c) TANGO / FL280 N0350

d) TANGO / KT350 F280

33.6.1.7 (2516)
On a ATC flight plan, to indicate that you will overfly the way-point ROMEO at 120
kt at flight level 085, you will write :
a) ROMEO / N0120 F085
b) ROMEO / K0120 FL085
c) ROMEO / FL085 N0120
d) ROMEO / F085 N0120

33.7.1.1 (2517)
To carry out a VFR flight to an off-shore platform, the minimum fuel quantity on
board is:
a) identical to that defined for VFR flights over land
b) at least equal to that defined for IFR flights
c) that defined for VFR flights over land increased by 5 %
d) that defined for VFR flights over land increased by 10 %

33.7.1.1 (2518)
For a flight to an off-shore platform, an alternate aerodrome is compulsory, except
if :1 - flight duration does not exceed two hours2 - during the period from two
hours before to two hours after the estimated landing time, the forecast conditions
of ceiling and visibility are not less than one and a half times the applicable
minima3 - the platform is available and no other flight either from or to the
platform is expected between the estimated time of departure and one half hour
after the estimated landing timeThe combination which regroups all of the correct
statements is :
a) 2001-02-03
b) 02-Jan
c) 1 - 3
d) 2 - 3

33.7.1.2 (2519)
A helicopter is on a 150 NM leg to an off-shore oil rig. Its TAS is 130 kt with a 20 kt
tailwind, its endurance is 3h30min without reserve. Upon reaching destination, it is
asked to proceed outbound to locate a ship in distress, on a track which gives a 15
kt tailwind. Maintaining zero reserve on return to the oil rig, the helicopter can fly
outbound for distance of:
a) 160.3 NM
b) 224.5 NM
c) 158.6 NM
d) 222.1 NM

40.1.1.1 (2520)
Concerning the relation between performance and stress, which of the following
statement(s) is (are) correct?
a) A moderate level of stress may improve performance.
b) A student will learn faster and better under severe stress.
c) Domestic stress will not affect the pilot's performance because he is able to leave this type
of stress on the ground. 429
d) A well trained pilot is able to eleminate any kind of stress completely when he is scheduled
to fly.

40.1.1.1 (2521)
Stress is a frequent aspect of the pilot's job. Under which of the following
circumstances does it occur?1. Stress occurs whenever the pilot must revise his
plan of action and does not immediately have a solution2. Stress occurs with
unexperienced pilots when the situational demands exceed their individual
capabilities3. Stress occurs if a pilot is convinced that he will not be able to find a
solution for the problem he just is confronted with
a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
b) Only 1 is false
c) 1 and 2 are correct, 3 is false
d) 1 is correct, 2 and 3 are false

40.1.1.1 (2522)
Divided attention is the ability :1. to execute several mental activities at almost the
same time (i.e. when switching attention from outside the aircraft to the airspeed
indicator on the instrument panel)2. to monitor the progress of a motor
programme (i.e. flying or taxiing the airplane) on a relatively subconscious level,
while making a radio call at the same time (requiring a rather conscious level)3 .to
select information and check if it is relevant to the task in hand. At the same time
no other operation can be performed.4. to delegate tasks to the copilot while
concentrating on the procedures
a) 1 and 2 are correct, 3 and 4 are false
b) 1,2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
c) 1 and 3 are correct, 2 and 4 are false
d) Only 3 is false

40.1.1.1 (2523)
The physiology of stress is now well known:
a) stress promotes an increase in physical strength rather than promoting mental
oerformance
b) the only stress hormone is adrenaline
c) stress develops in 2 stages: sublimation of performance and then acceleration of heart rate
and increase in vision
d) stress slows down the production of sugar by the organism and thereby slows down the
heart rate

40.1.1.1 (2524)
An overstressed pilot may show the following symptoms:1. mental blocks,
confusion and channelized attention2. resignation, frustration, rage3. deterioration
in motor coordination4. high pitch voice and fast speaking
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
c) 1 and 2 are correct, 3 and 4 are false
d) 1and 3 are correct, 2 and 4 are false

40.1.1.2 (2525)
In the initial phase of flight training the relationship between confidence and
expertise can be described as: 430
a) the pilot is competent enough to fly the aircraft at this stage, but does neither
have a great deal of confidence in his/her abilities nor in the whole system
b) the pilot is sufficiently competent to fly and knows at this stage what he can and cannot do
c) during this learning stage, the pilot is very near to achieving full potential knowledge of the
machine
d) the pilot has a sphere of expertise wich is reduced to daily use of his skills

40.1.1.2 (2526)
A pilot is skilled when he :-1 : trains or practises regularly-2 : knows how to
manage himself/herself-3 : possesses all the knowledge associated with his
aircraft-4 : knows how to keep resources in reserve for coping with the unexpected
a) 1,2,4
b) 1,2,3,4
c) 1,2
d) 2, 3,4

40.1.2.0 (2527)
The rate of accidents in commercial aviation (excluding sabotage and acts of
terrorism) :
a) is approximatively 1 accident per million airport movements
b) has improved considerably over the last fifteen years
c) is a long way short of the safety level of road transport
d) represents about fifty accidents around the world every year

40.1.2.0 (2528)
As a cause of accidents, the human factor
a) is cited in approximately 70 - 80 % of aviation accidents
b) has increased considerably since 1980 - the percentage of accident in which this factor has
been involved has more than tripled since this date
c) which is cited in current statistics, applies to the flight crew and ATC only
d) plays a negligible role in commercial aviation accidents. It is much more important in
general aviation

40.1.2.0 (2529)
What airplane equipment marked a subtantial decrease in hull loss rates in the
eighties?
a) GPWS
b) DME
c) SSR
d) TCAS

40.1.2.0 (2530)
In civil air transport, linear accelerations (Gx):- 1 : do not exist- 2 : have slight
physiological consequences- 3 : may, in the case of pull-out, lead to loss of
consciousness- 4 : cause sensory illusions on the pitch axis
a) 2,4
b) 1
c) 3,4
d) 3

431
40.1.3.0 (2531)
Thinking on human reliability is changing.
a) Human errors are now considered as being inherent to the cognitive function of
human and are generally inescapable
b) Human errors can be avoided. All it takes is to be vigilant and to extend one's knowledge
c) The individual view of safety has gradually replaced the systemic view of safety
d) It is thought that it will be possible to eliminate errors in the near future

40.1.3.0 (2532)
Between which components is an interface mismatch causing an error of
interpretation by using an old three-point altimeter?
a) Liveware - Hardware
b) Liveware - Software
c) Liveware - Environment
d) Liveware - Liveware

40.1.3.0 (2533)
Between which components is an interface mismatch responsible for deficiencies
in conceptual aspects of warning systems?
a) Liveware - Software
b) Liveware - Hardware
c) Liveware - Environment
d) Liveware - Liveware

40.1.3.0 (2534)
Between which components is an interface mismatch causing disturbance of the
biological rhythm, thus leading to reduced human peformance?
a) Liveware - Environment
b) Liveware - Hardware
c) Liveware - Software
d) Liveware - Liveware

40.1.3.0 (2535)
The errors resulting from an irrational indexing system in an operations manual
are related to an interface mismatch between
a) Liveware - Software
b) Liveware - Hardware
c) Liveware - Environment
d) Liveware - Liveware

40.2.1.0 (2536)
Man possesses a system for maintaining his internal equilibrium in the face of
variations brought about by external stimulations.This internal equilibrium is
called :
a) Homeostasis
b) Heterostasis
c) Isothermy
d) Metastasis

40.2.1.1 (2537)
The earth's atmosphere consists of different gases in various concentration. Match
432
the following:1 nitrogen A 0,03%2 oxygen B 0,92%3 carbon dioxide C 20.95%4
rare gas D 78,10%
a) 1D, 2C, 3A, 4B
b) 1B, 2A, 3D, 4C
c) 1C, 2B, 3A, 4D
d) 1D, 2C, 3B, 4A

40.2.1.1 (2538)
Gases of physiological importance to man are:
a) oxygen and carbon dioxide
b) nitrogen and carbon dioxide
c) oxygen and carbon monoxide
d) oxygen, nitrogen and water vapor

40.2.1.1 (2539)
The volume percentage of oxygen in the atmosphere is 21% which
a) is constant for all altitudes conventional airplanes can reach
b) decreases with increasing altitude
c) increases with increasing altitude
d) is dependent on the present air pressure

40.2.1.1 (2540)
The following applies for the physical properties of gases:
a) at sea-level a gas has 1/3 of the volume it would have at 27000 ft
b) at an altitude of 18 000 ft a gas volume is three times as large as it would be at sea-level
c) a water vapor saturated gas at 34 000 ft has 6 times its volume as it would have at sea-
level
d) at an altitute of 63 000 ft water will boil at temperature of 65°C

40.2.1.1 (2541)
The percentage of oxygen in the air at an altitude of approximately 34 000 ft is :
a) 21%
b) 5%
c) 10,50%
d) 42%

40.2.1.1 (2542)
The atmospheric gas pressure
a) drops faster at lower altitudes in comparison to the same altitude changes at
higher altitudes
b) rises with altitude
c) decreases linear with altitude
d) decreases slower at lower altitudes compared with higher levels and equivalent altitude
changes

40.2.1.1 (2543)
A certain amount of water vapor saturated air (i.e. intestinal gases) is transported
from sea-level up to 34 000 ft. In the same amount of dry air, the volume of this
gas is :
a) larger
433
b) smaller
c) constant
d) first larger, then smaller

40.2.1.1 (2544)
You can survive at any altitude, provided that
a) enough oxygen, pressure and heat is available
b) 21% oxygen is available in the air you breath in
c) pressure respiration is guaranteed for that altitude
d) the temperature in the cabin does not drop below 10"" C

40.2.1.1 (2545)
Fatigue and permanent concentration
a) lower the tolerance to hypoxia
b) increase the tolerance to hypoxia
c) do not affect hypoxia at all
d) will increase the tolerance to hypoxia when flying below 15 000 feet

40.2.1.1 (2546)
The atmosphere contains the following gases:
a) 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 0,03% carbon dioxide, rest: rare gases
b) 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 1% carbon monoxide, rest: rare gases
c) 78% helium, 21% oxygen, 1% carbon monoxide, rest: rare gases
d) 78% helium, 21% oxygen, 0,03% carbon dioxide, rest: rare gases

40.2.1.1 (2547)
An increase in the amount of carbon dioxide in the blood leads to:
a) shortness of breath
b) a decrease of acidity in the blood
c) a reduction of red blood cells
d) an improving resistance to hypoxia

40.2.1.1 (2548)
The total pressure of a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the partial pressures
of the gases which compose the mixture corresponds to:
a) Dalton´s law
b) Graham´s law
c) Henry`s law
d) Boyle Mariotte´s law

40.2.1.1 (2549)
The chemical composition of the earth´s atmosphere (I C A O standard
atmosphere) is
a) 78 % nitrogen, 21 % oxygen, 0,9 % argon, 0,03 % carbon dioxide
b) 78 % nitrogen, 21 % oxygen, 0,9 % carbon dioxide, 0,03 % argon
c) 78 % nitrogen, 28 % oxygen, 0,9 % carbon dioxide, 0,03 % argon
d) 71 % nitrogen, 28 % oxygen, 0,9 % argon, 0,03 % carbon dioxide

40.2.1.1 (2550)
According to the I.C.A.O. standard atmosphere, the temperature lapse rate of the
troposphere is approximately 434
a) - 2 °C every 1000 feet
b) 10 °C every 100 feet
c) 2 °C every 1000 metres
d) constant in the troposphere

40.2.1.1 (2551)
The barometric pressure has dropped to 1/2 of the pressure at sea level at
a) 18 000 feet
b) 10 000 feet
c) 25 000 feet
d) 30 000 feet

40.2.1.1 (2552)
The atmospheric pressure at 18,000 feet altitude is half the atmospheric pressure
at sea level.In accordance with this statement,
a) the partial oxygen pressure at that altitude will also drop to 1/2 of the pressure
of oxygen at sea level
b) the oxygen saturation of the blood at that altitude will drop by 50 % too
c) the oxygen percentage of the air at that altitude will drop by one half also
d) the partial oxygen pressure at that altitude will be doubled

40.2.1.1 (2553)
The volume percentage of oxygen in the atmosphere at 30.000 feet remains at 21
%, but the partial pressure of oxygen :
a) decreases with decreasing barometric pressure
b) remains constant, independent from altitude
c) increases by expansion
d) decreases significantly with lower temperatures

40.2.1.1 (2554)
Which data compose the ICAO standard atmosphere ?1. Density2. Pressure3.
Temperature4. Humidity
a) 1,2 ,3
b) 1, 2 ,4
c) 2,3 ,4
d) 3 , 4

40.2.1.1 (2555)
Boyle's law is directly applicable in case of:
a) the expansion of trapped gasses in the human body with increasing altitude
b) the occurance of decompression sickness at high altitude
c) the occurance of hypoxia with increasing altitude
d) hyperventilation with increasing altitude

40.2.1.1 (2556)
Dalton's law explains the occurance of :
a) altitude hypoxia
b) bends
c) decompression sickness
d) creeps
435
40.2.1.1 (2557)
Henry's Law explains the occurence of:
a) decompression sickness
b) diffusion
c) hyperventilation
d) hypoxia

40.2.1.1 (2558)
Oxygen, combined with hemoglobin in blood is transported by
a) red blood cells
b) platelets
c) blood plasma
d) white blood cells

40.2.1.2 (2559)
The respiratory process consists mainly of
a) the diffusion of oxygen through the respiratory membranes into the blood,
transportation to the cells, diffusion into the cells and elimination of carbon
dioxide from the body
b) the transportation of oxygen to the cell and the elimination of carbon monoxide
c) the transportation of oxygen to the cell and the elimination of nitrogen
d) the transportation of carbon dioxide to the cell and elimination of oxygen

40.2.1.2 (2560)
Inhaling carbon monoxide can be extremely dangerous during flying. Which of the
following statement(s) is/are correct?
a) Carbon monoxide is odourless and cannot be smelled.
b) Carbon monoxide increases the oxygen saturation in the blood.
c) With increasing altitude the negative effects of carbon monoxide poisoning will be
compensated.
d) Small amounts of carbon monoxide are harmless.

40.2.1.2 (2561)
Carbon monoxide poisoning
a) is more likely to occur in aeroplanes where the cabin heat is technically supplied
by coating the exhaust
b) is more likely to occur in aeroplanes with twin-engines because of high engine efficiency
c) only occurs in jet-driven aeroplanes
d) occurs only above 15 degrees OAT

40.2.1.2 (2562)
In the following list you will find several symptoms listed for hypoxia and carbon
monoxide poisoning. Please mark those referring to carbon monoxide poisoning.
a) Headache, increasing nausea, dizziness.
b) High levels of arousal, increased error proneness, lack of accuracy.
c) Euphoria, accomodation problems, blurred vision.
d) Muscular spasms, mental confusion, impairment of hearing.

40.2.1.2 (2563)
A pilot, climbing in a non-pressurised aircraft and without using supplemental
oxygen will pass the ""critical threshold"" at approximately: 436
a) 22 000 ft
b) 16 000 ft
c) 18 000 ft
d) 38 000 ft

40.2.1.2 (2564)
Breathing 100% will lift the pilot's physiological safe altitude to approximately:
a) 38 000 ft
b) 10 000
c) 22 000 ft
d) 45 000 ft

40.2.1.2 (2565)
The most dangerous symptoms of hypoxia at altitude are
a) euphoria and impairment of judgement
b) hyperventilation
c) sensation of heat and blurred vision
d) breathlessness and reduced night vision

40.2.1.2 (2566)
When consciously breathing fast or hyperventilating due to high arousal or
overstress, the carbon dioxide level in the blood is lowered, resulting in:
a) less oxygen to be diffused into the cells
b) a poor saturation of oxygen in the blood
c) a delay in the onset of hypoxia when flying at high altitudes
d) the activation of the respiratory centre, which in turn causes hypoxia

40.2.1.2 (2567)
With hyperventilation, caused by high levels of arousal or overstress:
a) an increased amount of carbon dioxide is exhaled causing muscular spasms and
even unconsciousness
b) finger nails and lips will turn blue (""cyanosis"")
c) more oxygen will reach the brain
d) peripherical and scotopic vision will be improved

40.2.1.2 (2568)
Breathing 100% oxygen at 38000 ft is equivalent to breathe ambient air at :
a) 10 000 ft
b) 8 000 ft
c) 14 000 ft
d) 18 000 ft

40.2.1.2 (2569)
At what altitude (breathing 100% oxygen without pressure) could symptoms of
hypoxia be expected?
a) Approximately 38 - 40 000 ft.
b) Approximately 10 - 12 000 ft.
c) 22 000 ft
d) Approximately 35 000 ft.
437
40.2.1.2 (2570)
To safely supply the crew with oxygen, at which altitude is it necessary to breathe
100% oxygen plus pressure after a rapid decompression ?
a) Approximately 38 000 ft.
b) Approximately 14 000 ft.
c) Approximately 20 000 ft.
d) Approximately 45 000 ft.

40.2.1.2 (2571)
When the pilot suffers from hypothermia (loss of cabin heating):
a) his need for oxygen will be increased as long as he stays conscious
b) his oxygen need will not be affected
c) his oxygen need will be reduced giving him a better tolerance to hypoxia at higher altitudes
d) his oxygen need will be raised and his tolerance to hypoxia will be increased

40.2.1.2 (2572)
""Tunnel vision"" (loss of peripherical vision) can be observed if a pilot is subjected
to more than:
a) + 3.5 Gz
b) - 3.5 Gz
c) + 3.5 Gx
d) - 3.5 Gy

40.2.1.2 (2573)
""Grey out"" can be observed if a pilot is subjected to more than:
a) + 3 Gz
b) - 3 Gz
c) + 3 Gx
d) + 3 Gy

40.2.1.2 (2574)
The negative (radial) acceleration of an airplane affects the sitting pilot with
inertia along :
a) the vertical body axis upwards
b) the vertical body axis downwards
c) the transverse body axis to the right
d) the transverse body axis to the left

40.2.1.2 (2575)
How can a pilot increase his tolerance to +Gz ?
a) Tightening of muscles, ducking the head and perform a kind of pressure
breathing.
b) Tighten shoulder harness.
c) Take an upright seat position.
d) Relax the muscles, ducking the head and lean upper body forward.

40.2.1.2 (2576)
Oxygen in the blood is primarily transported by
a) the hemoglobin in the red blood cells
b) the blood plasma
438
c) attaching itself to the hemoglobin in the red blood plasma
d) attaching itself to the hemoglobin in the white blood cells

40.2.1.2 (2577)
Large amounts of carbon dioxide are eliminated from the body when
hyperventilating. This causes the blood
a) to become more alkaline increasing the amount of oxygen to be attached to the
hemoglobin at lung area
b) to turn more acid thus eliminating more oxygen from the hemoglobin
c) to accelerate the oxygen supply to the brain
d) not to change at all

40.2.1.2 (2578)
Hypoxia is caused by
a) reduced partial oxygen pressure in the lung
b) reduced partial pressure of nitrogen in the lung
c) an increased number of red blood cells
d) a higher affinity of the red blood cells (hemoglobin) to oxygen

40.2.1.2 (2579)
Hypoxia can be caused by:1. low partial pressure of oxygen in the atmosphere
when flying at high altitudes without pressurisation and supplemental oxygen2. a
decreased saturation of oxygen in the blood due to carbon monoxide attached to
the hemoglobin3. blood pooling in the lower extremities due to inertia (+ Gz)4.
malfunction of the body cells to metabolize oxygen (i.e. after a hangover)
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
b) 1 and 2 are correct, 3 and 4 are false
c) 1 is false, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
d) 1, 2, 3 are correct, 4 is false

40.2.1.2 (2580)
A pilot will get hypoxia
a) after decompression at high altitude and not taking additional oxygen in time
b) after decompression to 30 000 feet and taking 100 % oxygen via an oxygen mask
c) if his rate of climb exceeds 5 000 ft/min
d) if he is flying an unpressurized airplane at an altitude of 15 000 feet and breathing 100 %
oxygen

40.2.1.2 (2581)
Why is hypoxia especially dangerous for pilots flying solo?
a) Since the first signs of hypoxia are generally hard to detect (hypoxia of the
brain), the solo pilot may not be able to react in time (i.e. activate his emergency
oxygen system)
b) Hypoxia does not cause a loss of control in steering the plane.
c) Hypoxia improves vision at night, so the pilot will have no indication of danger.
d) The pilot may loose control when he is using the oxygen mask.

40.2.1.2 (2582)
In the following list you find some symptoms for hypoxia and carbon monoxide
poisoning. Please mark those indicating hypoxia:
439
a) Visual disturbances, lack of concentration, euphoria.
b) Nausea and barotitis.
c) Dull headache and bends.
d) Dizziness, hypothermia.

40.2.1.2 (2583)
Which of the following is a/are symptom(s) of hypoxia ?
a) Lack of concentration, fatigue, euphoria
b) Pain in the joints
c) Low blood pressure
d) Excessive rate and depth of breathing combined with pains in the chest area

40.2.1.2 (2584)
A symptom comparison for hypoxia and hyperventilation is:
a) cyanosis (blue color of finger-nail and lips) exists only in hypoxia
b) there are great differences between the two
c) altitude hypoxia is very unlikely at cabin pressure altitudes above 10 000 ft
d) symptoms caused by hyperventilation will immediately vanish when 100% oxygen is given

40.2.1.2 (2585)
Which statement applies to hypoxia?
a) sensitivity and reaction to hypoxia varies from person to person
b) carbon monoxide increases the tolerance of the brain to oxygen deficiency
c) you may become immune to hypoxia when exposed repeatedly to hypoxia
d) it is possible to prognose when, how and where hypoxia reaction starts to set in

40.2.1.2 (2586)
Hypoxia can also be caused by
a) a lack of red blood cells in the blood or decreased ability of the hemoglobin to
transport oxygen
b) a lack of nitrogen in ambient air
c) too much carbon dioxide in the blood
d) increasing oxygen partial pressure used for the exchange of gases

40.2.1.2 (2587)
Which symptom of hypoxia is the most dangerous for conducting safe flight ?
a) The interference of reasoning and perceptive functions.
b) Dizziness.
c) Lack of adaptation.
d) Lack of accomodation.

