless of bank, load or TAS
(b) varies directly with the degree of bank
(c) varies with the speed of airflow around aerofoil

The stall speed of an aircraft will increase with:

(a) decrease in the load factor
(b) increase in the pitch attitude for straight and level
(c) increase in the all up weight of the aircraft

The three axis of an aircraft intersect at the:

(a) centre of pressure
(b) centre of gravity
(c) midpoint of the datum line

When approaching the stall, the separation point

(a) always stays in the same position
(b) moves rearward
(c) moves towards the transition point

The primary function of the rudder, while entering a turn from straight-and-level flight, is
to:
(a) overcome yaw caused by lowered aileron on higher wing
(b) overcome yaw caused by lowered aileron on lower wing
(c) overcome yaw caused by raised aileron on higher wing

An aircraft is in a state of equilibrium in:

(a) a steady rate 1 turn
(b) in a steady climb
(c) during take off

Adverse aileron yaw is reduced by the use of:

(a) vortex generators
(b) frise type ailerons
(c) boundary layer fences

Flying near high ground or mountains with winds in excess of 15km, you can expect strong
turbulence and down draughts. What would you do to avoid damaging the aircraft and / or
loosing control?
(a) maintain your heading and speed
(b) slow down to manoeuvring speed
(c) slow down to manoeuvring speed and fly upwind of ridge

On a cold, clear, humid night with a light wind, radiation fog will form. What might form
when the wind picks up to 15kts?
(a) dew
(b) frost
(c) stratus

Which clouds are the least likely to produce airframe icing?

(a) middle cloud
(b) high cloud
(c) vertical development cloud
-------------------------------------------------------------------------- [/QUOTE]

Frangible = brakeable (easily broken) How does leading and trailing edge flaps affect critical
angle of attack ? Why is Vmcg determined with nosewheel steering disconnected ?? The lift
coefficient (CL) of an aeroplane in steady horizontal flight is 0.42. An increase in angle of attack
of 1 degree increases CL by 0.1. A vertical up gust instantly changes the angle of attack by 3
degrees. The load factor will be: 1.71 1.49 2.49 0.74 Q-An aeroplane performs a steady
horizontal turn with a TAS of 200 kt. The turn radius is 2000 m. The load factor (n) is
approximately: a)1.1 b)1.4 c)1.8 d)2.0 What are the basic elements transmitted by
NAVSTAR/GPS satellites? offset of the satellite clock from GMT i ephemeris data ii health data
iii ionospheric delays iv solar activity A) i, ii, iv B) ii, iii, iv C) i, ii, iii, iv, v D) i, ii, iii Two
identical turbojet aeroplanes (whose specific fuel consumption is assumed to be constant) are in a
holding pattern at the same altitude. The mass of the first one is 95 000 kg and its hourly fuel
consumption is equal to 3100 kg/h. Since the mass of the second one is 105 000 kg, its hourly
fuel consumption is: A) 3787 kg/h B) 3426 kg/h C) 3259 kg/h (Mark scheme answer) D) 3602
kg/h