40.2.1.2 (2588)
Which of the following applies to carbon monoxide poisoning?
a) Several days are needed to recuperate from a carbon monoxide poisoning.
b) A very early symptom for realising carbon monoxide poisoning is euphoria.
c) The human body shows no sign of carbon monoxide poisoning.
d) Inhaling carbon monoxide leads to hyperventilation.

40.2.1.2 (2589)
The momentum of gas exchange in respiration is
a) dependent on the pressure gradient between the participating gases during
440
respiration
b) the excess pressure caused by inhaling
c) independent from the partial pressures of the participating gases
d) depending on the active transportation of nitrogen into the alveoli

40.2.1.2 (2590)
Which component(s) is/are transporting the oxygen in the blood?
a) Hemoglobin in the red blood cells.
b) White blood cells.
c) Plasma.
d) Blood fat.

40.2.1.2 (2591)
Affinity to hemoglobin is best with:
a) carbon monoxide
b) nitrogen
c) oxygen
d) carbon dioxide

40.2.1.2 (2592)
Which of the following is true concerning carbon monoxide?
a) It is to be found in the smoke of cigarettes lifting up a smoker's ""physiological
altitude"".
b) It combines 5 times faster to the hemoglobin than oxygen.
c) It has no physiological effect when mixed with oxygen.
d) It is always present in the lungs.

40.2.1.2 (2593)
The rate and depth of breathing is primarily controlled by:
a) the amount of carbon dioxide in the blood
b) the amount of carbon monoxide in the blood
c) the amount of nitrogen in the blood
d) the total atmospheric pressure

40.2.1.2 (2594)
In the alveoli gas exchange takes place (external respiration). Which gas will
diffuse from the blood into the lungs?
a) Carbon dioxide.
b) Ambient air.
c) Oxygen.
d) Carbon monoxide.

40.2.1.2 (2595)
Which statement is correct ?
a) Oxygen diffusion from the blood into the cells depends on their partial oxygen
pressure gradient.
b) The blood plasma is transporting the oxygen.
c) The gradient of diffusion is higher at altitude than it is at sea-level.
d) Oxygen diffusion from the lungs into the blood does not depend on partial oxygen pressure.
441
40.2.1.2 (2596)
A good method to treat hyperventilation is to:
a) talk oneself through the relevant procedure aloud to emotionally calm down and
reduce the rate of breathing simultaneously
b) don an oxygen mask
c) excecute the valsalva manoeuvre
d) close the eyes and relax

40.2.1.2 (2597)
What could cause hyperventilation ?
a) Fear, anxiety and distress
b) Abuse of alcohol
c) Extreme low rate of breathing
d) Fatigue

40.2.1.2 (2598)
A pilot who is hyperventilating for a prolonged period of time may even get
unconscious. Hyperventilation is likely to occur, when:
a) the pilot is emotionally aroused
b) there is a low CO-pressure in the blood
c) he is flying a tight turn
d) there is an increased blood flow to the brain

40.2.1.2 (2599)
Hyperventilation can cause unconsciousness, because:
a) blood circulation to the brain is slowed down
b) oxygen saturation of the blood is decreased
c) not enough time is left to exchange oxygen in the lungs
d) oxygen saturation of the blood is increased and the brain will be supplied with more blood
than normal

40.2.1.2 (2600)
At what altitude (""threshold for compensatory reactions"") does the human
organism start with remarkable measures to compensate for the drop in pO2 when
climbing?At about:
a) 6000-7000 FT
b) 8000-9000 FT
c) 9000-10000 FT
d) 10000-12000 FT

40.2.1.2 (2601)
Where is the ""critical threshold"" at which a pilot not using oxygen reaches the
critical or lethal zone?It starts at:
a) 22000 FT.
b) 18000 FT
c) It25000 FT
d) It38000 FT

40.2.1.2 (2602)
Short term memory can already be affected when flying as low as:
a) 8000 FT 442
b) 12000 FT
c) 15000 FT
d) 20000 FT

40.2.1.2 (2603)
Breathing pure oxygen (without pressure) will be sufficient up to an altitude of:
a) 38000 FT
b) 45000 FT
c) 60000 FT
d) 80000 FT

40.2.1.2 (2604)
After a decompression at high altitude
a) nitrogen gas bubbles can be released in the body fluids causing gas embolism,
bends and chokes
b) automatically oxygen is deployed into the cabin
c) temperature in the cockpit will increase
d) pressure differentials will suck air into the cabin

40.2.1.2 (2605)
In airline operations decompression sickness symptoms
a) may develop after a decompression from 7000 FT cabin pressure altitude to
30000 FT flight altitude
b) may develop when being decompressed from MSL to 15 000 FT
c) appear only in air crew, previously engaged in diving activities
d) may affect people with defect tympanic membrane

40.2.1.2 (2606)
Symptoms of decompression sickness
a) are bends, chokes, skin manifestations, neurological symptoms and circulatory
shock
b) are only relevant when diving
c) can only develop at altitudes of more than 40000 FT
d) are flatulence and pain in the middle ear

40.2.1.2 (2607)
Decompression sickness symptoms may develop due to
a) cabin pressure loss when flying at higher altitudes (above 18000 FT)
b) sudden pressure surges in the cabin at altitudes below 18000 FT
c) emergency descents after a cabin pressure loss
d) fast flights from a high-pressure zone into a low pressure area when flying an
unpressurized aeroplane

40.2.1.2 (2608)
The eustachian tube serves for the pressure equalization between
a) middle ear and external atmosphere
b) sinuses of the nose and external atmosphere
c) nose and pharyngeal cavity and external atmosphere
d) frontal, nose and maxillary sinuses
443
40.2.1.2 (2609)
Disturbances of pressure equalization in air-filled cavities of the head (nose, ear
etc.) are called:
a) barotrauma
b) ebulism
c) hypoxia
d) hyperventilation

40.2.1.2 (2610)
Barotrauma caused by gas accumulation in the stomach and intestinals can lead
to:
a) pressure pain or flatulence
b) barotitis
c) decompresion sickness
d) barosinusitis

40.2.1.2 (2611)
What counter-measure can be used against a barotrauma of the middle ear
(aerotitis)?
a) Close the mouth, pinch the nose tight and blow out thereby increasing the
pressure in the mouth and throat. At the same time try to swallow or move lower
jaw (Valsalva)
b) Increase rate of descent
c) Stop climbing, start descent
d) Pilots should apply anti-cold remedies prior every flight to prevent barotrauma in the middle
ear

40.2.1.2 (2612)
How can you determine if a person is suffering from a barotrauma of the sinuses of
the nose (aerosinusitis) or the middle ear (aerotitis) ?
a) Hearing difficulties will normally accompany aerotitis
b) Aerosinusitis will never develop during descent
c) Barotrauma of the middle ear will not effect hearing
d) There is no difference

40.2.1.2 (2613)
Please mark the counter-measure a pilot can use against a barotrauma of the
middle ear (aerotitis).
a) Stop descending, climb again and then descend with reduced sink rate
b) Increase the rate of descent
c) Stop chewing and swallowing movements (""Valsalva"")
d) Use drugs against a cold

40.2.1.2 (2614)
Barotrauma of the middle ear most likely will occur
a) when descending rapidly
b) during a long high altitude flight
c) when climbing
d) in sudden steep turns

444
40.2.1.2 (2615)
Barotrauma of the middle ear is usually accompanied by
a) a reduction in hearing ability and the feeling of increasing pressure
b) dizziness
c) noises in the ear
d) pain in the joints

40.2.1.2 (2616)
The effect of hypoxia to vision
a) is stronger with the rods
b) is usual stronger with the cones
c) can only be detected when smoking tobacco
d) does not depend on the level of illumination

40.2.1.2 (2617)
When oxygen is beeing transferred from the blood into the tissues and carbon
dioxide from the body cells into the blood, it is called:
a) internal respiration
b) external respiration
c) ventilation
d) hyperventilation

40.2.1.2 (2618)
Through which part of the ear does the equalization of pressure take place, when
altitude is changed?
a) Eustachian tube
b) Cochlea
c) Tympanic membrane
d) External auditory canal

40.2.1.2 (2619)
Which of the following symptoms can mark a beginning hyperventilation?
a) Dizzy feeling
b) Slow heart beat
c) Slow rate of breathing
d) Cyanosis (blueing of lips and finger nails)

40.2.1.2 (2620)
Out of the list of possible measures to counteract hyperventilation, the most
effective measure against hyperventilation tetany is:
a) breathe into a plastic or paper bag
b) hold breath
c) avoid strenuous flight manoeuvres
d) speak soothingly and get the person to breathe slowly

40.2.1.2 (2621)
What event can cause a hyperventilation (not required by physical need)?1.
Pressure breathing.2. Anxiety or fear.3. Overstress.4. Strong pain.5. Jogging.
a) 1,2,3 and 4 are correct, 5 is false
b) Only 2 and 3 are correct
445
c) 1,2,3,4 and 5 are correct
d) 1and 5 are both false

40.2.1.2 (2622)
Which of the following could a pilot experience when he is hyperventilating?1.
Dizziness2. Muscular spasms3. Visual disturbances4. Cyanosis
a) 1,2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
b) 1,2 and 4 are correct, 3 is false
c) 1 is false, all others are correct
d) 2 and 4 are false

40.2.1.2 (2623)
TUC (Time of Useful Consciousness) is:
a) the length of time during which an individual can act with both mental and
physical efficiency and alertness, measured from the moment at which he is
exposed to hypoxia
b) the time before becoming unconscious at a sudden pressure loss
c) the time after pressure loss until decompression sickness sets in
d) the time between the start of hypoxia and death

40.2.1.2 (2624)
The ""Effective Performance Time"" or ""Time of Useful Consciousness"" after a
decompression at 35 000 ft is:
a) between 30 and 60 seconds
b) approximately 3 minutes
c) approximately 5 minutes
d) less than 20 seconds

40.2.1.2 (2625)
The time between inadequate oxygen supply and incapacitation is called TUC
(Time of Useful Consciousness). It
a) varies individually and depends on cabin pressure altitude
b) is the same amount of time for every person
c) is not dependent on physical or psychological pressure
d) varies individually and does not depend on altitude

40.2.1.2 (2626)
After a decompression to 43 000 FT the TUC (Time of Useful Consciousness) will be
approximately:
a) 5-15 seconds
b) 30-45 seconds
c) 45-60 seconds
d) 60-90 seconds

40.2.1.2 (2627)
Flights immediately after SCUBA-diving (compressed gas mixtures, bottles) (>10
m depth)
a) are forbidden
b) can be performed without any danger
c) are allowed, if 38000 FT are not exceeded
d) should be avoided because hypoxia may develop 446
40.2.1.2 (2628)
Pain in the Joints (""bends""), which suddenly appear during a flight , are
symptoms of
a) decompression sickness
b) barotrauma
c) air-sickness
d) hypoxia

40.2.1.2 (2629)
After a cabin pressure loss in approximately 35 000 FT the TUC (Time of Useful
Consciousness) will be approximately:
a) 30 -90 seconds
b) 10-15 seconds
c) 3-4 minutes
d) 5 minutes or more

40.2.1.2 (2630)
You suffered a rapid decompression without the appearance of any decompression
sickness symptoms.How long should you wait until your next flight?
a) 12 hours
b) 24 hours
c) 36 hours
d) 48 hours

40.2.1.2 (2631)
Flying immediately following a dive with SCUBA diving equipment (> 10 m depth)
a) can cause decompression sicknesss even when flying at pressure altitudes
below 18 000 FT
b) prevents any dangers caused by aeroembolism (decompression sickness) when climbing to
altitudes not exceeding 30 000 FT
c) has no influence on altitude flights
d) is forbidden for the flight crew, because it leads to hypoxia

40.2.1.2 (2632)
Barotrauma of the sinuses of the nose (aerosinusitis)
a) is caused by a difference in pressure existing between the sinus cavity and the
ambient air
b) is only caused by the flying sport, not by the diving sport
c) is an irritation of sinuses by abuse of nose sprays
d) is only caused by colds and their effects

40.2.1.2 (2633)
Barodontalgia
a) arises especially with irritations of the sensitive tissues close to the root of a
tooth
b) arises only at higher altitudes and after decompression
c) even arises with healthy teeth
d) arises in combination with a cold and very high rates of descent

40.2.1.2 (2634)
At a high altitude flight (no cabin pressure system available), a pilot gets severe447
flatulence due to trapped gases. The correct counter-measure is:
a) descend to lower altitude
b) climb to a higher altitude
c) perform ""valsalva maneouvre""
d) use supplemental oxygen

40.2.1.2 (2635)
A barotrauma of the middle ear (aerotitis)
a) is more likely, when the pilot is flying with a respiratory infection and during
descent
b) is only caused by large pressure changes during climb
c) causes severe pain in the sinuses
d) is to be expected during rapid decompressions, but an emergency descent immediately
following the decompression will eliminate the problem

40.2.1.2 (2636)
Trapped intestinal gases can cause severe pain. When is this the case?
a) More frequent when flying above 18 000 FT in a non-pressurized aircraft.
b) At lower altitudes.
c) Only in pressurized aircraft when flying at higher flight levels.
d) During descent as well as during climb, when the cabin pressure altitude is exceeding 2 000
FT

40.2.1.2 (2637)
The risk of a barotrauma of the middle ear is more likely to occur
a) with colds and rapid descents
b) with colds and fast climbs
c) with colds and slow ascents
d) after a decompression

40.2.1.2 (2638)
Equalization of pressure is limited between the middle ear and the ambient, when:
a) the eustachian tube is blocked
b) the nose is pinched
c) you breath through the mouth
d) barotrauma exists in the sinuses

40.2.1.2 (2639)
A barotrauma of the middle ear is
a) an acute or chronic trauma of the middle ear caused by a difference of pressure
on either side of the eardrum
b) a bacterial infection of the middle ear
c) a dilatation of the eustachian tube
d) an infection of the middle ear caused by rapid decompression

40.2.1.2 (2640)
The eustachian tube is the passage way between the
a) nasopharynx and the middle ear
b) nose, pharynx and inner ear
c) nose, pharynx and the external auditory canal
d) sinuses and the pharynx 448
40.2.1.2 (2641)
Which part of the ear could be affected due to air pressure changes during climb
and/or descent?
a) The eustachian tube and the tympanic membrane (ear drum)
b) The semicircular canals
c) The cochlea
d) The sacculus and utriculus

40.2.1.2 (2642)
Hypoxia effects visual performance.A pilot may:
a) get blurred and/or tunnel vision
b) have a reduction of 25% in visual acuity at 8000 FT AGL
c) be unable to maintain piercing vision below 5000 FT AGL
d) get colour blindness accompanied by severe headache

40.2.1.2 (2643)
Which of the following symptoms could a pilot get, when he is subjected to
hypoxia?1. Fatigue.2. Euphoria.3. Lack of concentration.4. Pain in the joints.5.
Sensation of suffocation.
a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
b) 4 and 5 are correct
c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
d) Only 5 is false

40.2.1.2 (2644)
In relation to hypoxia, which of the following paraphrase(s) is (are) correct?
a) This is a physical condition caused by a lack of oxygen to meet the needs of the
body tissues, leading to mental and muscular disturbances, causing impaired
thinking, poor judgement and slow reactions
b) This is a condition of lacking oxygen in the brain causing the circulatory system to
compensate by decreasing the heart rate.
c) Hypoxia is often produced during steep turns when pilots turn their heads in a direction
opposite to the direction in which the aircraft is turning
d) This is a physical condition caused by a lack of oxygen saturation in the blood while
hyperventilating.

40.2.1.2 (2645)
Hyperventilation is due to an excessive rate of breathing and can produce the
following symptoms:
a) dizziness, tingling sensation in the fingers and toes, nausea and blurred vision
b) reduced heart rate and increase in visual acuity
c) a state of overconfidence and reduced heart rate
d) blue finger-nails and lips

40.2.1.2 (2646)
In order to get rid of excess nitrogen following scuba diving, subsequent flights
should be delayed
a) 24 hours
b) 3 hours after non decompression diving
c) 36 hours after any scuba diving
d) 48 hours after a continuous ascent in the water has been made 449
40.2.1.2 (2647)
The cabin pressure in airline operation is
a) normally not exceeding 6 000 to 8 000 feet
b) normally not exceeding 2 000 to 3 000 feet
c) normally not exceeding 4 000 to 5 000 feet
d) always equivalent to sea level

40.2.1.2 (2648)
The type of hypoxia, which occurs at altitude is a explained by:
a) Dalton´s law
b) Boyle Mariotte´s law
c) Henry´s law
d) Graham´s law

40.2.1.2 (2649)
Gaseous exchange in the human body depends on:1. diffusion gradients between
the participating gases2. permeable membranes3. partial pressure of oxygen in the
alveolus air4. acid-base balance in the blood
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
c) 2 and 3 are false
d) only 1 is correct

40.2.1.2 (2650)
Hyperventilation causes
a) a lack of carbon dioxide in the blood
b) an excess of carbon dioxide in the blood
c) acidosis
d) hypochondria

40.2.1.2 (2651)
Anxiety and fear can cause
a) hyperventilation
b) hypoxia
c) spatial disorientation
d) hypoglycemia

40.2.1.2 (2652)
Symptoms of decompression sickness
a) sometimes can appear with a delay after the airplane is on the ground
b) always begin immediately after the decompression during the flight
c) normally take 2 or 3 days to appear after exposure to a hypobaric atmosphere
d) disappear on landing and never appear again

40.2.1.2 (2653)
The first effect to be noticed on gradual exposure to high positive radial
accelerations is
a) grey-out
b) loss of consciousness
c) black-out
d) red-vision 450
40.2.1.2 (2654)
Decompression sickness occurs in association with exposure to reduced
atmospheric pressure.The evolution of bubbles of nitrogen coming out of solution
in body tissues can be derived from:
a) Henry´s law
b) Boyle Mariotte´s law
c) Dalton´s law
d) Gay Lussac´s law

40.2.1.2 (2655)
The normal rate of breathing is
a) 20 to 30 cycles a minute
b) 12 to 16 cycles a minute
c) 32 to 40 cycles a minute
d) 60 to 100 cycles a minute

40.2.1.2 (2656)
The main function of the red blood cells is
a) to transport oxygen
b) to participate in the process of coagulation of the blood
c) the cellular defense of the organism
d) to contribute to the immune response of the organism

40.2.1.2 (2657)
Altitude-hypoxia, when breathing ambient air, should not occur (indifferent phase)
a) below 3 000 m
b) up to 5 000 m
c) between 3 000 m and 5 000 m
d) between 5 000 m and 7 000 m

40.2.1.2 (2658)
""The Bends"" as a symptom of decompression sickness consists of:
a) pain in the joints
b) pain in the thorax and a backing cough
c) CNS-disturbances
d) loss of peripheral vision

40.2.1.2 (2659)
One of the most frequent symptom(s) of decompression sickness emerging after a
decompression in airline operation
a) are the bends
b) are the chokes
c) is a shock
d) are neurological damages to the CNS

40.2.1.2 (2660)
Which phenomenon is common to hypoxia and hyperventilation?
a) Tingling sensations in arms or legs.
b) Cyanosis (blueing of lips and finger-nails).
c) Severe headache.
451
d) Euphoria.
40.2.1.2 (2661)
1. Euphoria can be a symptom of hypoxia. 2. Someone in an euphoric condition is
more prone to error.
a) 1 and 2 are both correct
b) 1 is correct, 2 is not correct
c) 1 is not correct, 2 is correct
d) 1 and 2 are both not correct

40.2.1.2 (2662)
Incapacitation caused by barotrauma from gaseous expansion after decompression
at high altitude may be associated with the following part(s) of the body:1 the
digestive tract2 the ears3 the eyes4 the sinuses
a) 1
b) 1,2,3
c) 2,3,4
d) 2,4

40.2.1.2 (2663)
Of the following alternatives, which objective effects are due to positive
acceleration (+ Gz)?- 1: Decrease in heart rate- 2: Pooling of blood into lower parts
of the body- 3: Drop in blood pressure above heart-level- 4: Downward
displacement or deformation of soft or mobile organs
a) 2,3,4
b) 1,2,3
c) 1
d) 1,3,4

40.2.1.2 (2664)
What is hypoxia ?
a) Any condition where the oxygen concentration of the body is below normal
limits or where the oxygen available to the body cannot be used due to some
pathological condition
b) The total absence of oxygen in the air
c) The respiratory symptom associated with altitude decompression sickness
d) A state charcterised by an excessive supply of oxygen which may be due to maladjustment
of the mask

40.2.1.2 (2665)
What could be symptoms of hypoxia (when flying without oxygen) above 12,000
ft?
a) Headache, fatigue, dizziness, lack of coordination
b) Headache, thirst, somnolence, collapse
c) Euphoria, headache, improvement in judgement, loss of consciousness
d) Trembling, increase in body temperature, convulsions,slowing of the rate of breathing

40.2.1.2 (2666)
You climb from 0 to 50.000 ft and measure the decrease of the pressure per 5.000
ft. The absolute difference in barometric pressure is greatest between :
a) 0 and 5.000 feet
b) 5.000 and 10.000 feet
452
c) 10.000 and 15.000 feet
d) 45.000 and 50.000 feet

40.2.1.2 (2667)
Physiological problems due to increasing altitude are caused by :
a) decreased atmospherical pressure
b) disorientation
c) accelerations
d) increased atmospherical pressure

40.2.1.2 (2668)
Air at an altitude of 18.000 feet contains, approximately :
a) 21% oxygen
b) 5% oxygen
c) 15% oxygen
d) 10% oxygen

40.2.1.2 (2669)
Dry air is a mixture of gases. Their volume percentage is about:
a) 21% oxygen,78% nitrogen, 1% other gases
b) 18% oxygen, 80% nitrogen, 2% other gases
c) 19% oxygen, 80% nitrogen, 1% other gases
d) 25% oxygen, 74% nitrogen, 1% other gases

40.2.1.2 (2670)
The occurrence of pain in the joints (bends) during decompression can be
explained by the principle that:
a) the quantity of a gas dissolved in a fluid is proportional to the pressure of that
gas above the fluid (Henry's Law)
b) a volume of gas is inversely proportional to the pressure of this gas at constant
temperature (Boyle's law)
c) the total pressure of a mixture of gases is equal to the sum of the partial pressures of the
separate gases (Dalton's Law)
d) the molecules of a gas will move from an area of higher concentration or partial pressure to
an area of lower concentration or partial pressure (law of diffusion)

40.2.1.2 (2671)
Pain in the joints caused by gas bubbles following a decompression is called:
a) bends
b) chokes
c) creeps
d) leans

40.2.1.2 (2672)
What are the main clinical signs of hypoxia during explosive decompression ?
a) Increase in heart and respiratory rates, euphoria, impairment of judgement,
memory disorders
b) Headaches, fatigue, somnolence, palpitations
c) Increase in heart rate, decrease in body temperature impairment of judgement
d) Headaches, articular pain, speeding-up of the respiratory rate, memory disorders
453
40.2.1.2 (2673)
Which is the procedure to be followed when symptoms of decompression sickness
occur?
a) Descend to the lowest possible level and land as soon as possible
b) Descend to the lowest possible level and wait for the symptoms to disappear before
climbing again
c) Only medical treatment is of use
d) Only the prompt supply of oxygen is necessary

40.2.1.2 (2674)
What is decompression sickness ?
a) An sickness resulting from the formation of nitrogen bubbles in bodily tissues
and fluids after a cabin pressure loss at high altitude
b) A frequent disorder in commercial aviation due to the pressurisation curve of modern
aircraft
c) A disorder which is solely encountered below 18,000 ft
d) The formation of air bubbles in bodily tissues, with no consequences for people's
capabilities

40.2.1.2 (2675)
Which of the following statements are correct:-1: Scuba diving may be practiced
without restriction-2: Many medicines have effects which are incompatible with
flight safety-3: An adequate amount of fluid should be drunk when flying-4: Diet
has no repercussion on health
a) 2 and 3 are correct
b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
c) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
d) 1, 3 and 4 are correct

40.2.1.2 (2676)
A pressurized cabin helps to prevent:1. decompression sickness2 .the problem of
expansion of gases in the intestines3. hypoxia4. coronary desease
a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
b) 1, 2 and 4 are correct.
c) 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
d) 1, 3 and 4 are correct.

40.2.1.2 (2677)
Healthy people are usually capable to compensate for a lack of oxygen up to
a) 10.000 - 12.000feet
b) 15.000 feet
c) 20.000 feet
d) 25.000 feet

40.2.1.2 (2678)
When flying above 10.000 feet hypoxia arises because:
a) the partial oxygen pressure is lower than at sea level.
b) the composition of the blood changes
c) the composition of the air is different from sea level
d) the percentage of oxygen is lower than at sea level
454
40.2.1.2 (2679)
Saturation of oxygen in the blood at sea level is 98%. This saturation decreases
with:1. decreasing air pressure2. carbon monoxide poisoning3. increasing
altitude4. increasing air pressure
a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
b) 1, 2 and 4 are correct, 3 is false
c) 2, 3 and 4 are correct, 1 is false
d) 1, 3 and 4 are correct, 2 is false

40.2.1.2 (2680)
Hypoxia is a situation in which the cells
a) have a shortage of oxygen
b) are saturated with nitrogen
c) are saturated with oxygen
d) have a shortage of carbon dioxide

40.2.1.2 (2681)
The severity of hypoxia depends on the:1. rate of decompression2. physical
fitness3. flight level4. individual tolerance
a) 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
b) 1,2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
c) 2,3 and 4 are correct, 1 is false
d) 1 and 3 are correct, 2 and 4 are false

40.2.1.2 (2682)
Which of the following statements concerning hypoxia is correct?
a) It is a potential threat to safety.
b) It is never a problem at altitudes below 25.000 ft.
c) It activates the senses and makes them function better.
d) It has little effect on the body, because the body can always compensate for it.

40.2.1.2 (2683)
Early symptoms of hypoxia could be: 1. euphoria 2. decreased rate and depth of
breathing 3. lack of concentration 4. visual disturbances
a) 1,3 and 4 are correct
b) 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
c) 1,2 and 3 are correct
d) 1,2 and 4 are correct

40.2.1.2 (2684)
One of the most dangerous symptoms of hypoxia concerning flight safety is:
a) impaired judgement, disabling the pilot to recognize the symptoms
b) reduced coordination of limb movements, causing the pilot to spin
c) cyanosis, reducing then pilots ability to hear
d) hyperventilation, causing emotional stress

40.2.1.2 (2685)
Which of the following symptoms can indicate the beginning of hypoxia?1. Blue
lips and finger nails.2. Euphoria.3. Flatulence.4 .Unconsciousness..
a) 1, 2 and 4 are correct.
455
b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
c) 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
d) 1, 3 and 4 are correct.

40.2.1.2 (2686)
Among the functions below, which is the most sensitive to hypoxia?
a) Night vision.
b) Motor coordination.
c) Hearing.
d) Speech.

40.2.1.2 (2687)
You are crossing the Alps in a non-pressurised aircraft at an altitude of 15.000 feet.
You do not use the oxygen mask because you feel fine. This is unsafe, because:
a) your judgement could be impaired
b) the blood-pressure can get too high
c) the blood-pressure can get too low
d) you will get the bends

40.2.1.2 (2688)
During a night flight at 10,000 feet you notice that your acuity of vision has
decreased. In this case you can increase your acuity by:
a) breathing extra oxygen through the oxygen mask.
b) closing one eye
c) scanning sectors of the field of vision
d) dim the instrument lights

40.2.1.2 (2689)
During flight all crewmembers have one or more of the following symptoms: 1.
blue lips 2. mental disturbances 3. tingling sensations in arms and/or legs 4.
reduction of peripheral visionWhich is the possible cause?
a) Hypoxia.
b) Glaucoma.
c) Hypothermia.
d) Hypoglycaemia.

40.2.1.2 (2690)
Which measure(s) will help to compensate hypoxia?1. Descend below 10 000 FT.2.
Breathe 100 % oxygen.3. Climb to or above 10 000 FT.4. Reduce physical
activities.
a) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
c) only 1 is correct
d) 1 and 2 are correct, 3 and 4 are false

40.2.1.2 (2691)
Hypoxia can be prevented when the pilot
a) is using additional oxygen when flying above 10.000 feet
b) is relying on the body's built in warning system recognizing any stage of hypoxia
c) is swallowing, yawing and applying the Valsalva method
d) will not exceed 20 000 FT cabin pressure altitude
456
40.2.1.2 (2692)
Hypoxia can occur because:
a) you are hyperventilating
b) you are getting toomuch solar radiation
c) you inhale too much nitrogen
d) the percentage of oxygen is lower at altitude

40.2.1.2 (2693)
You should not despense blood without prior information from your flight surgeon.
The most important reason for this advise is:
a) you are more susceptible to hypoxia after a blood-donation.
b) the chance you get the bends is higher after blood-donation
c) your blood-pressure is too low after blood-donation
d) your heart frequency is too low after blood-donation

40.2.1.2 (2694)
Hyperventilation is:
a) an increased lung ventilation
b) a too high percentage of nitrogen in the blood
c) a decreased lung ventilation
d) a too high percentage of oxygen in the blood.

40.2.1.2 (2695)
Hyperventilation is:
a) a normal compensatory physiological reaction to a drop in partial oxygen
pressure (i.e. when climbing a high mountain)
b) an accellerated heart frequency caused by an increasing blood pressure
c) an accellerated heart frequency caused by a decreasing blood-pressure
d) a reduction of partial oxygen pressure in the brain

40.2.1.2 (2696)
What is the procedure above 10.000 ft altitude when faced with explosive
decompression?
a) Don an oxygen mask and descend to below 10,000 ft
b) First inform ATC
c) Descend to below 10,000 ft and signal an emergency
d) Check the cabin altitude, don an oxygen mask and maintain level flight

40.2.1.2 (2697)
What is the average Time of Useful Consciousness after a rapid decompression at
40,000 ft ?
a) About 12 seconds
b) Between 20 seconds and 1 minute
c) About 40 secods
d) More than 1 minute

40.2.1.2 (2698)
What is the Time of Useful Consciouness ?
a) The length of time during which an individualcan act with both mental and
physical efficiency and alertness, measured from the moment at which he loses his
457
available oxygen supply
b) The time taken to become aware of hypoxia due to gradual decompression
c) The pilot's reaction time when faced with hypoxia
d) The period of time between the start of hypoxia and the moment that the pilot becomes
aware of it

40.2.1.2 (2699)
Which of the folllowing statements concerning barotrauma are correct? They are:
a) due to pressure differentials between gases in hollow cavities of the body and
the ambient pressure
b) caused by an increase in the partial pressure of oxygen associated with a decrease in
altitude
c) more likely to occur during ascent then during a rapid descent
d) mainly associated with a sink rate which exceeds the ability of the body to balance its
internal pressures

40.2.1.2 (2700)
Decompression sickness may occur as from :- 1: an altitude of more than 18,000 ft-
2 : an altitude of more than 5,500 ft- 3 : a rate of climb of more than 500 ft/min
exceeding 18,000 ft- 4 : a temperature of more than 24°C
a) 1,3
b) 2,3
c) 1,3,4
d) 2,4

40.2.1.2 (2701)
With regard to decompression sickness associated with flight, we know that :
a) age, obesity and scuba diving are risk factors
b) scuba diving does not pose any problem for a subsequent flight
c) sex is the prime risk factor, with two out of every three women being sensitive to it
d) physical activity after decompression reduces the risks of decompression sickness
symptoms to appear

40.2.1.2 (2702)
The procedure to be followed in the event of decompression when flying above
10,000 ft must :
a) allow for the rapid supply of oxygen in order to prevent the pilot becoming
hypoxic
b) allow for a rapid descent independent from sufficient supply of oxygen in order to prevent
disorders due to hypoxia
c) make it possible to prevent hyperventilation owing to the inhalation of 100 % oxygen
d) make it possible to eliminate the risk of fogging due to the sudden pressure changes

40.2.1.2 (2703)
What is the ""Time of Useful Consciousness"" for a rapid decompression at 25,000
ft ?
a) Between 3 and 5 minutes depending on the physical activities of the subjected
pilot
b) About 18 seconds
c) Between 25 seconds and 1 minute 30 seconds
d) About 30 seconds
458
40.2.1.2 (2704)
A passenger complains about a painful inflated belly at 8.000 feet. You advise him
to:1. unbuckle and massage the belly2. stand up and let go the gases out of the
intestines3. eat less gas forming food and avoid carbonhydrated beverages before
flight in the future4. drink a lot of water throughout the flight
a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
b) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
c) 1 and 3 not advisable
d) only 4 is correct

40.2.1.2 (2705)
On ascent the gases in the digestive tract will
a) expand
b) stay the same
c) shrink
d) be absorbed by tissues and blood

40.2.1.2 (2706)
Pain in the middle ear during descent may be eased by:
a) leveling off and possibly climbing
b) blocking the effected ear with the palm of your hand
c) increasing the rate of descent
d) using an oxygen mask

40.2.1.2 (2707)
The Time of Useful Consciousness may vary according to :1 : physical activity of
the subjected crew2 : the experience of the pilot on the type of aircraft in
question3 : the strength and time of decompression4 : the cabin temperature
a) 1,3
b) 1,2
c) 3,4
d) 4

40.2.1.2 (2708)
During a climb, we can observe the following with regard to the partial oxygen
pressure :
a) an identical decrease to that for atmospheric pressure
b) a decrease which is three times faster than the decrease in atmospheric pressure
c) an increase up to 10,000 ft followed by a sudden pressure drop above that altitude
d) an increase which is inversely proportional to the decrease in atmospheric pressure

40.2.1.2 (2709)
The following may occur during gradual depressurisation between 12,000 and
18,000 ft :
a) a loss of coordination associated with fatigue and headache
b) a rapid decrease in blood pressure which will lead to headache and also to a loss of
coordination
c) sudden visual hyperacuity associated with headache
d) a rapid decrease in blood pressure leading to considerable somnolence

459
40.2.1.2 (2710)
What is the main problem caused by positive (+Gz) accelerations?
a) A pooling of blood in the lower portions of the body, and hence less blood
available
b) An improvement of peripheral vision
c) An increase in blood pressure in the upper part of the body (above heart-level)
d) Hyperoxygenation of the blood which may lead to sensory disorders

40.2.1.2 (2711)
What type of acceleration has the most significant physiological effect upon the
pilot?
a) Radial acceleration (+ Gz)
b) Linear acceleration (+ Gx)
c) Transverse acceleration (+ Gy)
d) Combined linear and transverse acceleration

40.2.1.2 (2712)
Under normal circumstances, which gas will diffuse from the blood to the alveoli:
a) carbon dioxide
b) carbon monoxide
c) nitrogen
d) oxygen

40.2.1.2 (2713)
In the pulmonary artery there is :
a) oxygen poor and carbon dioxide rich blood
b) oxygen poor and carbon dioxide poor blood
c) oxygen rich and carbon dioxide poor blond
d) oxygen rich and carbon dioxide rich blood

40.2.1.2 (2714)
The thin walls of capillaries are permeable for :
a) gases
b) platelets
c) protein
d) red blood cells

40.2.1.2 (2715)
The circulatory system, among other things, allows for :1. transportation of oxygen
and carbon dioxide2. transportation of information by chemical substances
a) 1 and 2 are correct
b) 1 is correct and 2 is false
c) 1 is false and 2 is correct
d) both are false

40.2.1.2 (2716)
The part of blood without cell is called :
a) plasm
b) lymph
c) serum
d) water 460
40.2.1.2 (2717)
Haemoglobin is:
a) in the red blood cells
b) in the platelets
c) dissolved in the plasma
d) in the white blood cells

40.2.1.2 (2718)
Someone who has anaemia has:
a) not enough functional hemoglobin
b) not enough platelets
c) not enough plasma
d) not enough white blood cells

40.2.1.2 (2719)
The average pulse of a healthy adult in rest is about:
a) 60 to 80 beats/min
b) 30 to 50 beats/min
c) 90 to 100 beats/min
d) 110 to 150 beats/min

40.2.1.2 (2720)
Pulse rate is influenced by the following factors:1. Adrenalin2. Cortisol3. Physical
exercise.4. Glucose concentration in the blood
a) 1,3 and 4 are correct, 2 is false
b) 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
c) 2,3 and 4 are correct, 1 is false
d) 1,2 and 4 are correct, 3 is false

40.2.1.2 (2721)
With a heart rate of 72 beats per minute and a stroke volume of 70 ml the cardial
output is about:
a) 5 liters/min
b) 6 liters/min
c) 7 liters/min
d) 8 liters/min

40.2.1.2 (2722)
At rest the cardial output (the quantity of blood the heart pumps in one minute) of
an adult is approximately:
a) 5 liters/min
b) 450 ml/min
c) 45 liters/min
d) 75 liters/min

40.2.1.2 (2723)
The heart muscle is supplied with blood from:
a) the coronary arteries
b) the auricles
c) ventricles
461
d) the pulmonary veins
40.2.1.2 (2724)
The normal arterial blood-pressure of a healthy adult is (systolic/diastolic):
a) 120/80 mm Hg
b) 80/20 mm Hg
c) 180/120 mm Hg
d) 220/180 mm Hg

40.2.1.2 (2725)
Which of the following statements is correct?The blood-pressure which is
measured during flight medical checks is the pressure
a) in the artery of the upper arm (representing the pressure at heart level)
b) in all the blood-vessels of the body (representing the pressure in the whole body)
c) in the mussles of the upper arm
d) in the veins of the upper arm

40.2.1.2 (2726)
Blood-pressure depends on: 1. the cardiac output 2. the resistance of the
capillaries (peripheral resistance)
a) 1 and 2 are correct
b) 1 is correct 2 is false
c) 1 is false 2 is correct
d) 1 and 2 are both false

40.2.1.2 (2727)
The blood-pressure depends on: 1. the work of the heart 2. the peripheral
resistance 3. the elasticity of the arterial walls 4. the bloode volume and viscosity
a) 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
b) 1,2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
c) 1,3 and 4 are correct, 2 is false
d) 2,3 and 4 are correct, 1 is false

40.2.1.2 (2728)
Changes in blood-pressure are measured by:
a) pressoreceptors
b) arteriols
c) adrenal glands
d) pacemakers

40.2.1.2 (2729)
The pressoreceptors are located in
a) the carotid and aortic arterial vessels
b) the intestines
c) the heart
d) the lungs

40.2.1.2 (2730)
When the pressoreceptors signal a lowering of the blood-pressure there are
adaptation mechanisms which result in:1. an increase of respiratory activity2. the
arteriols to constrict3. an increase of cardiac output4. the heart rate to rise
a) 2,3 and 4 are correct, 1 is false
b) 1,3 and 4 are correct, 2 is false 462
c) 1,2 and 4 are correct, 3 is false
d) 1,2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false

40.2.1.2 (2731)
The physiological effects of accelerations to the human body depend on:1. the
duration of the G-forces 2. the onset rate of the G-forces3. the magnitude of the G-
forces 4. the direction of the G-forces.
a) 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
b) 1,2,3 are correct, 4 is false
c) 2,3 and 4 are correct, 1 is false
d) 1and 4 are correct, 3 is false

40.2.1.2 (2732)
Inertia in the direction head => feet will cause the blood-pressure in the brain to:
a) decrease
b) remain constant
c) increase
d) first increase, then decrease

40.2.1.2 (2733)
During sustained positive G-forces the order of symptoms you can expect is:
a) grey-out, tunnel vision, black-out and unconsciousness.
b) unconsciousness, black-out, tunnel vision and grey out.
c) black-out, grey-out, tunnel vision and unconsciousness.
d) grey-out, unconsciousness, black-out and tunnel vision

40.2.1.2 (2734)
Which of the following measures can reduce the chance of a black-out during
positive G-manoeuvres?
a) A tilt back seat.
b) Breathing oxygen.
c) Sit in upright position and keep relaxed.
d) Hyperventilation.

40.2.1.2 (2735)
The normal rate of breathing of an adult at rest is about:
a) 16 cycles per minute
b) 4 cycles per minute
c) 32 cycles per minute
d) 72 cycles per minute

40.2.1.2 (2736)
The volume of air beeing exchanged during a normal breathing cycle (tidal volume)
is about:
a) 500 ml of air
b) 350 ml of air
c) 150 ml of air
d) 75 ml of air

463
40.2.1.2 (2737)
When exhaling, the expired air contains:
a) more carbon dioxide than the inspired air
b) more nitrogen than the inhaled air
c) less water vapour than the inhaled air
d) more oxygen than the inhaled air

40.2.1.2 (2738)
The primary factor to control the rate and depth of breathing is the:
a) pressure of carbon dioxide in the blood
b) partial pressure of nitrogen
c) partial pressure of oxygen in the blood
d) total air pressure in the blood

40.2.1.2 (2739)
The transfer of oxygen from the alveoli to the blood can be discribed by:
a) the law of diffusion
b) Boyle's Law
c) Dalton's Law
d) Henry's Law

40.2.1.2 (2740)
The transfer of carbon dioxide from the blood to the alveoli can be described by:
a) the law of diffusion
b) Boyles Law
c) Dalton's Law
d) Henry's Law

40.2.1.2 (2741)
The partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli is:
a) lower than in the blood
b) almost the same as in the atmospheric air
c) higher than the pressure of carbon dioxide in the blood
d) lower than the pressure of carbon dioxide in the atmospheric air.

40.2.1.2 (2742)
The symptoms of hyperventilation are caused by a:
a) surplus of CO2 in the blood
b) surplus of O2 in the blood
c) shortage of CO in the blood
d) shortage of CO2 in the blood

40.2.1.2 (2743)
If somebody starts breathing faster and deeper without physiological need
a) the blood turns less more alkaline
b) the blood turns more acid
c) the acid-base balance of the blood will not change
d) the blood pressure in the brain will rise significantly

464
40.2.1.2 (2744)
During running your muscles are producing more CO2, raising the CO2 level in the
blood. The consequence is:
a) hyperventilation (the rate and depth of breathing will increase)
b) cyanosis
c) hypoxia
d) vertigo

40.2.1.2 (2745)
During a final approach under bad weather conditions, you feel dizzy, get tingling
sensations in your hands and a rapid heart rate. These symptoms could indicate:
a) hyperventilation
b) disorientation
c) hypoxia
d) carbon monoxide poisoning

40.2.1.2 (2746)
During final approach under bad weather conditions you are getting uneasy, feel
dizzy and get tingling sensations in your hands. When hyperventilating you should
a) control your rate and depth of breathing
b) descend
c) apply the Valsalva method
d) use the oxygen mask

40.2.1.2 (2747)
A pilot can overcome hyperventilation by:
a) controlling the rate and depth of breathing, breathing into a bag or speaking
with a loud voice
b) depending on instruments
c) increasing the rate and depth of breathing to eliminate harmful carbon dioxide
d) the use of drugs stabilizing blood pressure

40.2.1.2 (2748)
You can overcome hyperventilation by breathing into a plastic or paper bag. The
intention is:
a) to raise the level of CO2 in the blood as fast as possible
b) to prevent you from exhaling too much oxygen
c) to increase the amount of nitrogen in the lung
d) to reduce blood pressure

40.2.1.2 (2749)
Which symptom does not belong to the following list:
a) leans
b) bends
c) chokes
d) creeps

40.2.1.2 (2750)
The symptoms caused by gas bubbles under the skin following a decompression
are called:
465
a) creeps
b) bends
c) chokes
d) leans

40.2.1.2 (2751)
Symptoms caused by gas bubbles in the lungs, following a decompression are
called:
a) chokes
b) bends
c) creeps
d) leans

40.2.1.2 (2752)
Some hours after a rapid decompression at FL 300 you experience pain in the
joints. Which of following answers is correct?
a) You should ask for medical advice (flight surgeon) since this is a symptom of
decompression sickness.
b) This symptom indicates decompression sickness and will disappear when you take some
exercise.
c) This phenomenon is treated by physiotherapy.
d) This phenomenon is treated by breathing 100% nitrogen.