Regulations: 1.What does a red flare in the air mean? Ans:Not withstanding previous instructions
do not land. 2.Visibilty,cloud minimas for VFR as well as IFR? 3.Flashing green on ground?
Ans:Continue/Clear to taxi. 4.A simple question on the semicircular system...ur heading was
given so find the FL at which u can fly/ 5.Transponder codes for radio failure and unlawful
interferance. and a couple of other easy questions on regs. Human Factors: 1.Three layers of eye?
Probable ans:Iris,Cornea and Pupil remaining all questions were from oxford human
performance book.(around 10 of them) Principles Of flight: 1.Relation between lift and drag wrt
to aoa?? 2.Relation between lift and weight in unaccelarated climb? 3.A question on load factor.
(in a turn) 4.relation between v1,vmc,vr,v2(this is a performance question but this was the only
question from performance) 1.QNH of aerodrome-1003...elevation 1500feet...u have to climb to
FL75..so how much are u actually climbing.(just remember FLis always at 1013.25) Basic
questions on Dme range and frequency(U r 750 nm from station at night what frequency should
u use??(I think the lowest in the MF band should be the answer) 1) Squak for radio failure. 2)
DME slant range is 12 nm, a/c absolute altitude 9000msl, DME stn height x msl, what is the
error is measured slant range 3) If there is misunderstanding due to “uncommon language” b/w
controller and pilot what instruction will be issued for the a/c to make him land 4) Vitamin A
causes loss of night vision due to ? 5) Some echoes are received 30 deg left of a/c track, Mag
heading of a/c is 020 (M), variation, drift provided. Plot true bearing of the echoes? 6)
Divergence Is associated with? 7) One metar ques asking , formation of due at night will be most
profound in which case? 8) Unlawful interference, squak code? 9) Red flares shot from tower
means ? 10) Tower shoots flashing red light, what does it mean ? 11) Anti-collision light should
be ON during ? 12) One performance ques asking relation b/w V1,Vmu,Vmca ? 13) During
descend pilot will descend on Mach no or CAS ? 14) Relation b/w TAS and IAS as you climb or
descend? 15) Standard atmosphere is defined by (couple of options given) 16) Yaw Dampers are
used for ? 17) Occluded front is formed when ? 18) Night vision is affected when ? 19) Stall
speed given and a/c wt 6850 lbs what will be the stall speed when a/c wt is 5000? 20) Effect of
camber in longitudinal stability? 21) Effect on landing distance when a/c is on ground effect? 22)
You deploy flaps when coming in to land, this behavior results from which type of knowledge
(options : skill based, rule based, knowledge based, pressure based)? 23) Stereoscopic vision is?
24) Lassaire-fair cockpit ? 25) What is white out? 26) One on “seat of pants” when in IMC? 27)
Illusion created by linear acceleration in IMC condition? 28) Function of semi-circular canals in
ear ? 29) Pilot decided to divert from his route 30) Static stability leads to… (couple of options
related to positive, negative, static dynamic stability) 31) Scale in lambert conical, contracts b/w
std parallel and expands outwards from it. 32) Latent mistake causes (options given) 33) REM
sleep relaxes _____ and slow wave sleep relaxes _____? 34) Effect of camber on longitudinal
stability? 35) A pilot is going from A to B, at some point P he decides to divert . he has three
options C,D,E. (distance to C,D,E and HW/TW component was provided) find the destination
which takes least time. TAS also given. 36) Pilot goes from A to B and back. TAS is 360 kts and
HW is 60 kts. Find the time? 37) NDB allotted freq is? 38) Some freq was given and ques asked
which cat will it fall in(VLF,LF,MF,VHF…)?