40.2.1.2 (2753)
Tolerance to decompression sickness is decreased by:1. SCUBA-Diving2. Obesity3.
Age4. Body height
a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
b) 2 and 4 are correct
c) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
d) only 4 is correct

40.2.1.2 (2754)
Decompression symptoms are caused by:
a) dissolved gases from tissues and fluids of the body
b) low carbon dioxide pressure of inhaled air
c) low oxygen pressure of inhaled air
d) release of locked gases from joints

40.2.1.2 (2755)
In the event of rapid decompression the first action for the flight deck crew is:
a) don oxygen masks and ensure oxygen flow
b) descent to the higher of 10000 ft or MSA
c) transmit mayday call
d) carry out check for structural damage

40.2.1.2 (2756)
After a rapid decompression at an altitude of 30.000 FT the first action of the pilot
shall be:
a) maintaining aircraft control and preventing hypoxia (use of oxygen mask)
b) informing ATC
c) informing the cabin crew
d) preventing panic of the passengers 466
40.2.1.2 (2757)
The following actions are appropriate when faced with symptoms of
decompression sickness:1. climb to higher level2. descent to the higher of 10000 ft
or MSA and land as soon as possible3. breathe 100 % oxygen4. get medical advice
about recompression after landing
a) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
c) 1 and 4 are correct
d) 1 and 3 are correct

40.2.1.2 (2758)
Decompression sickness can be prevented by:1. avoiding cabin altitudes above 18
000 FT2. maintaining cabin pressure below 8 000FT when flying at high altitudes3.
performing physical exercises before and during the flight4. breathing 100 %
oxygen for 30 min prior and during the flight
a) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
c) 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
d) only 3 is correct

40.2.1.2 (2759)
What is the TUC at 20 000 FT?
a) about 30 minutes
b) 1 to 2 minutes
c) 1to 2 hours
d) 5 to 10 minutes

40.2.1.2 (2760)
Following a rapid decompression at 30.000 feet, the time of useful consciousness
would be about:
a) 1 to 2 minutes
b) 3 to 5 minutes
c) 5 to 10 minutes
d) 10 to 12 minutes

40.2.1.2 (2761)
After a rapid decompression at 35 000 feet, the time of useful consciousness is
about:
a) 30 to 60 seconds
b) 15 seconds or less
c) 5 minutes.
d) 10 minutes.

40.2.1.2 (2762)
After SCUBA diving (more than 30 feet of depth) you have to wait a period of time
before flying again. This period is at least:
a) 24 hours
b) 6 hours
c) 12 hours
d) 48 hours
467
40.2.1.2 (2763)
Flying immediately after SCUBA diving involves the risk of getting:
a) decompression sickness without having a decompression
b) hyperventilation
c) hypoxia
d) stress

40.2.1.2 (2764)
If someone hyperventilates due to stress his blood will get:
a) more alkaline
b) less satured with oxygen
c) more satured with carbon dioxide
d) more acid

40.2.1.3 (2765)
The ozone-layer is situated in the
a) stratosphere
b) troposphere
c) thermosphere
d) ionosphere

40.2.1.3 (2766)
Which of the following statements are correct ?-1: Modern aircraft allow for 50 -
60% relative humidity in the cabin air under any conditions of flight, which is
satisfactory for the body-2: Thirst is a belated symptom of dehydration-3:
Dehydration may lead to clinical manifestations such as dizziness and fatigue-4:
Drinking excessive quantities of water must be avoided since resistance to periods
of low hydration will otherwise be lost
a) 2,3
b) 2,3,4
c) 1,2,4
d) 1,4

40.2.1.3 (2767)
With regard to the humidity of air in current in a pressurized cabin, we know that it
:-1 : varies between 40 and 60%-2 : varies between 5 and 15%-3 : may cause
dehydration effecting the performance of the crew-4 : has no special effects on
crew members
a) 2,3
b) 1,3
c) 2,3,4
d) 1,4

40.2.2.0 (2768)
Which of the following statements is correct ?
a) 70% of information processed by man enters via the visual channel
b) Hearing is the sense which collects most information in man
c) 40% of information processed by man enters via the visual channel
d) The kinesthetic channel provides the most important information for flying

468
40.2.2.1 (2769)
Once we have constructed a mental model we tend
a) to give undue weight to information that confirms the model
b) to give undue weight to information that contradicts the model
c) to give equal weight to contradicting and confirming information
d) to alter that model unnecessarily frequently

40.2.2.1 (2770)
The rate and depth of breathing is primary regulated by the concentration of:
a) carbon dioxide in the blood
b) nitrogen in the air
c) water vapour in the alveoli
d) oxygen in the cells

40.2.2.1 (2771)
Rising the perceptual threshold of a sensory organ means:
a) a lesser sensitivity
b) a greater sensitivity
c) a greater selectivity
d) a lesser selectivity

40.2.2.1 (2772)
Subcutaneous pressure receptors are stimulated by:
a) the pressure created on the corresponding body parts when sitting, standing or
lying down
b) a touch on the skin indicating the true vertical
c) environmental stressors
d) the condition of the body itself

40.2.2.1 (2773)
The kinesthetic sense does not orient an individual to his surroundings, but
informs him of
a) the relative motion and relative position of his body parts
b) a touch on the skin
c) our surroundings
d) the condition in the body itself

40.2.2.1 (2774)
A stereotype and involuntary reaction of the organism on stimulation of receptors
is called:
a) reflex
b) data processing
c) control system
d) change of stimulation level

40.2.2.2 (2775)
Vibrations can cause blurred vision. This is due to tuned resonance oscillations of
the:
a) eyeballs
b) optic nerve
469
c) cristalline lens
d) photosensitive cells

40.2.2.2 (2776)
Depth perception when objects are close (< 1 m) is achieved through
a) seeing with two eyes (binocular vision)
b) good visibility only
c) visual memory only
d) the ""blind spot"" at the retina

40.2.2.2 (2777)
Adaptation is
a) the adjustment of the eyes to high or low levels of illumination
b) the change of the diameter of the pupil
c) the reflection of the light at the cornea
d) the adjustment of the crystalline lens to focus light on the retina

40.2.2.2 (2778)
The time required for complete adaptation is
a) for high levels of illumination 10 sec and for full dark adaptation 30 min
b) for high levels of illumination 10 minutes and for low levels of illumination 30 minutes
c) for day and night: 30 min
d) for night 10 sec and for day 30 min

40.2.2.2 (2779)
The requirement of good sunglasses is to
a) absorb enough visible light to eliminate glare without decreasing visual acuity,
absorb UV and IR radiation and absorb all colors equally
b) fit to the pilots individual taste
c) eliminate distortion in aircraft windshields
d) increase the time for dark adaptation

40.2.2.2 (2780)
Why does a deficiency in vitamin A cause night-blindness?
a) Vitamin A is essential to the regeneration of visual purple
b) Accomodation is destroyed
c) Vitamin A deficiency interrupts the oxygen supply to the photosensitive cells
d) The transfer of light stimulus from the rods to a nerve impulse depends on vitamin A

40.2.2.2 (2781)
Scanning at night should be performed by:
a) slight eye movements to the side of the object
b) scanning with one eye open
c) concentrated fixation on an object (image must fall on the fovea centralis)
d) avoiding food containing Vitamin A

40.2.2.2 (2782)
Flickering light when reflected from spinning rotor blades
a) can cause spatial disorientation and/or nausea, when looked at for a longer
period of time 470
b) can be neglected
c) can be avoided when the strobe-lights are switched on
d) should be avoided, because it may destroy the optical nerve

40.2.2.2 (2783)
What impression do you have when outside references are fading away (e.g. fog,
darkness, snow and vapor)?
a) It is difficult to determine the size and speed of objects
b) Objects seem to be closer than in reality
c) Objects seem to be much bigger than in reality
d) There is no difference compared with flying on a clear and sunny day

40.2.2.2 (2784)
Hypoxia will effect night vision
a) at 5000 FT
b) less than day vision
c) and causes the autokinetic phenomena
d) and causes hyperventilation

40.2.2.2 (2785)
What does not impair the function of the photosensitive cells?
a) Fast speed
b) Oxygen deficiency
c) Acceleration
d) Toxic influence (alcohol, nicotine, medication)

40.2.2.2 (2786)
The fovea centralis is
a) the area of best day vision and no night vision at all
b) the area of the blind spot (optic disc)
c) where the optic nerves come together with the pupil
d) the area of best day vision and best night vision

40.2.2.2 (2787)
The retina of the eye
a) is the light-sensitive inner lining of the eye containing the photoreceptors
essential for vision
b) filters the UV-light
c) is the muscle, changing the size of the crystalline lens
d) only regulates the light that falls into the eye

40.2.2.2 (2788)
Vitamin A and possibly vitamins B and C are chemical factors and essential to good
night vision:1. Vitamin deficiencies may decrease night vision performance2. An
excess intake of vitamin A will improve night vision performance significantly3.
Pilots should be carefully concerned to take a balaced diet containing sufficient
vitamin A4. Vitamin deficiencies may decrease visual acuity in photopic vision but
not in scotopic vision
a) 1 and 3 are correct, 2 and 4 are false
b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
471
c) Only 4 is false
d) 1 and 3 are false, 2 and 4 are correct

40.2.2.2 (2789)
What should a pilot do to keep his night vision (scotopic vision)?
a) Not smoke before start and during flight and avoid flash-blindness
b) Avoid food containing high amounts of vitamin A
c) Wait at least 60 minutes to night-adapt before he takes off
d) Select meals with high contents of vitamin B and C

40.2.2.2 (2790)
Why should a pilot turn his attention to the instruments when approaching on a
snowed up, foggy or cloudy winterday? Because
a) perception of distance and speed is difficult in an environment of low contrast
b) his attention will be distracted automatically under these conditions
c) the danger of a ""greying out"" will make it impossible to determine the height above the
terrain
d) pressure differences can cause the altimeter to give wrong information

40.2.2.2 (2791)
Illuminated anti-collision lights in IMC
a) can cause disorientation
b) can cause colour-illusions
c) will improve the pilots depth perception
d) will effect the pilots binocular vision

40.2.2.2 (2792)
A shining light is fading out (i. e. when flying into fog, dust or haze). What kind of
sensation could the pilot get?
a) The source of light moves away from him
b) The source of light stands still
c) The source of light is approaching him with increasing speed
d) The light source will make the pilot believe, that he is climbing

40.2.2.2 (2793)
To prevent the ""autokinetic phenomena"", the following can be done:
a) look out for additional references inside and/or outside the cockpit using
peripheral vision also
b) fixate the source of light, first with one eye, then with the other
c) look sideways to the source of light for better fixation
d) turn down cabin light and shake head simultaneously

40.2.2.2 (2794)
Autokinesis is
a) the apparent movement of a static single light when stared at for a relatively
long period of time in the dark
b) the phenomenon of spinning lights after the abuse of alcohol
c) the change in diameter of the pupil, when looking in the dark
d) the automatical adjustment of the crystalline lens to objects situated at different distances

472
40.2.2.2 (2795)
The time for dark adaptation is
a) 30 min
b) 10 sec
c) 1/10 sec
d) 10 min

40.2.2.2 (2796)
Sunglasses with variable filtration (phototrope glasses)
a) can have disadvantages when used in the cockpit due to their dependence on
ultraviolet light which is screened by the cockpit glass
b) are generally forbidden for pilots
c) are ideal, as long as there are no polarisation effects
d) are advantageous for pilots

40.2.2.2 (2797)
What misjudgement may occur if an airplane is flying into fog, snow or haze?
a) Objects seem to be farther away than in reality
b) Objects will appear closer than they really are
c) Objects will appear bigger in size than in reality
d) Objects seem to move slower than in reality

40.2.2.2 (2798)
The peripheral vision is important for:
a) detecting moving objects
b) visual acuity
c) binocular vision
d) colour vision

40.2.2.2 (2799)
Although we have a field of vision of more than 180° it is important during flight to
use the scan ning technique, because
a) only in the foveal area resolution is good enough to see an object clearly
b) it is tiring to look continually in the same direction
c) only in the peripheral area of the retina resolution is good enough to see an object clearly
d) the reduction in the field of vision with decreasing altitude is due to a lack of vitamin A

40.2.2.2 (2800)
When flying at night the first sense to be affected by a slight degree of hypoxia is
the
a) vision
b) cochlea
c) sense of balance
d) proprioceptive sensitivity

40.2.2.2 (2801)
The part(s) of the eye responsible for night vision
a) are the rods
b) are the cones
c) are rods and cones
473
d) is the cornea
40.2.2.2 (2802)
The fovea
a) is an area in which cones predominate
b) is sensitive to very low intensities of light
c) is an area in which rods predominate
d) is the area responsible for night vision

40.2.2.2 (2803)
When the optical image forms in front of the retina, we are talking about
a) myopia
b) hypermetropia
c) presbyopia
d) astigmatism

40.2.2.2 (2804)
The time an eye needs to adapt fully to the dark is about:
a) 25 - 30 minutes
b) 5 minutes
c) 10 minutes
d) 10 seconds

40.2.2.2 (2805)
The photosensitive cells beeing responsible for night vision are called:
a) the rods
b) the fovea
c) the cones
d) the cones and the rods

40.2.2.2 (2806)
When flying through a thunderstorm with lightning you can protect yourself from
flashblindness by:a) turning up the intensity of cockpit lightsb) looking inside the
cockpitc) wearing sunglassesd) using face blinds or face curtains when installed
a) a), b), c) and d) are correct
b) a), b) and c) are correct, d) is false
c) a) and b) are correct, c) and d) are false
d) c) and d) are correct, a) and b) are false

40.2.2.2 (2807)
Which scanning technique should be used when flying at night?
a) Look to the side (15 - 20 deg) of the object.
b) Look directly at the object.
c) Blink your eyes.
d) Look with one eye.

40.2.2.2 (2808)
Rods (scotopic visual cells) allow for :
a) good night-vision after adaptation to darkness (30 min)
b) good, virtually instantaneous night-vision (scotopic vision)
c) precise vision of contours and colours
d) red vision, both during the day and at night
474
40.2.2.2 (2809)
To optimise one's night-vision performance, it is necessary :- 1 : to spend some
time getting adapted to low levels of illumination- 2 : to increase the instrument
panel lighting by reducing the cockpit lighting- 3 : not to focus on the point to be
observed- 4 : to avoid blinding
a) 1,3,4
b) 1,2,4
c) 2,3,4
d) 2

40.2.2.2 (2810)
Visual perception of depth at close to medium distance is primarily due to
a) binocular vision
b) interactions between cones and rods
c) peripheral vision
d) the high sensitivity of the retina

40.2.2.2 (2811)
With regard to central vision, which of the following statements are correct ?-1: It
is due to the functioning of rods-2: It enables details, colours and movement to be
seen-3: Its very active both during the day and at night-4: It represents a zone
where about 150.000 cones per mm are located to give high resolution capacity
a) 2,4
b) 1,2,4
c) 2,3,4
d) 1,3

40.2.2.2 (2812)
The ability of the human eye to read alphanumeric information (piercing vision):
a) is limited to the foveal area of the retina
b) is limited to daytime using the rod cells
c) is almost equally shared by the entire retina
d) is governed by peripheral vision over an area of approximately 20 degrees of angle

40.2.2.2 (2813)
Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct ?- 1: The retina has rods on its
peripheral zone and cones on its central zone- 2: The retina has cones and the
crystalline lens has rods- 3: The rods allow for night-vision- 4: The cones are
located on the peripheral zone of the retina
a) 1,3
b) 1
c) 2,3
d) 4

40.2.2.2 (2814)
In order to get colour vision, it is necessary :-1 : for there to be considerable
amount of light (ambient luminosity)-2 : at night to look at the point to be
observed at an angle of 15°-3 : to allow the eye a period of time to get used to the
light-4 : to avoid white light
a) 1
b) 1,2,3 475
c) 2,4
d) 3

40.2.2.2 (2815)
The retina allows for the acquisition of colours as a result of the:
a) cones located in its central part
b) rods located in its central part
c) crystalline lens
d) rods located in its peripheral zone

40.2.2.2 (2816)
The phenomenon of accommodation, which enables a clear image to be obtained,
is accomplished by which of the following ?
a) The crystalline lens
b) The rods
c) The cones
d) The retina

40.2.2.2 (2817)
We know that, in the mechanism of sight, the retina allows for :
a) the acquisition of the visual signal and its coding into physiological data
b) the acquisition of the visual signal and the accommodation process
c) binocular vision
d) the analysis of visual signals

40.2.2.2 (2818)
We know that transverse accelerations (Gy)- 1 : are above all active in turns and
pull-outs- 2 : are present during take-off and landing- 3 : are rare during routine
flights- 4 : often lead to loss of consciousness
a) 3
b) 1,4
c) 2,3
d) 1,2,3

40.2.2.2 (2819)
Empty field myopia is caused by:
a) lack of distant focal points
b) atmospheric perspective
c) ozone at altitude
d) flying over mountainous terrain

40.2.2.2 (2820)
The amount of light which strikes the retina is controlled by:
a) the pupil
b) the ciliary body
c) the cornea
d) the lens

40.2.2.2 (2821)
When focussing on near objects:
476
a) the shape of lens gets more spherical
b) the shape of lens gets flatter
c) the cornea gets smaller
d) the pupil gets larger

40.2.2.2 (2822)
The ability of the lens to change its shape is called:
a) accomodation
b) binocular vision
c) depth perception
d) adaptation

40.2.2.2 (2823)
The mechanism of accomodation is caused by:
a) the functioning of the ciliary muscle aroud the lens
b) the elasticity of the optic nerves
c) the functioning of the muscles of the eye
d) the diameter of the pupil

40.2.2.2 (2824)
Presbyopia is:
a) far sightedness linked with age
b) short sightedness
c) myopia
d) high intraocular pressure

40.2.2.2 (2825)
Glaucoma1. can lead to total blindness2. can lead to undetected reduction of the
visual field3. reduces visual acuity in its final stage
a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
b) 1 and 3 are correct, 2 is false
c) 2 and 3 are correct, 1 is false
d) 1 is correct, 2 and 3 are false

40.2.2.2 (2826)
Glaucoma is:
a) high intra-ocular pressure
b) disturbed colour vision
c) disturbed adaptation
d) disturbed night vision

40.2.2.2 (2827)
Glaucoma is characterised by: 1. disturbed light adaptation 2. progressive
narrowing of the visual field 3. insidious onset and concealed progression 4. an
increase in intra-ocular pressure
a) 2, 3 and 4 are correct ,1 is false
b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
c) 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
d) 1, 3 and 4 are correct, 2 is false
477
40.2.2.3 (2828)
Which is the audible range to human hearing?
a) Between 16 Hz and 20 KHz
b) Between 16 MHz and 20 000MHz
c) Between 16 KHz and 20 KHz
d) Between 16 Hz and 20 MHz

40.2.2.3 (2829)
Which of the following components belong to the middle ear?
a) Ossicles
b) Otoliths
c) Endolymph
d) Semicircular canals

40.2.2.3 (2830)
Which part of the inner ear is responsible for the perception of noise?
a) The cochlea
b) The semicircular canals
c) The sacculus and utriculus
d) The eustachian tube

40.2.2.3 (2831)
The group of tiny bones (the hammer, anvil and stirrup) are situated in
a) the middle ear
b) the inner ear
c) the outer ear
d) the maxillary sinus

40.2.2.3 (2832)
Any prolonged exposure to noise in excess of 90 db can end up in
a) noise induced hearing loss
b) conductive hearing loss
c) presbycusis (eefects of aging)
d) a ruptured ear drum

40.2.2.3 (2833)
All pilots are going to suffer some hearing deterioration as part of the process of
growing old.The effects of aging
a) are to cut out the high tones first
b) are to cut out the low tones first
c) are to cut out all tones equally
d) will not affect a pilot's hearing if he is wearing ear-plugs all the time

40.2.2.3 (2834)
The human ear is capable of perceiving vibrations between the frequencies
a) 16 - 20,000 Hz
b) 0 - 16 Hz
c) 20,000 - 40,000 Hz
d) 30 - 15000 dB

478
40.2.2.3 (2835)
The intensity of a sound is measured in
a) decibels
b) hertz
c) cycles per second
d) curies

40.2.2.3 (2836)
The Eustachian tube connects:
a) the middle ear and the pharynx
b) the auditory duct and the inner ear
c) the semi circular canals
d) the middle ear and the inner ear

40.2.2.3 (2837)
Excessive exposure to noise damages:
a) the sensitive membrane in the cochlea
b) the semi circular canals
c) the ossicles
d) the eardrum

40.2.2.4 (2838)
Vibrations within the frequency band of 1/10 to 2 Hertz are a factor contributing to
air-sickness, because they
a) upset the vestibular apparatus
b) interfere with those of the own blood thus causing circulation problems
c) interfere with the frequencies of the central nervous system
d) make the stomach and its contents vibrating at the same frequency

40.2.2.4 (2839)
What is understood by air-sickness?
a) A sensory conflict within the vestibular system accompanied by nausea,
vomiting and fear
b) An illness caused by evaporation of gases in the blood
c) An illness caused by reduced air pressure
d) An illness caused by an infection of the middle ear

40.2.2.4 (2840)
When spinning an aircraft, the predominating type of acceleration will be
a) angular acceleration
b) radial acceleration
c) linear acceleration
d) vertical acceleration

40.2.2.4 (2841)
Tuned resonance of body parts, distressing the individual, can be caused by
a) vibrations from 1 to 100 Hz
b) vibrations from 16 Hz to 18 kHz
c) acceleration along the longitudonal body axis
d) angular velocity
479
40.2.2.4 (2842)
What could the crew do in order to avoid air-sickness with passengers?1. Avoid
turbulences.2. Avoid flying through rough weather.3. Seat passenger close to the
center of gravity.4. Give pertinent information.
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
c) 3 and 4 are correct, 1 and 2 are false
d) Only 4 is correct

40.2.2.4 (2843)
The probability to suffer from air-sickness is higher, when
a) the passenger or student is afraid and/or demotivated to fly
b) the passenger has taken anti-motion sickness remedies prior flight
c) the student ist motivated and adapted to the specific stimuli of flying
d) the student has good outside visual reference

40.2.2.4 (2844)
Which force(s) affect(s) the otoliths in the utriculus and sacculus?
a) Gravity and linear acceleration
b) Gravity alone
c) Linear acceleration and angular acceleration
d) Angular acceleration

40.2.2.4 (2845)
The semicircular canals of the inner ear monitor
a) angular accelerations
b) movements with constant speeds
c) relative speed and linear accelerations
d) gravity

40.2.2.4 (2846)
Which part of the vestibular apparatus is affected by changes in gravity and linear
acceleration?
a) The sacculus and utriculus
b) The semicircular canals
c) The cochlea
d) The eustachian tube

40.2.2.4 (2847)
Which part of the vestibular apparatus is responsible for the impression of angular
acceleration?
a) The semicircular canals
b) The cochlea
c) The sacculus and utriculus
d) The eustachian tube

40.2.2.4 (2848)
The vestibular organ
a) reacts to linear/angular acceleration and gravity
b) gives the impression of hearing
480
c) reacts to pressure changes in the middle ear
d) reacts to vibrations of the cochlea

40.2.2.4 (2849)
The cupula in the semicircular canal will be bent, when a rotation begins. This is
because
a) the fluid (endolymph) within the semicircular canal lags behind the accelerated
canal walls
b) the cupula will stay in place and give the correct impression
c) the fluid (endolymph) will preceed the accelerated canal walls
d) the cupula will bend on constant angular speeds

40.2.2.4 (2850)
The semicircular canals monitor
a) angular accelerations
b) relative speed
c) horizontal and vertical accelerations
d) gravity

40.2.2.4 (2851)
Changes in ambient pressure and accelerations during flight are important
physiological factors limiting the pilots performance if not taken into
consideration. Linear accelerations along the long axis of the body
a) change blood presssure and blood volume distribution in the body
b) will have an effect on blood pressure and blood flow if the accelerative force acts across the
body at right angles to the body axis
c) will not stimulate any of the vestibular organs
d) are of no interest when performing aerobatics

40.2.2.4 (2852)
The semicircular canals form part of the
a) inner ear
b) middle ear
c) ear drum
d) external ear

40.2.2.4 (2853)
Angular accelerations are picked up in the inner ear by
a) the semicircular canals
b) the tympanum
c) the saccule and the utricle
d) the cochlea

40.2.2.4 (2854)
The semicircular canals detect
a) angular accelerations
b) sound waves
c) linear accelerations
d) changes in arterial pressure
481
40.2.2.4 (2855)
Angular accelerations are perceived by:
a) the semi circular canals
b) the cochlea
c) the otholits
d) the receptors in the skin and the joints

40.2.2.4 (2856)
The otoliths in the inner ear are sensitive to:
a) linear acceleration and gravity
b) angular acceleration
c) angular speed
d) constant speed only

40.2.2.4 (2857)
Which of the following systems are involved in the appearance of motion
sickness ?-1 : Hearing-2 : The vestibular system-3 : Vision-4 The proprioceptive
senses ""Seat-of-the-Pants-Sense"")-5 : The gastrointestinal system
a) 2,3,4
b) 1,2,3
c) 2,3,4,5
d) 1,2,5

40.2.2.4 (2858)
Perceptual conflicts between the vestibular and visual systems are :1 - classic and
resistant when flying in IMC2 - sensed via impressions of rotation3 - sensed via
distorted impressions of the attitude of the aircraft4 - considerable during
prolonged shallow turns under IMC
a) 1,2,3,4
b) 2,3,4
c) 1,3
d) 3,4

40.2.2.4 (2859)
The vestibular system is composed of-1: two ventricles-2 : a saccule-3 : an
utricle-4 : three semicircular channels
a) 2,3,4
b) 1,4
c) 2,3
d) 1,3,4

40.2.2.4 (2860)
The inner ear is able to perceive: 1. angular acceleration 2. linear acceleration 3.
noise
a) 1 and 2 and 3 are correct
b) 2 and 3 are correct, 1 is false
c) 1 and 2 are correct, 3 is false
d) 2 is correct, 1 and 3 are both false

40.2.2.5 (2861)
Flying a coordinated level turn will 482
a) make the body`s pressure receptors feel an increased pressure along the body`s
vertical axis
b) first give the impression of climb , then the impression of descent
c) make the blood being pooled in the head
d) make the seat-of-the-pants sense feel a decreased pressure along the body`s vertical axis

40.2.2.5 (2862)
Being pressed into the seat can cause illusions and/or false reactions in a pilot
lacking visual contact to the ground, because this sensation
a) corresponds with the sensation a pilot gets when starting a climb or performing
a level turn
b) corresponds with the sensation a pilots gets, when flying straight and level or starting a
descent
c) makes the pilot to pull up the nose to compensate for level flight
d) will not stimulate the ""seat-of-the-pants"" sense

40.2.2.5 (2863)
Which sensations does a pilot get, when he is rolling out of a coordinated level
turn?
a) Descending and turning into the opposite direction
b) Flying straight and level
c) Climbing
d) Turning into the original direction

40.2.2.5 (2864)
How can a pilot prevent ""pilots-vertigo""?
a) Avoid steep turns and abrupt flight maneouvers and maintain an effective
instrument cross check.
b) Practise an extremely fast scanning technique using off-center vision.
c) Use the autopilot and disregard monitoring the instruments.
d) Maintain orientation on outside visual references as long as possible and rely upon the
senses of balance..

40.2.2.5 (2865)
How can a pilot overcome a vertigo, encountered during a real or simulated
instrument flight?1. Establish and maintain an effective instrument cross-check.2.
Always believe the instruments, never trust your sense of feeling.3. Ignore arising
illusions.4. Move the head sidewards and back and forth to ""shake-off"" illusions.
a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
b) 1and 2 are correct, 3 and 4 are false
c) Only 4 is correct
d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct

40.2.2.5 (2866)
The proprioceptive senses (seat-of-the-pants sense) are important for motor
coordination. They
a) are completely unreliable for orientation when flying in IMC
b) indicate the difference between gravity and G-forces
c) allow the pilot to determine the absolute vertical at flight condition
d) are important senses for flight training in IMC
483
40.2.2.5 (2867)
The so-called ""Seat-of-the-Pants"" sense is
a) not suitable for spatial orientation when outside visual references are lost
b) only to be used by experienced pilots with the permission to fly in IMC
c) useful for instrument and contact flight
d) the only sense a pilot can rely on, when flying in IMC

40.2.2.5 (2868)
Sensory input to the ""Seat-of-the-Pants"" sense is given by
a) subcutaneous pressure receptors and kinesthetic muscle activity sensors
b) blood rushing into legs
c) acceleration of the stomach (nausea)
d) pressure of the heart on the diaphragm

40.2.2.5 (2869)
Approaches at night without visual references on the ground and no landing aids
(e.g. VASIS) can make the pilot believe of beeing
a) higher than actual altitude with the risk of landing short (""ducking under"")
b) higher than actual altitude with the risk of overshooting
c) lower than actual altitude with the risk of overshooting
d) lower than actual altitude with the risk of ducking under

40.2.2.5 (2870)
A pilot is used to land on wide runways only. When approaching a smaller and/or
narrower runway, the pilot may feel he is at a
a) greater height than he actually is with the tendency to land short
b) lower than actual height with the tendency to overshoot
c) greater height and the impression of landing short
d) lower height and the impression of landing slow

40.2.2.5 (2871)
A pilot approaching a runway which is narrower than normal may feel he is at a
greater height than he actually is. To compensate he may fly a
a) flatter than normal approach with the tendency to undershoot
b) compensatory glide path and land long
c) compensatory glide path and stall out
d) higher than normal approach with the tendency to overshoot

40.2.2.5 (2872)
The proprioceptive senses (""Seat of-the-Pants-Sense"")
a) give wrong information, when outside visual reference is lost
b) is a natural human instinct, always indicating the correct attitude
c) can be used, if trained, to avoid spatial disorientation in IMC
d) can neither be used for motor coordination in IMC and VMC

40.2.2.5 (2873)
The most probable reason for spatial disorientation is
a) a poor instrument cross-check and permanently transitioning back and forth
between instruments and visual references
b) the lack of attention to the vertical speed indicator
484
c) to rely on instruments when flying in and out of clouds
d) to believe the attitude indicator

40.2.2.5 (2874)
What should a pilot do if he has no information about the dimensions of the
runway and the condition of the terrain underneath the approach? He should
a) make an instrument approach and be aware of the illusory effects that can be
induced
b) be aware that approaches over downsloping terrain will make him believe that he is higher
than actual
c) make a visual approach and call the tower for assistance
d) be aware that approaches over water always make the pilot feel that he is lower than
actual height

40.2.2.5 (2875)
Orientation in flight is accomplished by1. eyes2. utriculus and sacculus3.
semicircular canals4. Seat-of-the-pants-Sense
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
b) only 1 and 4 are correct
c) 2, 3 and 4 are correct , 1 is false
d) 2, 3 and 4 are false, only 1 is correct

40.2.2.5 (2876)
The ""Seat-of-the-Pants-Sense""
a) can give false inputs to body orientation when visual reference is lost
b) is a natural human instinct which will always indicate the correct body position in space
c) can be used, if trained, to avoid disorientation in space
d) can be used as a reference for determining attitude when operating in visual and
instrument meteorological conditions

40.2.2.5 (2877)
The Seat-of-the-Pants Sense is including receptors in the
a) muscles, tendons and joints sensitive to the position and movement of body
parts
b) semicircular canals
c) utriculus and sacculus
d) skin of the breech only

40.2.2.5 (2878)
A pilot is used to land on small and narrow runways only. Approaching a larger and
wider runway can lead to :
a) an early or high ""round out""
b) a steeper than normal approach dropping low
c) a flatter than normal approach with the risk of ""ducking under""
d) the risk to land short of the overrun

40.2.2.5 (2879)
The impression of an apparent movement of light when stared at for a relatively
long period of time in the dark is called
a) ""autokinesis""
485
b) ""white out""
c) ""oculogyral illusion""
d) ""oculografic illusion""

40.2.2.5 (2880)
Which problem may occur, when flying in an environment of low contrast (fog,
snow, darkness, haze)?Under these conditions it is:
a) difficult to estimate the correct speed and size of approaching objects
b) impossible to detect objects
c) no problem to estimate the correct speed and size of approaching objects
d) improbable to get visual illusions

40.2.2.5 (2881)
A pilot approaching an upslope runway
a) may feel that he is higher than actual. This illusion may cause him to land short.
b) is performing a steeper than normal approach, landing long
c) establishes a higher than normal approach speed
d) establishes a slower than normal approach speed with the risk of stalling out

40.2.2.5 (2882)
The area in front of a threshold descends towards the threshold.Possible danger is:
a) approach is higher than normal and may result in a long landing
b) to drop far below the glide path
c) approach is lower than normal and may result in a short landing
d) to misjudge the length of the runway

40.2.2.5 (2883)
Dizziness and tumbling sensations, when making head movements in a tight turn,
are symptoms of
a) ""Pilot`s vertigo""
b) ""Nystagmus""
c) ""Flicker-vertigo""
d) ""Oculogravic illusion""

40.2.2.5 (2884)
""Pilot's vertigo""
a) is the condition of dizziness and/or tumbling sensation caused by contradictory
impulses to the central nervous system (CNS)
b) is the sensation to keep a rotation after completing a turn
c) is the sensation of climbing caused by a strong linear acceleration
d) announces the beginning of airsickness

40.2.2.5 (2885)
What can a pilot do to avoid ""Flicker vertigo"" when flying in the clouds?
a) Switch strobe-lights off
b) Dim the cockpit lights to avoid reflections
c) Engage the autopilot until breaking the clouds
d) Fly straight and level and avoid head movements

40.2.2.5 (2886)
What do you do, when you are affected by ""pilot`s vertigo""?1. Establish and486
maintain an effective instrument cross-check.2. Believe the instruments.3. Ignore
illusions.4. Minimize head movements.
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
c) 1 and 2 are correct, 3 and 4 are false
d) Only 4 is false

40.2.2.5 (2887)
A pilot is prone to get vertigo, as visibility is impaired (dust, smoke, snow). What is
the correct action to prevent vertigo?
a) Depend on the instruments
b) Reduce rate of breathing until all symptoms disappear, then breathe normal again
c) Concentrate on the vertical speedometer
d) Depend on information from the semicircular canals of the inner ear, because those are the
only ones giving correct information

40.2.2.5 (2888)
The risk of getting a spatial disorientation is growing, when
a) there is contradictory information between the instruments and the vestibular
organs
b) the pilot is buckled too tight to his seat and cannot sense the attitude changes of the
aircraft by his Seat-of-the-Pants-Sense
c) the pilot is performing an effective instrument cross-check and is ignoring illusions
d) informations from the vestibular organ in the inner ear are ignored

40.2.2.5 (2889)
Vertigo is the result of
a) ""Coriolis-effect""
b) ""Oculogyral illusion""
c) ""Autokinetic-illusion""
d) ""Elevator illusion""

40.2.2.5 (2890)
Which flight-maneouvre will most likely induce vertigo? Turning the head while
a) banking
b) climbing
c) descending
d) flying straight and level

40.2.2.5 (2891)
With ""vertigo"" the instrument-panel seems to tumble . This is due to
a) the coriolis effect in the semicircular canals
b) tuned resonance caused by vibration
c) conflicting information between the semicircular canals and the tympanic membrane
d) oxygen deficiency

40.2.2.5 (2892)
""Pilot's vertigo"":
a) is a sensation of rotation during flight due to multiple irritation of several
semicircular canals at the same time
487
b) the impression of flying straight and level while the aircraft is spinning
c) a sudden loss of visual perception during flight due to multiple irritation of the utriculus and
sacculus at the same time
d) the impression of climbing when banking

40.2.2.5 (2893)
What is the name for the sensation of rotation occuring during flight and which is
caused by multiple irritation of several semicircular canals at the same time?
a) ""Pilot's"" Vertigo.
b) Sudden incapacitation.
c) ""Seat-of-the-Pants"" illusions.
d) Graveyard spin.

40.2.2.5 (2894)
Without visual reference, what illusion could the pilot get, when he is stopping the
rotation to recover from a spin? He will get the illusion of
a) spinning into the opposite direction
b) spinning into the same direction
c) straight and level flight
d) climbing and turning into the original direction of the spin

40.2.2.5 (2895)
Starting a coordinated level turn can make the pilot believe to
a) climb
b) descent
c) turn into the opposite direction
d) increase the rate of turn into the same direction

40.2.2.5 (2896)
When accelerating forward the otoliths in the utriculus/sacculus will
a) give the illusion of climbing (body tilting backwards, nose of the a/c going up)
b) give the illusion of banking
c) give the illusion of straight and level flight
d) give the illusion of descending (body tilting downwards, or forwards, nose of the airplane
going down)

40.2.2.5 (2897)
A pilot, accelerating or decelerating in level flight may get:
a) the illusion of climbing or descending
b) the feeling of rotation
c) the illusion to turn
d) the impression of stationary objects moving to the right or left

40.2.2.5 (2898)
To prevent vertigo in flight we should
a) not move the head suddenly while we are turning
b) look towards the sides when we make a turn
c) breath deeply but control the respiratory frequency
d) keep breathing normally

488
40.2.2.5 (2899)
When stopping the rotation of a spin we have the sensation
a) that we are starting a spin into the opposite direction
b) of turning in the same direction
c) of the sharp dipping of the nose of the aircraft
d) of the immediate stabilization of the aircraft

40.2.2.5 (2900)
When accelerating in level flight we could experience the sensation of a
a) climb
b) descent
c) turn
d) spin

40.2.2.5 (2901)
During flight in IMC, the most reliable sense which should be used to overcome
illusions is the:
a) visual sense, interpreting the attitude indicator
b) ""Seat-of-the-pants-Sense""
c) vestibular sense
d) visual sense by looking outside

40.2.2.5 (2902)
Spatial disorientation will be most likely to occur during flight:
a) if the brain receives conflicting informations and the pilot does not believe the
instruments
b) when flying in and out of clouds and the pilot maintains good instrument cross check
c) when flying in light rain below the ceiling
d) when flying in bright sunlight above a cloud layer

40.2.2.5 (2903)
Autokinetic illusion is:
a) an illusion in which a stationary point of light, if stared at for several seconds in
the dark, may - without a frame of reference - appear to move
b) the sensation during a radial acceleration of seeing a fixed reference point moving into the
opposite direction of the acceleration
c) a conflict between the visual system and bodily sensations
d) poor interpretation of the surrounding world

40.2.2.5 (2904)
With regard to illusions due to perceptive conflicts, it may be said that they:
a) are mainly due to a sensory conflict concerning perception of the vertical and
the horizontal between the vestibular and the visual system
b) originate from a conflict between instrument readings and external visual perceptions
c) are caused by the absence of internal visual cues exclusively
d) are caused by a conflictual disagreement concerning attitudinal perception between the
various members of a crew

40.2.2.5 (2905)
Visual disturbances can be caused by:1. hyperventilation2. hypoxia3.
489
hypertension4. fatigue
a) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
c) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
d) 2, 3 and 4 are correct

40.2.2.5 (2906)
Desorientation is more likely to occur when the pilot is:1. flying in IMC2. frequently
changing between inside and outside references3. flying from IMC into VMC4.
having a cold
a) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
c) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
d) 1, 3 and 4 are correct

40.2.2.5 (2907)
Positive linear accelleration when flying in IMC may cause a false sensation of:
a) pitching up
b) pitching down
c) apparent sideward movement of objects in the field of vision
d) vertigo

40.2.2.5 (2908)
Linear accelleration when flying straight and level in IMC may give the illusion of:
a) climbing
b) descending
c) yawing
d) spinning

40.2.2.5 (2909)
Coriolis illusion, causing spatial disorientation is the result of:
a) simultaneous head movements during aircraft manoeuvres
b) undergoing positive G
c) gazing in the direction of a flashing light
d) normal deterioration of the semicircular canals with age

40.2.2.5 (2910)
When turning in IMC , head movements should be avoided as much as possible.
This is a prevention against:
a) coriolis illusion
b) autokinesis
c) oculogyral illusion
d) pressure vertigo

40.2.2.5 (2911)
Which of the following illusions are brought about by conflicts between the visual
system and the vestibular system ?-1: Illusions concerning the attitude of the
aircraft-2: Autokinetic illusion (fixed point viewed as moving)-3: Illusions when
estimating the size and distance of objects-4 : Illusions of rotation
a) 1,4
b) 2,3,4
490
c) 2
d) 3,4

40.2.2.5 (2912)
A pilot, trying to pick up a fallen object from the cockpit floor during a tight turn,
experiences:
a) coriolis illusion
b) autokinetic illusion
c) barotrauma
d) pressure vertigo

40.2.2.5 (2913)
When a pilot is starring at an isolated stationary light for several seconds in the
dark he might get the illusion that:
a) the light is moving
b) the size of the lightis varying
c) the intensity of the light is varying
d) the colour of the light is varying

40.2.2.5 (2914)
When you stare at a single light against the dark (f.e. an isolated star) you will find
the light appears to move after some time. This phenomenon is called:
a) autokinetic phenomenon
b) black hole illusion
c) coriolis illusion
d) leans

40.2.2.5 (2915)
How is haze effecting your perception?
a) Objects seem to be further away than in reality.
b) Objects will give better contrast.
c) Haze makes the eyes to focus at infinity
d) Objects seem to be closer than in reality.

40.2.2.5 (2916)
The 'Black hole' phenomenon occurs during approaches at night and over water,
jungle or desert. When the pilot is lacking of visual cues other than those of the
aerodrome there is an illusion of
a) being too high and too far away, dropping low and landing short
b) being too close, landing long
c) climbing
d) being too low, flying a steeper approach than normal

40.2.2.5 (2917)
You fly VFR from your home base (runway width 27 m), to an international airport
(runway width 45 m). On reaching your destination there is a risk of performing a:
a) high approach with overshoot
b) high approach with undershoot
c) low approach with overshoot
d) low approach with undershoot
491
40.2.2.5 (2918)
You fly VFR from your home base (runway width 45 m) to a small airfield (runway
width 27 m). On reaching your destination there is a risk of performing a:
a) low approach with undershoot
b) high approach with overshoot
c) high approach with undershoot
d) low approach with overshoot

40.2.2.5 (2919)
1. In case of conflicting information you can always trust your Seat- of-the-Pants-
Sense.2. In case of conflicting information between the sensory organs and the
instruments you must believe the instruments.
a) 1 is false, 2 is correct
b) 1 and 2 are correct
c) 1 is correct, 2 is false
d) 1 and 2 are false

40.2.2.5 (2920)
How can spatial disorientation in IMC be avoided? By
a) maintaining a good instrument cross check.
b) believing your body senses only.
c) moving the head into the direction of the resultant vertical.
d) looking outside whenever possible ignoring the attitude indicator.