1 what happens to lift and drag(separate ques) as a plane climbs at const ias 2 a/c cruising at .84
mach at some altitue with time of departure and time of arrival given.it is required to delay its eta
by 2 mins. when should it reduce its speed. (NOTE: the reduced speed is not given) 3 2 questions
regarding intercepting and intercepted a/c 4 1 ques on rem sleep 5 astigmatism is? 6 stress is .... 4
options were given 7 an a/c is flying at a range of 750 nm on 320 fL which frequency should be
used during night for r/t vhf,hf,mf,lf 8 to calculate range of transmission signal when height of
a/c and that of antennae is given 9 simple ques to calculate g/s and wca using cx2 10 coldest air
in a cold front is where? 11 principle of vor 12 principle and frequency band of ssr 13 3 ques
asking the squawk code 7500,7600,7700 14 when cold front moves what happens to the stability
of air ahead 15 what is vso 16 what is vlo 3) what does a red flare indicate to an a/c -squawk
code Mode A for radio faliure -green flashes from light signals to an a/c on the ground -if
equipped with transponder facility, when should it be used? -Transponder code '2000' Mode A is
for ....... -clearance of the a/c above hilly terrain, congested area(along with the radius) -clearance
from clouds in class B airspace, abv 10,000MSL -DME working rinciple qstns -Meterology:
TAFs, fronts, cloud types(shapes) -rate of turn, load factor qstns -1sm= ....... ' -NAVIGATION
PROBLEMS: mach no., departure, CDMVT, Track-Hdg-drift, S=D/T, freq-wavelength
numerics, scale, temp deviation, VOR indicator, line of sight range -how does a RL appear on a
direct mercator chart?(staright line) -gyro errors, pitot-drain hole blockage -TCAS
principle(transponders) -radio altimeter(system error) -avg. height/temp of tropopause in
summer/winter -a while dumbell indicates ......... -right of way -Human Factors (in depth,as
usual) -formation of hill fog -lapse rate, density altitude, pressure altitude -turning errors,
altimeter errors -correlation betn Vs,V1,V2,Vmc,Vlof,Vr,Vmu(< > =) -what is the overall
appearance of the a/c when the speed is reduced, and the altitude maintained -factors affecting
stall speed increase/decrease -CL can be increased by.... (flaps and angle of attack) -lift-weight
relation in an unaccelerated climb __________________________________ 4) If aircraft
stalling speed is 74 kts, gross weight 6500 kg,what is the stalling speed with gross weigth
5000kg? A)57 B)67 6)74 D)91
some questions which i can recall1. What kind of illusion pilot goes under when a/c is in bank
and pilot tries to pick up a pen frm ground 2.What kind of flaps are at rear of wing 3. question on
v speeds....V1 Vmc V2 Vr etc. 4. If radio failure in IFR in VMC what will u do a. continue in
VMC n land at most suitable aerodrome n inform ATC b. fly accd to flight plan and select
7600A on transponder c. ???? d. ????? 5. Series of green flashes 6. Very simple quest on PET 7.
2 questions on true heading variation magnetic correction!! 8. what type of clouds are NS ST
AS ...a. convection b.Radiation c. sinking d.????? 9. Height and type of high clouds 10 Height
and temp at tropopause over poles n equator 11. Questn on fohn winds 12. signal of adf is
vertically/horizontally polarised to avoid diffraction/refraction/attenuation 13 Range and power
of locator beacon 14. What is centre of pressure 15. Min length of clearway 16. Day Blind spot is
due to a.lack of rods n cones on fovea b.overexposure to light on fovea c.lack of rods and cones
on iris d.lack of rods and cones on optic nerve 17.First step by crew when decompression
happens....dont rem the options 18. DME and VOR co-located when they r ........ meters apart 19.
4 quest on GPS,D-GPS 20. sum 3-4 basic questions on pitot static instruments 21. Total pressure
= a. static +dynamic b. static -dynamic ....c ??? d ??? lt 22. Height of base of clouds 23. how
does GC appear on polar stereographic chart 24.a pressure chart was given....v had to analyse 25.
2 questions on radiation fog (how they r formed and dissipates) 26. what of the followin r
experience by student pilot a.nervousness b.hardness of controls c.sickness n loss of sleep d...???
27. what r symptoms of hypoxia 28. what is autokinetic illusion 29. what is cocktail party
effect :ugh: 30. rad alt 31. Mercator scale......length represents a distance of 90 miles at 45
degrees north.....same length represents x at 30 degrees....find x 32. Flying @ FL 22000 decent to
4000 Ft. G/S 150 kts. what will be the ROD? 33.. Mode C transponder can be operated in : A.
Control airspace B. Uncontrolled airspace and to be turned on when ATC instructs c. Should be
on at all times while flying d. Should be on at all times while flying, but can be asked by the
ATC to shut down. 34. Calculate range of 2 VOR's
Ques: Aircraft flying at 6000' enters cone of confusion.wht is the diameter of the cone in (nm)
Ans : VOR Cone of confusion radius cone of confusion = alt (in nm) x tan 50 6000'/6080'=0.98
nm 0.98 x tan 50 = 1.16 nm so diameter = 1.16 x 2 = 2.3 nm TAN 0 =
PERPENDICULAR/BASE Angle is 50 degrees Base is the altitude of a/c Perpendicular is the
radius of cone of confusion I need help regarding solving of these questions,i am not able to get
the concept to solve these meteorology problem,i would really appreciate if some one could help
me out in these concepts Q1. MSA given as 12000ft, flying over mountains in temperatures +9*c
,QNH set as 1023.what will the true altitude when 12000 ft is reached? a. 11,940 b. 11,148 c.
12,210 D. 12,864 ANS -D{..........how plz explain.....} Q2.Flying at FL135above the sea, the
Radio altimeter indicates a true altitude of 13500ft. the local QNH is 1019hpa.hence the crossed
air mass is on average, a. At ISAstandard atmospher b. Colder than ISA C. Warmer than ISA D.
There is insufficient information ANS-B{...why plz explain...} Q3. You are flying at FL160 with
an OAT OF -27*C.QNH is 1003 hpa. what is your true altitude? a.15540 ft b.15090 ft c.16330 ft
d.15730 ft ANS-B{.....how plz explain.....} Q4. What is approximate vertical interval which is
equal to a pressure change of 1hpa at an altitude of 5500m? a. 8m{27ft} b. 32m{105ft} c.
64m{210ft} d. 15m{50ft} ANS-D{....how plz explain...}