40.2.2.5 (2921)
Which procedure is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation?
a) Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments.
b) Tilt your head to the side to get better informations from the semicircular canals.
c) Rely on the Seat-of-the-Pants-Sense.
d) Get adapted to low levels of illumination before flying and use off-center vision all the time.

40.2.2.5 (2922)
How can a pilot prevent spatial disorientation in flight?
a) Establish and maintain a good instrument cross check.
b) Always try to catch outside visual cues.
c) Rely on good situational awareness believing your natural senses.
d) Rely on the kinaesthetic sense.

40.2.2.5 (2923)
If you are subjected to an illusion during night flying you should:
a) continue on instruments
b) dim the cockpit lighting
c) scan the surroundings
d) use your oxygen mask

40.2.2.5 (2924)
If you are disorientated during night flying you must:
a) relay on instruments
b) look outside
c) descend
d) check your rate of breathing - do not breathe too fast 492
40.2.3.0 (2925)
Which of the following statements are correct ?1 Hypothermia affects physical and
mental abilities.2 Man has effective natural protection against intense cold.3
Shivering makes it possible to combat the cold to a certain extent, but uses up a lot
of energy4 Disorders associated with hypothermia appear at a body temperature
of less than 35°C
a) 1,3,4
b) 1,2,3
c) 2,4
d) 2,3,4

40.2.3.0 (2926)
Our body takes its energy from :1: minerals2: protein3: carbonhydrates4:
vitamines
a) 2,3
b) 1,2,3,4
c) 1,4
d) 1,3

40.2.3.0 (2927)
Which of the following mechanisms regulate body temperature when expored to
extreme high environmental temperatures?-1 : Shivering-2 : Vasoconstriction of
peripheral blood vessels-3 : Sweating-4 : Vasodilation of peripheral blood vessels
a) 3,4
b) 1,3,4
c) 2,3
d) 1

40.2.3.0 (2928)
The following can be observed when the internal body temperature falls below
35°C :
a) shivering, will tend to cease, and be followed by the onset of apathy
b) the appearance of intense shivering
c) mental disorders, and even coma
d) profuse sweating

40.2.3.0 (2929)
We can observe the following in relation to a state of hypothermia :
a) reasoning problems as soon as body temperature falls below 37°C
b) a substantial increase in internal body temperature whereas peripheral temperature at the
skin is stable
c) a rapid fall in ambient temperature
d) greater capacity for adaptation than in a hot atmosphere

40.2.3.0 (2930)
What is meant by metabolism ?
a) The transformation by which energy is made available for the uses of the
organism
b) Information exchange
c) Transfer of chemical messages
d) Exchange of substances between the lung and the blood 493
40.2.3.0 (2931)
One of the waste products of the metabolic process in the cell is :
a) water
b) protein
c) sugar
d) fat

40.2.3.0 (2932)
The body loses water via:1. the skin and the lungs2. the kidneys
a) 1 and 2 are correct
b) 1 is correct and 2 is not correct
c) 1 is not correct and 2 is correct
d) both are false

40.2.3.2 (2933)
It is inadvisable to fly when suffering from a cold. The reason for this is:
a) pain and damage to the eardrum can result, particularly during fast descents
b) gentle descents at high altitude can result in damage to the ear drum
c) swollen tissue in the inner ear will prevent the air from ventilating through the tympanic
membrane
d) swollen tissue in the Eustachian tube will cause permanent hearing loss

40.2.3.2 (2934)
It is inadvisable to fly when suffering from a cold. The reason for this is:
a) the tissue around the nasal end of the Eustachian tube is likely to be swollen
thus causing difficulty in equalising the pressure within the middle ear and the
nasal/throat area. Pain and damage to the eardrum can result, particularly during
fast descents
b) although the change in air pressure during a climb at lower altitudes is very small, it
increases rapidly at high altitudes. If the tissue in the Eustachian tube of the ear is swollen,
gentle descents at high alltitude would result in damage to the ear drum
c) swollen tissue in the inner ear will increase the rate of metabolic production resulting in
hyperventilation
d) because it will seriously affect peripheral vision

40.2.3.2 (2935)
Exchange of gasses between the body and the environment takes place at the:
a) lungs
b) heart
c) muscles
d) central nervous system

40.2.3.2 (2936)
The following occurs in man if the internal body temperature increases to 38°C :
a) impairment of physical and mental performance
b) apathy
c) considerable dehydration
d) nothing signifiant happens at this temperature. The first clinical signs only start to appear at
39°C

494
40.2.3.2 (2937)
Having a serious cold it is better not to fly, due to the extra risk of:1. flatulence2.
pain in the ear during descent3. pressure vertigo4. pain in the nasal sinuses
a) 2,3 and 4 are correct
b) 1 and 2 are correct
c) 1,3 and 4 are correct
d) 1,2 and 4 are correct

40.2.3.2 (2938)
Having a serious cold, you are going to fly. What can you expect:
a) pain in the sinuses
b) bends
c) chokes
d) hypoxia

40.2.3.3 (2939)
Which of the following factors may have an influence on medical disqualification?
a) High and low blood pressure as well as a poor condition of the circulatory
system.
b) High blood pressure only.
c) Blood pressure problems cannot occur in aircrew because they always can be treated by in-
flight medication.
d) Low blood pressure only.

40.2.3.3 (2940)
When assessing an individuals risk in developing coronary artery disease, the
following factors may contribute:1.obesity2.distress3.smoking4.family history
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
b) 2 and 3 are correct, 1 and 4 are false
c) Only 3 is correct, 1, 2 and 4 are false
d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false

40.2.3.3 (2941)
Noise induced hearing loss is influenced by
a) the duration and intensity of a noise
b) the duration of a noise but not its intensity
c) the suddenness of onset of a noise
d) the intensity of the noise but not its duration

40.2.3.3 (2942)
To reduce the risk of coronary artery disease, exercise should be
a) double the resting heart rate for at least 20 minutes, three times a week
b) avoided since raising the heart rate shortens the life of the heart
c) double the resting heart rate for at least an hour, five times a week
d) triple the resting heart rate for 20 minutes, once a week

40.2.3.3 (2943)
Which of the following is most true?
a) Regular exercise is beneficial to general health, but the most efficient way to
lose weight is by reducing caloric consumption
b) Regular exercise is an impediment to losing weight since it increases the metabolic rate 495
c) Regular exercise is beneficial to general health, and is the only effective way to lose weight
d) Regular exercise and reduction in caloric consumption are both essential in order to lose
weight

40.2.3.3 (2944)
Conductive hearing loss can be caused by: 1. damage to the ossicles in the middle
ear caused by infection or trauma 2. a damage of the auditory nerve 3. an
obstruction in the auditory duct 4. a ruptured tympanic membrane
a) 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
b) 2,3 and 4 are correct, 1 is false
c) 1,2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
d) 1,3 and 4 are correct, 2 is false

40.2.3.3 (2945)
Noise induced hearing loss (NIHL) is caused by:
a) damage of the sensitive membrane in the cochlea due to overexposure to noise
b) a blocked Eustachian tube
c) pressure differences on both sides of the eardrum
d) reduced mobility of the ossicles

40.2.3.3 (2946)
Which of the following statements about hyperthermia is correct ?
a) Complete adaption to the heat in a hot country takes about a fortnight.
b) Vasodilation is the only regulant which is capable of reducing body temperature.
c) Evaporation is more effective when ambient humidity is high.
d) Performance is not impaired by an increase in body temperature to 40°C or more.

40.2.3.3 (2947)
Visual acuity during flight at high altitudes can be affected by: 1. anaemia 2.
smoking in the cockpit 3. carbon monoxide poisoning 4. hypoxia
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
b) 1,2 and 3 are correct
c) 2,3 and 4 are correct
d) 1,3 and 4 are correct

40.2.3.4 (2948)
Alcohol, even when taken in minor quantities
a) can make the brain cells to be more susceptible to hypoxia
b) will stimulate the brain, making the pilot resistant to hypoxia
c) will have no effect at all
d) may improve the mental functions, so that the symptoms of hypoxia are much better to be
identified

40.2.3.4 (2949)
Concerning flying and blood alcohol content the following statement is correct:
a) no flying under the influence of alcohol
b) flying with up to 0.05 % blood alcohol
c) flying with up to 0.15 % blood alcohol
d) flying with up to 0.08 % blood alcohol is safe, since driving is safe up to this limit

496
40.2.3.4 (2950)
The metabolisation of alcohol
a) is a question of time
b) is quicker when used to it
c) can be accelerated even more by coffee
d) can be influenced by easy to get medication

40.2.3.4 (2951)
Concerning the effects of drugs and pilot´s performance
a) the primary and the side effects have to be considered
b) the side effects only have to be considered
c) medication has no influence on pilot´s performance
d) only the primary effect has to be considered, side effects are negligable

40.2.3.4 (2952)
Drugs against allergies (antihistamines), when taken by an aviator can cause the
following undesirable effects:1. Drowsiness, dizziness2. Dry mouth3. Headaches4.
Impaired depth perception5. Nausea
a) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 are correct
b) only 3, 4 and 5 are correct
c) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
d) only 1 is correct

40.2.3.4 (2953)
The consumption of medicines or other substances may have consequences on
qualification to fly for the following reasons:1. The desease requiring a treatment
may be cause for disqualification.2. Flight conditions may modify the reactions of
the body to a treatment.3. Drugs may cause adverse side effects impairing flight
safety.4. The effects of medicine do not necessarily immediately disappear when
the treatment is stopped.
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
c) 3 and 4 are false, 1 and 2 are correct.
d) Only 2 is false.

40.2.3.4 (2954)
Cigarette smoking has particular significance to the flyer, because there are long-
term and short-term harmful effects. From cigarette smoking the pilot can get:
a) a mild carbon monoxide poisoning decreasing the pilot´s tolerance to hypoxia
b) a mild carbon dioxide poisoning increasing the pilot's tolerance to hypoxia
c) a mild carbon monoxide poisoning increasing the pilot´s tolerance to hypoxia
d) a suppressed desire to eat and drink

40.2.3.4 (2955)
A pilot who smokes will loose some of his capacity to transport oxygen combined
with hemoglobin. Which percentage of his total oxygen transportation capacity
would he give away when he smokes one pack of cigarettes a day?
a) 5 - 8%
b) 0.5 - 2%
c) 12 - 18%
d) 20 - 25% 497
40.2.3.4 (2956)
Flying at pressure altitude of 10 000 ft, a pilot, being a moderate to heavy smoker,
has an oxygen content in the blood equal to an altitude
a) above 10 000 FT
b) of 10 000 FT
c) lower than 10 000 FT
d) of 15000 FT when breathing 100% oxygen

40.2.3.4 (2957)
Which of the following applies when alcohol has been consumed?
a) Even after the consumption of small amounts of alcohol, normal cautionary
attitudes may be lost
b) Drinking coffee at the same time will increase the elimination rate of alcohol
c) Small amounts of alcohol increase visual performance
d) Acute effects of alcohol cease immediately when 100% oxygen is taken

40.2.3.4 (2958)
Alcohol, when taken simultaneously with drugs, may
a) intensify the effects of the drugs
b) compensate for side effects of drugs
c) show undesired effects only during night flights
d) increase the rate of alcohol elimination from the blood

40.2.3.4 (2959)
Alcohol metabolism (elimination rate)
a) is approx. 0.015% per hour and cannot be expedited
b) is approx. 0.3% per hour
c) depends on wether you get some sleep in between drinks
d) definitely depends on the amount and composition of food which has been eaten

40.2.3.4 (2960)
When drugs against sleep disorders and/or nervosity have been taken and the
pilot intends to fly, attention has to be payed to
a) the effect they have on reaction time and perceptional awareness
b) the effect they have on hearing
c) the fact that there is no difference in the quality of sleep produced under the influence of
those drugs compared to normal drug-free sleep
d) schedule only those pilots, who show no reactions to these medications

40.2.3.4 (2961)
The rate of absorption of alcohol depends on many factors. However, the rate of
metabolism or digestion of alcohol in the body is relatively constant. It is about
a) 0,01 - 0,015 mg % per hour
b) 0,02 - 0,05 mg % per hour
c) 0,2 - 0,25 mg % per hour
d) 0,3 - 0,35 mg % per hour

40.2.3.4 (2962)
A slight lack of coordination which can make it difficult to carry out delicate and
precise movements occurs when the level of alcohol in the blood is exceeding
a) 0.05 % blood alcohol 498
b) 0.1 % blood alcohol
c) 0.15 % blood alcohol
d) 0.2 % blood alcohol

40.2.3.4 (2963)
The carcinogen (a substance with the ability to produce modifications in cells
which develop a cancer) in the bronchi of the lungs is
a) tar
b) nicotine
c) carbon monoxide
d) lead

40.2.3.4 (2964)
One of the substances present in the smoke of cigarettes can make it significantly
more difficult for the red blood cells to transport oxygen and as a consequence
contributes to hypoxia. Which substance are we referring to?
a) Carbon monoxide
b) Carbonic anhydride
c) Tar
d) Carbon dioxide

40.2.3.4 (2965)
The so-called Coriolis effect (a conflict in information processing in the brain) in
spatial disorientation occurs:
a) on stimulating several semicircular canals simultaneously
b) on stimulating the saccule and the utricle of the inner ear
c) on stimulating the cochlea intensely
d) when no semicircular canal is stimulated

40.2.3.4 (2966)
The chemical substance responsible for addiction to tobacco is
a) nicotine
b) carbon monoxide
c) tar
d) the combination of nicotine, tar and carbon monoxide

40.2.3.4 (2967)
A large number of medical preparations can be bought without a doctor´s
prescription. In relation to using these preparations, which of the following is
correct:
a) A pilot using any of these preparations should get professional advice from a
flight surgeon if he intends to fly and self-medicate at the same time
b) They have no side effects which would give problems to a pilot during flight
c) The side effects of these types of preparations are sufficiently negligible as to be ignored by
pilots
d) They will cause a condition of over-arousal

40.2.3.4 (2968)
Carbon monoxide, a product of incomplete combustion, is toxic because
a) it competes with oxygen in its union with haemoglobin
499
b) it prevents the absorption of food from the digestive tract
c) it prevents the excretion of catabolites in the kidneys
d) it disturbs gaseous diffusion at the alveoli capillary membrane

40.2.3.4 (2969)
Carbon monoxide is always present in the exhaust gases of engines. If a pilot is
exposed to carbon monoxide, which of the following responses is correct?
a) A short exposure to relatively high concentrations of carbon monoxide can
seriously affect a pilot´s ability to operate an aircraft.
b) Carbon monoxide is easily recognised by odour and taste.
c) Carbon monoxide can only affect pilots if they are exposed to them for a long period of
time.
d) When exposed to carbon monoxide for a long period of time, the body will adapt to it and
no adverse physical effects are experienced

40.2.3.4 (2970)
Adverse effects of carbon monoxide increase as:
a) altitude increases
b) altitude decreases
c) air pressure increases
d) relative humidity decreases

40.2.3.4 (2971)
Which statement is correct regarding alcohol in the human body?
a) Judgement and decision making can be affected even by a small amount of
alcohol.
b) A small amount of alcohol increases visual acuity.
c) An increase of altitude decreases the adverse effect of alcohol.
d) When drinking coffee, the human body metabolizes alcohol at a faster rate than normal.

40.2.3.4 (2972)
Which statement is correct? 1. Smokers have a greater chance of suffering from
coronary heart disease 2. Smoking tobacco will raise the individuals pysiological
altitude during flight3. Smokers have a greater chance of decreasing ung cancer
a) 1,2 and 3 are correct
b) 1 and 2 are correct, 3 is false
c) 1 and 3 are correct, 2 is false
d) 2 and 3 are correct, 1 is false

40.2.3.4 (2973)
Smoking cigarettes reduces the capability of the blood to carry oxygen. This is
because:
a) hemoglobin has a greater affinity for carbon monoxide than it has for oxygen
b) carbon monoxide in the smoke of cigarettes assists diffusion of oxygen in the alveoli
c) carbon monoxide increases the partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli
d) the smoke of one cigarette can cause an obstruction in the respiratory tract

40.2.3.4 (2974)
CO (carbon monoxide) present in the smoke of cigarettes can lead to: 1. reduction
of time of usefull consciousness 2. hypoxia at a much lower altitude than normal
a) 1 and 2 are both correct
b) 1 is correct, 2 is false 500
c) 1 is false, 2 is correct
d) 1 and 2 are both false

40.2.3.4 (2975)
Carbon monoxide in the human body can lead to: 1. loss of muscular power2.
headache 3. impaired judgement 4. pain in the joints 5. loss of consciousness
a) 1, 2 , 3 and 5 are correct
b) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
c) 2 and 3 are correct, 1 is false
d) 1, 2, 3, 4 are correct

40.2.3.6 (2976)
Incapacitation is most dangerous when it is :
a) insinuating
b) obvious
c) sudden
d) intense

40.3.1.0 (2977)
The human information processing system is highly efficient compared to
computers because of its
a) flexibility
b) speed
c) working memory capacity
d) independancy from attention

40.3.1.0 (2978)
In an abnormal situation the pilot has an apparently correct explanation for the
problem. The chance that he/she now ignores or devalues other relevant
information, not fitting into his/her mental picture is:
a) increasing
b) the same, no matter if he/she has already made up his/her mind
c) not applicable with old and experienced pilots
d) decreasing

40.3.1.0 (2979)
Many pilots think up systems to deal with affairs so they don't have to think up
every time what they have to do.
a) this has to be posetively appreciated for it increases consistency in action
b) this is dangerous for every situation is different
c) this has to be rejected for the company draws the rules and the procedures they have to
comply with
d) this has to be advised against for it reduces flexibility at a moment a problem has to be
solved by improvisation.

40.3.1.1 (2980)
Mental schemes correspond to:
a) memorised representations of the various procedures and situations which can
be reactivated by the pilot at will
b) the memorisation of regulatory procedures associated with a particular situation
c) memorised procedures which develop and change rapidly during change-over to a new501
machine
d) daily planning of probable dangerous situations

40.3.1.1 (2981)
The acquisition of expertise comprises three stages ( Anderson model):
a) cognitive, associative and autonomous
b) cognitive, associative and knowledge
c) associative, autonomous and expert
d) automatic, cognitive and knowledge

40.3.1.1 (2982)
A pilot can be described as being proficient, when he/she:
a) has automated a large part of the necessary flight deck routine operations in
order to free his/her cognitive resources
b) is able to reduce his/her arousal to a low level during the entire flight
c) knows how to invest the maximum resources in the automation of tasks in real time
d) is capable of maintaining a high level of arousal during a great bulk of the flight

40.3.1.1 (2983)
The ability of detecting relevant information which is not presented in an actively
monitored input channel is known as
a) attention
b) perception
c) sensation
d) appreciation

40.3.1.1 (2984)
According to Wicken's theory, the human brain has:
a) different reservoirs of resources depending on whether one is in the
information-gathering, information-processing or action phase
b) unlimited information-processing resources
c) cognitive resources which are centered on action
d) processing capabilities which function at peak level when different tasks call for the same
resources

40.3.1.1 (2985)
The available cognitive resources of the human brain:
a) are limited and make it impossible to perform two attentional tasks at the same
time
b) are limited but make it possible to easily perform several tasks at the same time
c) are virtually unlimited
d) allow for twin-tasks operation without any loss of effectiveness

40.3.1.1 (2986)
Concentration is essential for pilots.
a) However, capacity of concentration is limited
b) It only takes a little willpower to increase one's capacity of concentration without limits
c) Vigilance is all that is required to be attentive
d) All intellectual processes, including very routined ones, make demands on resources and
therefore on one's concentration
502
40.3.1.1 (2987)
The 'cocktail party effect' is
a) the ability to pick up relevant information unintentionally
b) the ability to drink too much at social gathering
c) the tendency to believe information that reinforces our mental model of the world
d) the tendency not to perceive relevant information

40.3.1.1 (2988)
Which of the following tasks are possible to do simultaneously without mutual
interference?
a) Maintain manual straight and level flight and solve a problem.
b) Listen attentively and solve a problem.
c) Talk and rehearse a frequency in working memory.
d) Read and listen attentively.

40.3.1.1 (2989)
A selective attentional mechanism is required
a) because of the limited capacity of the central decision maker and working
memory
b) because the capacity of the long term memory is limited
c) because of the limitations of the sense organs
d) because of limitations in our store of motor programmes

40.3.1.1 (2990)
If a pilot has to perform two tasks requiring the allocation of cognitive resources :
a) the sharing of resources causes performance on each task to be reduced
b) a person reaches his limits as from simultaneous tasks, and performance will then tail off
c) the only way of not seeing performance tail off is to switch to knowledge-based mode for
the two tasks
d) the only way of not seeing performance tail off is to switch to rules-based mode for the two
tasks

40.3.1.1 (2991)
Which of the following are the most favourable solutions to manage phases of
reduced or low vigilance (hypovigilance)?1. Healthy living2. Use of
amphetamines3. Reducing the intensity of the light4. Organising periods of rest
during the flight
a) 1,4
b) 1,2
c) 1,3
d) 3,4

40.3.1.1 (2992)
What are main signs indicating the loss of vigilance ?1. Decrease in sensory
perception2. Increase in selective attention3. Sensation of muscular heaviness4.
Decrease in complacency
a) 1,3
b) 1,4
c) 2,3
d) 2,4
503
40.3.1.1 (2993)
What is ""divided attention""?
a) Alternative management of several matters of interest
b) Ease of concentrating on a particular objective
c) Difficulty of concentrating on a particular objective
d) The adverse effect of motivation which leads to one's attention being dispersed

40.3.1.1 (2994)
Which of the following statements concerning hypovigilance is correct ?
Hypovigilance :
a) may occur at any moment of the flight
b) essentially occurs several minutes after the intense take-off phase
c) tends to occur at the end of the mission as a result of a relaxation in the operators'
attention
d) only affects certain personality types

40.3.1.1 (2995)
What are the main factors which bring about reduced or low vigilance
(hypovigilance) ?1. The monotony of the task2. Tiredness,the need for sleep3. A
lack of stimulation4. Excessive stress
a) 1,2,3
b) 2,4
c) 1,3
d) 3,4

40.3.1.1 (2996)
With regard to the level of automation of behaviours in the attention mechanism,
we know that :
a) the more behaviour is automated, the less it requires conscious attention and
thus the more it frees mental resources
b) the more behaviour is automated, the more it requires attention and the more it frees
resources
c) the more behaviour is automated, the more it requires attention and the less it frees
resources
d) the less behaviour is automated, the less it requires attention and the more it frees
resources

40.3.1.1 (2997)
What are the various factors which guide attention ?1. The level of automation of
behaviour2. Response time3. The salience of the information4. Expectations
a) 1,3,4
b) 1,4
c) 1,2
d) 2,3,4

40.3.1.1 (2998)
Check the following statements:1. The first information received determines how
subsequent information will be evaluated.2. If one has made up one's mind,
contradictory information may not get the attention it really needs.3. With
increasing stress, channelizing attention is limiting the flow of information to the
central decision maker (CNS).
504
a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
b) 1and 3 are correct
c) 1 and 2 are correct
d) 2 and 3 are correct

40.3.1.2 (2999)
Conscious perception
a) is a mental process involving experience and expectations
b) relies upon the development of intuition
c) involves the transfer of information from the receptor to the brain only
d) relates to the correct recognition of colours

40.3.1.2 (3000)
The first stage in the information process is
a) sensory stimulation
b) perception
c) selective attention
d) the recognition of information

40.3.1.2 (3001)
Our mental model of the world is based
a) on both our past experiences and the sensory information we receive
b) entirely on the sensory information we receive
c) entirely on past experiences
d) on both our past experiences and our motor programmes

40.3.1.2 (3002)
What is the main adverse effect of expectations in the perception mechanism ?
a) Expectations often guide the focus of attention towards a particular aspect,
while possible alternates are neglected
b) They always lead to routine errors
c) The unconscious mechanism of attention leads to focus on all relevant information
d) The attention area is enlarged, thus it will lead to an uncertainty in regard to necessary
decisions

40.3.1.2 (3003)
Which of the following provides the basis of all perceptions?
a) The intensity of the stimuli.
b) The aural or visual significance attributed in short term memory.
c) The aural or visual significance attributed in long term memory.
d) The seperation of figure and background.

40.3.1.2 (3004)
The ""gestalt laws ""formulates :
a) basic principles governing how objects are mentally organized and perceived
b) basic principles governing the relationship between stress and performance
c) basic principles governing the effects of habit and experience
d) basic principles regarding to the relationship between motivation and performance

505
40.3.1.2 (3005)
Illusions of interpretation (cognitive illusions) are :
a) associated with the task of mental construction of the environment
b) due mainly to a conflict between the various sensory systems
c) due mainly to a poor interpretation of instrumental data
d) solely induced in the absence of external reference points

40.3.1.2 (3006)
In the absence of external reference points, the sensation that the vehicle in which
you sitting is moving when it is in fact the vehicle directly alongside which is
moving is called :
a) illusion of relative movement
b) autokinetic illusion
c) cognitive illusion
d) somato-gravic illusion

40.3.1.3 (3007)
The maximum number of unrelated items that can be stored in working memory is:
a) about 7 items
b) very limited - only 3 items
c) about 30 items
d) unlimited

40.3.1.3 (3008)
The capacity of the short-term memory is
a) about 7 items
b) very limited - only one item
c) about 30 items
d) unlimited

40.3.1.3 (3009)
Information stays in the short-term memory
a) about 20 seconds
b) less than 1 second
c) from 5 to 10 minutes
d) around 24 hours

40.3.1.3 (3010)
Working memory :
a) is sensitive to interruptions which may erase all or some of its content
b) is unlimited in size
c) is unlimited in duration
d) varies considerably in size between an expert pilot and a novice pilot

40.3.1.3 (3011)
Long-term memory is an essential component of the pilot's knowledge and
expertise.
a) It is desirable to pre-activate knowledge stored in long-term memory to have it
available when required
b) The capacity of long-term memory is limited
506
c) Long-term memory stores knowledge on a temporary basis
d) The recovery of information from long-term memory is immediate and easy

40.3.1.3 (3012)
Motor programmes are:
a) stored routines that enable patterns of behaviour to be executed without
continuous conscious control
b) rules that enable us to deal with novel situations
c) rules that enable us to deal with preconceived situations
d) stored routines that enable patterns of behaviour to be executed only under continuous
conscious control

40.3.1.3 (3013)
Working memory enables us, for example,
a) to remember a clearance long enough to write it down
b) to store a large amount of visual information for about 0.5 seconds
c) to ignore messages for other aircraft
d) to remember our own name

40.3.1.3 (3014)
In the short-term-memory, information is stored for approximately
a) 20 seconds
b) 5 minutes
c) 1 hour
d) a couple of days

40.3.1.3 (3015)
The main limit(s) of long-term memory is (are):
a) Data retrieval as a result from a loss of access to the stored information
b) the quantity of data which may be stored
c) the instantaneous inputting in memory of all information collected during the day, which
comes to saturate it
d) the data storage time

40.3.1.3 (3016)
What are the main limits of short-term memory ?It is :-1 : very sensitive to
interruptions and interference-2 : difficult to access-3 : limited in size-4 : subject
to a biochemical burn-in of information
a) 1,3 ,4
b) 1,2 ,3
c) 2 ,3
d) 2,4

40.3.1.3 (3017)
Which of the following characteristics apply to short-term memory ?- 1 : It is
limited in time and size- 2 : It is unlimited in time and limited in size- 3 : It is
stable and insensitive to disturbances- 4 : It is limited in time and unlimited in size
a) 1
b) 1,3
c) 3,4
507
d) 2,3
40.3.1.3 (3018)
With regard to short-term memory, we can say that :
a) it is made up of everyday information for immediate use, and is limited in its
capacity for storing and retaining data
b) it is made up of everyday information for immediate use, and is limited in terms of the time
for which it retains data but not in its storage capacity
c) it is a stable form of working memory, and thus not very sensitive to any disturbance
d) it mainly contains procedural knowledge

40.3.1.3 (3019)
Which of the following statements about long-term memory are correct?-1:
Information is stored there in the form of descriptive, rule-based and schematic
knowledge.-2: The period of time for which information is retained is limited by the
frequency with which this same information is used.-3: It processes information
quickly and has an effective mode of access in real time.-4: Pre-activation of
necessary knowledge will allow for a reduction in access time.
a) 1 and 4 are correct
b) 1 and 2 are correct
c) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
d) 2 and 4 are correct

40.3.1.3 (3020)
To facilitate and reduce the time taken to access information in long-term memory,
it is helpful to:
a) mentally rehearse information before it is needed
b) learn and store data in a logical and structured way
c) structure irrelevant information as much as possible before committing it to memory
d) avoid to rehearse information which we know we will need soon

40.3.1.3 (3021)
Concerning the capacity of the human long-term memory
a) its storage capacity is unlimited
b) it is structurally limited in terms of storage capacity, but unlimted in terms of storage time
c) it is structurally limited in terms of storage time but not in terms of capacity
d) its mode of storing information is passive, making memory searches effective

40.3.1.4 (3022)
Young pilots or pilots with little experience of airplanes differ from experienced
pilots in the following way :
a) unexperienced pilots refer to information more than experts when carrying out
the same task
b) experienced pilots are less routine-minded than young pilots because they know that
routine causes mistakes
c) task for task, an expert's workload is greater than a novice's one
d) flight planning performance decreases with age, and experience is unable to mask this
deficiency

40.3.1.4 (3023)
In order to provide optimum human performance it is advisable to
a) establish strategies for planning, automating and managing resources (in real
time)
508
b) plan a maximum of objectives and non-automated actions
c) avoid powerful behaviour expedient of automating tasks
d) plan future actions and decisions at least a couple of days in advance

40.3.1.4 (3024)
The planning and anticipation of future actions and situations makes it possible
to:-1 : create a precise reference framework.-2 : avoid saturation of the cognitive
system.-3 : automate planned actions.-4 : activate knowledge which is considered
necessary for the period to come.The correct statement(s) is (are):
a) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
b) 1 and 2 are correct
c) 2 and 4 are correct
d) 3 and 4 are correct

40.3.1.4 (3025)
Pre-thought action plans may be said to:-1 : ease access to information which may
be necessary.-2 : sensitize and prepare for a possible situation to come.-3 : be
readily interchangeable and can therefore be reformulated at any time during the
flight.-4 : define a framework and a probable strategy for the encountered
situation.The combination of correct statements is:
a) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
c) 2 and 4 are correct
d) 2, 3 and 4 are correct

40.3.1.4 (3026)
The workload may be said to:-1 : be acceptable if it requires more than 90 % of
the crew resources.-2 : be acceptable if it requires about 60 % of the crew
resources.-3 : depend on the pilot's expertise.-4 : correspond to the amount of
resources availableThe combination of correct statements is:
a) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
b) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
c) 1 and 3 are correct
d) 2 and 4 are correct

40.3.1.4 (3027)
Motivation is a quality wich is often considered vital in the pilot's work to maintain
safety.
a) However, excessive motivation leads to stress wich adversly affects
performance
b) Motivation reduces the intensity of sensory illusions
c) A high degree of motivation makes it possible to make up for insufficient knowledge in
complete safety
d) A high degree of motivation lowers the level of vigilance

40.3.1.4 (3028)
The quality of learning :
a) is promoted by feedback on the value of one's own performance
b) depends on long-term memory capacity
c) is independent of the level of motivation
d) is independent of age 509
40.3.1.4 (3029)
Mental training, mental rehearsal of cognitive pretraining is called the inner,
ideomotor simulation of actions.
a) It is most important for the acquisition of complex perceptual motor skills
b) It is most important for selfcontrol
c) It is most effective, if it is practiced on an abstract level if imagination
d) It is more effective than training by doing

40.3.1.4 (3030)
How can the process of learning be facilitated?
a) By reinforcing successful trials
b) By increasing the psychological pressure on the student
c) By punishing the learner for unsuccessful trials
d) By reinforcing errors

40.3.1.4 (3031)
Learning is called each lasting change of behaviour due to
a) practice and experience
b) innate mechanisms
c) maturation
d) drug influence

40.3.1.4 (3032)
Mental training is helpful to improve flying skills
a) at all levels of flying proficiency
b) only for student pilots
c) only for instructor pilots
d) only at a certain level of flying experience

40.3.1.4 (3033)
Which of the following are primary sources of motivation in day-to-day
professional life ?1. Beeing in control of one's own situation2. Fear of
punishment3. Success (achievement of goals)4. Social promotion, money
a) 1,2,3,4
b) 1,2,3
c) 3,4
d) 2,4

40.3.1.4 (3034)
Which of the following statements summarises the impact that motivation may
have on attention ?
a) It increases the mobilisation of energy and thus facilitates the quality of
alertness and attention
b) It only facilitates attention in extreme cases (risk of death)
c) Motivation has only a small effect on attention, but it facilitates alertness
d) It stimulates attention but may lead to phases of low arousal

40.3.1.4 (3035)
The effect of experience and habit on performance
a) can both be beneficial and negative
b) is always negative 510
c) is never negative
d) is always beneficial

40.3.1.4 (3036)
Murphy's law states :
a) If equipment is designed in such a way that it can be operated wrongly, then
sooner or later, it will be
b) Response to a particular stressful influence varies from one person to another
c) Expectation has an influence on perception
d) Performance is dependent on motivation

40.3.1.4 (3037)
The needs of an individual lead to :
a) a change in the individuals motivation and consequently to an adaptation of the
behaviour
b) preservation from dangers only if social needs are beeing satisfied
c) no change in his motivation and conrequently to the persistence of the individuals
behaviour in regard to the desired outcome
d) prolonged suppression of all basic needs in favour of high self-actualization

40.3.1.4 (3038)
Whilst flying a coordinated turn, most of your activity is
a) skill based behaviour
b) coping behaviour
c) knowledge based behaviour
d) rule based behaviour

40.3.1.4 (3039)
If you approach an airfield VFR at a prescribed altitude, exactly following the
approach procedure, and you encounter no inexpected or new problems you show:
a) skill based behaviour
b) knowledge based behaviour
c) rule based behaviour
d) rule and skill based behaviour

40.3.1.4 (3040)
The choice of the moment you select flaps depending on situation and conditions
of the landing is:
a) skill based behaviour
b) knowledge based behaviour
c) pressure based behaviour
d) rule based behaviour

40.3.1.4 (3041)
The readiness for tracing information which could indicate the development of a
critical situation
a) is necessary to maintain good situational awareness
b) is dangerous, because it distracts attention from flying the aircraft
c) makes no sense because the human information processing system is limited anyway
d) is responsible for the development of inadequate mental models of the real world
511
40.3.1.4 (3042)
1. Lively information is easier to take into consideration for creating a mental
picture than boring information.2.The sequence in which information is offered is
also important for the use the pilot makes of it.
a) 1 and 2 are both correct
b) 1 is correct, 2 is not correct
c) 1 is not correct, 2 is correct
d) 1 and 2 are both not correct

40.3.1.4 (3043)
The development of procedures makes pilots more effective and more reliable in
their actions. This is called:
a) procedural consistency
b) mental model
c) knowledge-based behaviour
d) procedural confusion

40.3.2.0 (3044)
What means can be used to combat human error?-1 : Reducing error-prone
mechanisms.-2 : Improving the way in which error is taken into account in
training.-3 : Sanctions against the initiators of error.-4 : Improving recovery from
errors and its consequences.The combination of correct statements is:
a) 1, 2 and 4
b) 3 and 4
c) 1 and 2
d) 2, 3 and 4

40.3.2.0 (3045)
It is desirable to standardize as many patterns of behaviour (operating
procedures) as possible in commercial aviation mainly because
a) such behaviour reduces errors even under adverse circumstances
b) this lowers the ability requirement in pilot selection
c) this reduces the amount of training required
d) it makes the flight deck easier to design

40.3.2.0 (3046)
Human errors are frequent and may take several forms :
a) an error can be described as the mismatch between the pilots intention and the
result of his/her actions
b) an error of intention is an error of routine
c) an violation is an error which is always involuntary
d) representational errors in which the pilot has properly identified the situation and is familiar
with the procedure

40.3.2.0 (3047)
What is meant by the term 'complacency'?
a) Careless negligence or unjustified self-confidence
b) To question possible solutions
c) An agreement between captain and co-pilot due to Crew Resources Management
d) Physiological consequences on pilots because of fear of flying
512
40.3.2.0 (3048)
What would be the priority aim in the design of man-machine interfaces and in the
creation of their application procedures for combatting problems associated with
human error ?
a) To reduce the risks of the appearance or non-detection of errors entailing
serious consequences
b) To eliminate the risk of latent errors occuring
c) To cater systematically for the consequences of errors in order to analyse their nature and
modify ergonomic parameters
d) To put in place redundant alarm systems

40.3.2.1 (3049)
How can man cope with low error tolerant situations?
a) By constantly complying with cross-over verification procedures (cross
monitoring)
b) By increasing error detection in all circumstances
c) By randomly applying a combination of optimum detection, warning and monitoring
systems
d) By generally avoiding situations in which tolerance to error is low

40.3.2.1 (3050)
What are the various means which allow for better error detection?-1 :
Improvement of the man-machine interface.-2 : Development of systems for
checking the consistency of situations.-3 : Compliance with cross-over redundant
procedures by the crew.-4 : Adaptation of visual alarms to all systems.The correct
statement(s) is (are):
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1and 3
c) 2, 3 and 4
d) 3 and 4

40.3.2.1 (3051)
Why must flight safety considerations consider the human error mechanism? -1 : It
is analysis of an incident or accident which will make it possible to identify what
error has been committed and by whom. It is the process whereby the perpetrator
is made responsible which may lead to elimination of the error.-2 : If we have a
better understanding of the cognitive error mechanism, it will be possible to adapt
procedures, aircraft interfaces, etc. -3 : It is error management procedure which
enables us to continuously adjust our actions. The better we understand the
underlying mechanism of an error, the better will be our means for detecting and
adapting future errors.-4 : Since error is essentially human, once it has been
identified by the use of procedures, a person will be able to anticipate and deal
with it automatically in the future.The correct statement(s) is (are):
a) 2 and 3
b) 3 and 4
c) 2 and 4
d) 1 and 4

40.3.2.1 (3052)
Improvement of human reliability should entail:
a) an effort to understand the causes and find means of recovery for errors
513
committed
b) in aviation, the elimination of errors on the part of front-line operators
c) the elimination of latent errors before they can effect performance
d) the analysis of modes of human failures

40.3.2.1 (3053)
An excessive need for safety
a) hampers severly the way of pilot decision making
b) is absolute necessary for a safe flight operation
c) is the most important attribute of a line pilot
d) guarantees the right decision making in critical situations

40.3.2.1 (3054)
Studies of human error rates during the performance of simple repetitive task have
shown, that errors can normally be expected to occur about
a) 1 in 10 times
b) 1 in 50 times
c) 1 in 100 times
d) 1 in 250 times

40.3.2.1 (3055)
Which of the following human error rates can be described as both realistic and
pretty good, after methodical training
a) 1 in 100 times
b) 1 in 1000 times
c) 1 in 10000 times
d) 1 in 100000 times

40.3.2.1 (3056)
Situations particularly vulnerable to ""reversion to an earlier behaviour pattern""
are :1. when concentration on a particular task is relaxed2. when situations are
characterised by medium workload3. when situations are characterised by stress
a) 1. and 3.
b) 1. and 2.
c) 3.
d) 2. and 3.

40.3.2.2 (3057)
The most dangerous characteristic of the false mental model is, that it
a) is frequently extremely resistant to correction
b) will mainly occur under conditions of relaxation
c) will only occur under conditions of stress
d) can easily be changed

40.3.2.3 (3058)
Which of the following statements best fits the definition of an active error?Active
error is:
a) produced by the operator and can be rapidly detected via the effects and
consequences which it induces on the overall action
b) produced either by a front-line operator or by a remote operator and results in a hidden or
latent consequence at a specific moment of the action
c) essentially results from the application of a bad rule or the poor application of a good 514
rule
by airplane designers
d) rare in front-line actions and difficult to detect owing to the fact that it usually occurs in a
complex system of uncontrolled and involuntary deviations

40.3.2.3 (3059)
What are the main consequences of latent errors? They:-1 : remain undetected in
the system for a certain lenght of time.-2 : may only manifest themselves under
certainl conditions.-3 : are quickly detectable by the front-line operator whose
mental schemas on the instantaneous situation filter out formal errors.-4 : lull the
pilots into security.The correct statement(s) is (are):
a) 1,2 and 4
b) 1 and 2
c) 1 and 3
d) 2, 3 and 4

40.3.2.3 (3060)
Which of the following statements fits best the concept of latent error?Latent
errors:
a) have been present in the system for a certain lenght of time and are difficult to
understand as a result of the time lag between the generation and the occurence
of the error
b) are rarely made by front-line operators, and are consequently readily identified and
detected by the monitoring, detection and warning links
c) are mainly associated with the behaviour of front-line operators and are only detected after
advanced problem-solving
d) rapidly may be detected via their immediate consequences on the action in progress

40.3.2.3 (3061)
A system is all the more reliable if it offers good detectability. The latter is the
result of:-1 : tolerance of the various systems to errors.-2 : the sum of the
automatic monitoring, detection and warning facilities.-3 : the reliability of the
Man-Man and Man-Machine links.-4 : the alerting capability of the Man-Machine
interface.The combination of correct statements is:
a) 2 and 4
b) 1, 2 and 4
c) 1 and 3
d) 3 and 4

40.3.2.3 (3062)
According to Rasmussen's model, errors in rule-based control mode are of the
following type(s) :
a) errors of technical knowledge
b) routine errors
c) handling errors
d) creative errors

40.3.2.3 (3063)
According to Rasmussen's model, errors are of the following type(s) in skill-based
control mode:
a) routine errors
b) knowledge errors 515
c) handling errors
d) creative errors

40.3.2.3 (3064)
When can a system be said to be tolerant to error?When:
a) the consequences of an error will not seriously jeopardise safety
b) its safety system is too permeable to error
c) its safety system has taken account of all statistically probable errors
d) latent errors do not entail serious consequences for safety

40.3.2.3 (3065)
Once detected, an error will result in cognitive consequences which:
a) make it possible to modify behaviour with a view to adaptation
b) destabilize cognitive progress and maintain the error
c) are prompted by inductive factors
d) have virtually no interaction with behaviour

40.3.2.3 (3066)
Human behaviour is determined by:
a) biological characteristics, social environment and cultural influences
b) biological characteristics
c) the social environment
d) cultural influences

40.3.2.3 (3067)
The level of automation of behaviour-patterns facilitates the saving of resources
and therefore of attention. On the other hand, it may result in :
a) routine errors (slips)
b) mistakes
c) decision-making errors
d) errors in selecting an appropriate plan of action

40.3.2.3 (3068)
In problem-solving, what determines the transition from rules-based activities to a
knowledge-based activity ?
a) The unsuitability of the known rules for the problem posed
b) Attentional capture
c) Knowledge of rules which apply to the problem posed
d) The unsuitability of the automated actions

40.3.2.3 (3069)
Which of the following errors occur at rules-based level ?1.Omission2.The
application of a poor rule3. Attentional capture4. The poor application of a good
rule
a) 2,4
b) 1,2
c) 3,4
d) 1,3

516
40.3.2.3 (3070)
The descriptive aspect of errors according to Hollnagel's model describes various
directly observable types of erroneous actions which are :1. Repetition and
omission2. The forward leap and the backward leap3. Intrusion and anticipation4.
Intrusion
a) 1,2,4
b) 1,3
c) 2,4
d) 1,2,3

40.3.2.3 (3071)
What happens in problem-solving when the application of a rule allows for the
situation to be resolved ?
a) Actions return to an automatic mode
b) A switch is made to knowledge mode in order to refine the results
c) A switch is made to knowledge- based mode in order to continue monitoring of the problem
d) A second monitoring rule must be applied

40.3.2.4 (3072)
To avoid wrong decisions by the pilot, an aircraft system should at least be able to
a) report its malfunction
b) report the deviation
c) correct the deviation
d) tolerate the deviation

40.3.2.4 (3073)
Analysis of accidents involving the human factor in aviation shows that :
a) there is hardly ever a single cause responsible
b) only front-line operators are involved
c) only pilot training will make it possible to improve the situation
d) failure of the human factor is always connected with technical breakdowns

40.3.2.4 (3074)
What does the 'End Deterioration Effect'('Home-itis') mean?
a) The tendency to sudden, imperceptible errors shortly before the end of a flight
b) The result of a poor preflight planning
c) The potential risk of loosing orientation after flying in clouds
d) The breakdown of crew coordination due to interpersonal tensions between captain and co-
pilot

40.3.2.4 (3075)
'Environmental capture' is a term used to describe which of the following
statements?1.The tendency for a skill to be executed in an environment in which it
is frequently exercised, even if it is inappropriate to do so2.The tendency for a skill
acquired in one aircraft type to be executed in a new aircraft type, even if it is
inappropriate to do so3. The tendency for people bo behave in different ways in
different social situations4. The gaining of environmental skills
a) 1 and 2 are correct
b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
c) 2 and 3 are correct
d) 4 is correct 517
40.3.2.4 (3076)
Under what circumstances will a pilot change from automated level to rule-based
level ?
a) When detecting, that an automated behaviour will no longer lead to the
intended outcome
b) Failure of all the known rules
c) The appearance of a situation or problem which is unknown and completely new
d) An automated cognitive check procedure

40.3.2.4 (3077)
Errors which occur during highly automated actions may result from :1. the
capture of a poor action subprogram2. a mistake in the decision making process3.
the application of a poor rule4. an action mode error
a) 1,4
b) 1,2
c) 3,4
d) 2,3,4

40.3.2.4 (3078)
What are the main characteristics of active errors ?They :1. are detectable only
with difficulty by first-line operators2. have rapid and direct consequences on the
action in progress3. are down to first-line operators4. have an impact on the
overall action whose timing may be affected significantly
a) 2,3
b) 1,2
c) 3,4
d) 1,4

40.3.2.4 (3079)
The relationship which exists between crew error and flight safety :
a) is dependent on the social and technical system and also on the operational
context created by the system
b) is a linear relationship which introduces crew training as the main factor
c) is independent of the operational context, with the latter being identical for any flight
operation
d) has been evolving for 40 years and has now become independent of the social and
technical system

40.3.2.4 (3080)
The effects of sleep deprivation on performance:1. increase with altitude2.
decrease with altitude3. increase with higher workload4. decrease with higher
workload
a) 1 and 3 are correct
b) 1,2 and 3 are correct
c) 1, 3 and 4 are correct
d) 2, 3 and 4 are correct

40.3.2.4 (3081)
What may be the origins of representation errors ?1. Perception errors2. The
catering for all available information 3. Incorrect information from the observed
world4. The receipt of a bad piece of information 518
a) 1,3,4
b) 1,2
c) 3,4
d) 2,3

40.3.3.0 (3082)
When a pilot is facing a problem during flight he should
a) take as much time as he needs and is available to make up his mind
b) always make up his mind quickly to give himself as much spare time as possible
c) avoid making up his mind until the very last minute
d) make up his mind before consulting other crew members

40.3.3.0 (3083)
The decision making in emergency situations requires firstly:
a) distribution of tasks and crew coordination
b) speed of reaction
c) informing ATC thoroughly about the situation
d) the whole crew to focus on the problem

40.3.3.0 (3084)
Which of the following abilities will not improve efficient decision making on the
cockpit?
a) Ability to persuade others to follow the own point of view.
b) Communicational skills and social competence.
c) Ability to search for and examine all available information regarding a situation.
d) Ability to think ahead and specify alternative courses of action.

40.3.3.0 (3085)
The assessment of risk in a particular situation will be based on
a) subjective perception and evalutation of situational factors
b) external factors only
c) the emergency checklist only
d) situational factors only

40.3.3.0 (3086)
Once a pilot has developed a certain way of thinking about a problem he will
probably
a) find it difficult to get out of that way of thinking and difficult to try a different
interpretation of the data
b) find it difficult to stick to his/her interpretation of the data
c) find it easy to interpret the data in different ways
d) find it impossible to get out of that way of thinking, whatever happens

40.3.3.0 (3087)
To maintain good situational awareness you should:(1) believe only in your own
interpretation of the data(2) gather as much datas as possible from every possible
source before making inferences(3) question whether your hypothesis still fits the
situation as events progress and try to make time to review the situation(4)
consider ways of testing your situational hypothesis to see whether it is correct
a) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
519
b) all answers are correct
c) 1 and 4 are correct
d) 1 and 3 are correct

40.3.3.1 (3088)
Most accidents are mainly caused by lack of:
a) good judgement
b) physical skills
c) interpersonal relations
d) good maintenance of aircraft

40.3.3.1 (3089)
Judgement is based upon:
a) a process involving a pilot´s attitude to take and to evaluate risks by assessing
the situation and making decisions based upon knowledge, skill and experience
b) a decision making process involving physical sensations and their transfer to manually
operate the aircraft controls
c) the development of skills from constant practice of flight manoeuvres
d) the ability to interpret the flight instruments

40.3.3.1 (3090)
Which of the following statements is correct regarding decision making?
a) Deciding means choosing between alternatives.
b) Deciding means being able to come up with original solutions.
c) Deciding means imposing one's point of view.
d) Deciding means applying an automatic procedure.

40.3.3.1 (3091)
Which problem may be overlooked in the process of making a decision?
a) Owing to great haste, bypassing analysis of the current actual situation in order
to apply the decision prepared beforehand
b) Preparing decisions often leads to strategies of minimum commitment
c) Preparing decisions promotes the appearance of inflexibilities
d) The captain's superior knowledge, justified by his/her status

40.3.3.1 (3092)
In terms of decision-making, the intention to become integrated into the team, to
be recognised as the leader or to avoid conflicts may lead to :
a) the attempt to agree on decisions made by other crew members
b) an authoritarian approach thus demonstrating ones own ability to lead
c) the improvement of internal risk assessment capabilities
d) the suggestion of a sequential solution in which everyone can contribute what he/she
knows

40.3.3.1 (3093)
What strategy should be put in place when faced with an anticipated period of time
pressure ?
a) A strategy of preparing decisions
b) A non-sequential strategy
c) A Laissez-faire strategy
d) A strategy of no commitment
520
40.3.3.1 (3094)
Which biases relate to human decision making?1. Personal experience tends to
alter the perception of the risk of an event occurring2. There is a natural tendency
to want to confirm our decision even in the face of facts which contradict it3. The
group to which an individual belongs tends to influence the particular decision4.
There is natural tending to select only objective facts for decision-making purposes
a) 1,2,3
b) 1,2
c) 3,4
d) 1,2,4

40.3.3.1 (3095)
Habits and routine can influence decision-making in a way that:
a) a tendency to select the most familiar solution first and foremost, sometimes to
the detriment of achieving the best possible result
b) one always wants to see previous experience confirmed by new decisions
c) professional pilots will never question established procedures
d) one always selects a choice in accordance with the company's usual practices

40.3.3.1 (3096)
Decision-making can be influenced by the following factors:1. people tend to
conform to opinions expressed by a majority within the group they belong to2.
people always tend to keep the future decisions in line with those their superiors
have made in the past3. people more easily tend to select data which meet the
expectations4. people hardly base decisions on their personal preferences but
rather on rational information
a) 1,3
b) 2,3
c) 1,4
d) 2,4

40.3.3.1 (3097)
The DECIDE model is based on :
a) a prescriptive generic model, taking into account the method which seems most
likely to come up with the solution
b) a prescriptive generic model which is subject to mathematical logic
c) a normative generic model based on mathematical logic
d) a statistical model based on observation of human decision-making

40.3.3.1 (3098)
Decision-making is a concept which represents :
a) a voluntary and conscious process of selection, from among possible solutions,
for a given problem
b) an automated or automation-like act of applying defined procedures
c) an automatic process of selection from among the various solutions to a given problem
d) a spontaneous act of seeking the most effective solution in a given situation when faced
with a defined problem

40.3.3.1 (3099)
Which of the following characteristics form part of decision-making on the flight
deck ? 521
a) A good decision depends on analysis of the situation
b) A decision is only valid in a defined and delimited time
c) A good decision can always be reversed if its result does not come up to expectations
d) A group decision must always be established prior to action

40.3.3.1 (3100)
In decision-making, the selection of a solution depends :1. on objective and
subjective criteria2. on the objective to be achieved3. on the risks associated with
each solution4. above all on the personality of the decision-maker
a) 1,2,3,4
b) 1,2,4
c) 1,3
d) 4

40.3.3.1 (3101)
Decision-making results in:
a) a choice between different solutions for achieving a goal
b) a choice always based on the experience of the PIC
c) an objective choice concerning applicable solutions for a given end
d) a subjective choice concerning applicable solutions

40.3.3.1 (3102)
The confirmation bias of decision making is
a) a tendency to ignore that information which indicates that a decision is poor,
b) a tendency not to seek for information which confirms a judgement
c) a tendency not to look for information which would reassure oneself about a decision
d) a tendency to look for facts that confirm expectations before implementing one's decision

40.3.4.1 (3103)
The relevance of check procedures during flight becomes even more important
when:
a) flying an unfamiliar type of aircraft and experiencing mental pressure
b) flying an aircraft which you have flown recently
c) conducting a longer flight than you would normally perform
d) flying an aircraft which you have flown many times before

40.3.4.1 (3104)
Which of the following responses is an example of ""habit reversion"" (negative
habit transfer):
a) A pilot who has flown many hours in an aircraft in which the fuel lever points
forward for the ON position, may unintentionally turn the fuel lever into the false
position, when flying a different aircraft, where the fuel lever has to point aft to be
in the ON position
b) Turning and aircraft to the left when intending to turn it to the right
c) Incorrect anticipation of an air traffic controller´s instructions
d) habitually missing an item on the checklist or missing the second item when two items are
on the same line

40.3.4.1 (3105)
Although the anticipation of possible events is a good attitude for pilots to acquire,
522
it can sometimes lead to hazardous situations. With this statement in mind, select
the response below which could lead to such a hazard:
a) mishearing the contents of a reply from an air traffic controller when a non-
standard procedure was given but a standard procedure was anticipated
b) anticipating that the weather may deteriorate
c) anticipating that the flight will take longer time than planned
d) anticipating the sequence of items on a check list.

40.3.4.1 (3106)
The following course of action must be taken if gastrointestinal or
cardiopulmonary complaints or pain arise before take-off :-1 : take the standard
medicines and advise the doctor on returning from the flight-2 : assess your own
ability to fly, if necessary with the help of a doctor-3 : if in doubt about fitness to
fly - do not fly!-4 : reduce the cabin temperature, and drink before you are thirsty
so as to avoid dehydration
a) 2,3
b) 1,3
c) 1,4
d) 1,2,4

40.3.4.1 (3107)
You are transporting a passenger who has to be at a certain destination for a
meeting. The weather forcast at destination tends to be much worse than
expected, so you consider to divert. The businessman offers you money if you
manage to land there at any case.What is your appropriate way of action? You will
a) decide to divert if you think it is necessary.
b) continue and think about the nice things you can buy from the money
c) divert in any case to demonstrate who' s the man in charge aboard
d) see what you can do and ask the copilot to tolerate any decision

40.3.4.2 (3108)
Doing a general briefing in the preflight phase the captain should emphasize
a) particular requirements in the field of crew coordination due to specific
circumstances
b) complete delegation of all duties
c) to depart on schedule
d) to avoid inadequate handling of flight controls

40.3.4.2 (3109)
Which of the following statements are correct with regard to the design of a check
list?-1 : The longer a check list, the more it must be subdivided into logical parts.-2
: The trickiest points must be placed in the middle of the check list.-3 : Check lists
must be designed in such a way that they can be lumped together with other
tasks.-4 : Whenever possible, a panel scan sequence should be applied-5 : Critical
points should have redundancies.The combination of correct statements is:
a) 1, 4 and 5 are correct
b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
c) 1, 2 and 5 are correct
d) 1, 3 and 5 are correct

40.3.4.2 (3110)
The use of check lists must be carried out in such a way that: 523
a) their execution must not be done simultaneously with other actions
b) their execution may be done simultaneously with other actions
c) their execution is not lumped together with important tasks
d) it may be rejected since redundancy in the following check list will serve as verification

40.3.4.2 (3111)
The purpose of action plans which are implemented during briefings is to:
a) initiate procedures and reactions for situations that are most likely, risky or
difficult during the flight
b) define general planning of the flight plan
c) allow everyone to prepare their own reactions in a difficult situation
d) activate a collective mental schema with respect to non-procedural actions to be carried out

40.3.4.2 (3112)
In order to overcome an overload of work during the flight, it is necessary to:-1 :
know how to use one's own reserve of resources in order to ease the burden on the
crew.-2 : divide up tasks among the crew.-3 : abandon automatic mode and
instead process as much information as possible consciously.-4 : drop certain tasks
and stick to high-level priorities.The correct statement(s) is (are):
a) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
b) 1 and 3 are correct
c) 1, 2 and 3 are correct
d) 3 and 4 are correct

40.3.4.2 (3113)
Which of the following statements concerning check list is correct?
a) The most important items should be placed at the beginning of a check list since
attention is usually focused here
b) The most important items must be placed at the end of check list, allowing them to be kept
near at hand so that they are quickly available for any supplementary check
c) The most important items must be placed in the middle of check list so that they come to
be examined once attention is focused but before concentration starts to wane
d) All the items of a check list are equally important, their sequence is of no importance

40.3.4.2 (3114)
Of the following statements, which apply to coordinated cooperation?-1 : It allows
for synergy in the actions between the captain and the pilot.-2 : It represents the
simultaneous execution of a single action by the various members of the crew.-3 :
Communication in this mode has the function of synchronizing actions and
distributing responsibilities.-4 : Communication must be essentially focussed on
temporal and cognitive synchronisation.The correct statement(s) is (are):
a) 1 and 3
b) 1,2 and 4
c) 2 and 3
d) 1 and 4

40.3.4.2 (3115)
What are the advantages of coordination?
a) Redundancy, synergy, clarification of responsibility.
b) Cooperation, cognition, redundancy.
524
c) Interaction, cognition, redundancy.
d) Redundancy, exploration, risky shift.

40.3.4.2 (3116)
Coaction is a mode of coordination which recommends:
a) working parallel to achieve one common objective
b) working parallel to achieve individual objectives
c) sustained cooperation on actions and the formulation of commitments concerning flight
situations
d) the application of procedural knowledge in the conduct of specific actions

40.3.4.2 (3117)
The person with overall responsibility for the flight is the-1 Pilot in Command-2 Co-
pilot-3 Navigator-4 Air traffic controllerThe correct statement(s) is (are):
a) 1
b) 1 and 2
c) 2 and 3
d) 4

40.3.4.2 (3118)
Action plans (SOP's) in a cockpit must :
a) be shared by the members of the crew and updated at each modification in
order to maintain maximum synergy
b) be tailored to the individual pilot's needs in order to facilitate the normal operation of the
aircraft
c) only be tailored to the type of aircraft, regardless of current MCC procedures
d) only follow the manufacturers proposals and not reflect individual operators cockpit
philosophies

40.3.4.2 (3119)
The trend in airplane hull-loss rate over the last three decades seems to be related
to :
a) the crew
b) the manufacturer
c) the number of engines
d) the year of manufacture

40.3.4.3 (3120)
Mark the two most important attributes for a positive leadership style:(1)
dominant behaviour(2) examplary role-behaviour(3) mastery of communication
skills(4) ""Laissez-faire"" behaviour
a) 2 and 3
b) 1 and 4
c) 1 and 3
d) 2 and 4

40.3.4.3 (3121)
During the preparational work in the cockpit the captain notices that his copilot on
the one hand is rather unexperienced and insecure but on the other hand highly
motivated. Which kind of leadership behaviour most likely is inappropriate?
525
a) The captain lets the copilot fly and observes his behaviour without any
comments
b) The captain flies the first leg by himself and explains each action to the copilot in order to
keep him informed about his decisions
c) The captain lets the copilot fly and gives him detailled instructions what to do
d) The captain lets the copilot fly and encourages him frankly to ask for any support that
needed

40.3.4.3 (3122)
Which one of the following statements characterizes a democratic and cooperative
leadership style?If conflicts evolve, the leader
a) tries to clarify the reasons and causes of the conflict with all persons involved
b) mainly tries to reconcile all persons involved in the conflict and tries to reestablish a nice
and friendly atmosphere within the team
c) keeps a neutral position and does not participate in arguing
d) decides what to do and pushes his own opinion through

40.3.4.3 (3123)
Which of the following sentences concerning crew-performance is correct?
a) The quality of crew-performance depends on the social-competence of
individual team members
b) To be a member of a team can not increase one's own motivation to succeed in coping with
task demands
c) Mistakes can always be detected and corrected faster by the individual
d) The quality of crew-performance is not dependent on social-competence of individual team
members

40.3.4.3 (3124)
Informal roles within a crew
a) evolve as a result of the interactions that take place among crew members
b) are explicitely set out by the crew
c) do not impair the captain's influence
d) characterize inefficient crews

40.3.4.3 (3125)
Which statement is correct? Crew decision making is generally most efficient, if all
crew members concerned
a) adapt their management style to meet the situational demands
b) are always task oriented
c) are always relationship oriented
d) always ask the captain what to do

40.3.4.3 (3126)
Which behaviour does most likely promote a constructive solution of interpersonal
conflicts?
a) Active listening.
b) Responding with counter-arguments.
c) Staying to the own point of view.
d) Giving up the own point of view.

40.3.4.3 (3127)
The team spirit of a cockpit-crew most likely depends on 526
a) both pilots respecting each other and striving for the same goals
b) both pilots wearing the same uniform
c) both pilots flying together very often for a long period
d) both pilots having the same political and ideological attitude

40.3.4.3 (3128)
During the cruising phase of a short-haul flight the captain starts to smoke a
cigarette in the cockpit. The flying copilot asks him to stop smoking because he is a
non-smoker. The captain tells him: 'This is your problem', and continues smoking.
What should the copilot do?
a) He should not further discuss this issue but should come back to this conflict
during the debriefing
b) He should learn to accept the captain smoking cigarettes in the cockpit
c) He should repeat his worries about smoking in the cockpit and should argue with the
captain about this problem until the conflict is solved
d) He should report the chief pilot about this behaviour of the captain

40.3.4.3 (3129)
How would you call the leadership style of a captain who primarily is interested in
a friendly atmosphere within his crew, who is always constructive and
encouraging, who usually compromises in interpersonal conflicts, who trusts in the
capabilities of his crew-members, and who leaves the crew freedom for own
decisions, even if this makes the process more difficult?
a) Low task-orientation and high relationship-orientation
b) High task-orientation and low relationship-orientation
c) High task-orientation and high relationship-orientation
d) Low task-orientation and low relationship-orientation

40.3.4.3 (3130)
If the copilot continuosly feels unfairly treated by the captain in an unjustified
way, then he should
a) duly point out the problem, reconcentrate on his duties and clear the matter in a
more appropriate occasion
b) freeze the communication and thus avoid immediate confrontation
c) speak up and point at consequencies if unfair behaviour persists
d) internally retire and think positive

40.3.4.3 (3131)
The ""ideal professional pilot"" is, in his behaviour,
a) ""person"" and ""goal"" oriented
b) rather ""person"" than ""goal"" oriented
c) neither ""person"" nor ""goal"" oriented
d) rather ""goal"" than ""person"" oriented

40.3.4.3 (3132)
Pilots are more easily inclined to take greater risks when:
a) they are part of a group of pilots and they feel that they are beeing observed
and admired (e.g. air shows)
b) making decisions independently of others
c) they are not constrained by time
d) making a flight over unfamiliar territory 527
40.3.4.3 (3133)
What are typical consequences of conflicts between crew members?-1 The quality
of work performance decreases as a result of the impoverishment of
communications-2 A decrease in the quality of communications-3 In the case of a
crew made up of experts, conflicts only result in a deterioration in relations
between the individuals-4 A decrease in the usage of available resources on the
flight deckThe correct statement(s) is (are):
a) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
b) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
c) 1,3 and 4 are correct
d) 1,2 and 3 are correct

40.3.4.3 (3134)
What elements establish synergy within the crew ?
a) Synergy must be built up from the start of the mission (briefing) and be
maintained until it comes to an end (debriefing)
b) Synergy establishes itself automatically within the crew, right through from briefing to
debriefing
c) Synergy is independent of the natural individual characteristics of the group members
(communication, mutual confidence, sharing of tasks, etc.)
d) It is only the captain's status which allows the establishment of synergy within the crew

40.3.4.3 (3135)
Which of the following statements best characterise a synergetic cockpit?1.
Decisions are taken by the captain, but prepared by the crew2. There is little
delegating of tasks3. Communications are few in number but precise and geared
purely to the flight4. Fluid, consensual boundaries exist in regard to leadership-
style, which fluctuate between authority and laissez-faire
a) 1,4
b) 1,3,4
c) 2,3
d) 2,4

40.3.4.3 (3136)
Which of the following statements best characterise a self-centered cockpit ?
a) Without taking note of what the other members are doing, each one does his
own thing while at the same time assuming that everyone is aware of what is
being done or what is going on
b) The egocentric personality of the captain often leads to a synergetic cockpit
c) The communication between crew members always increases when the captain takes
charge of a situation
d) While decreasing communication, the independence of each member bolsters the crew's
synergy

40.3.4.3 (3137)
What may become the main risk of a ""laissez-faire"" cockpit ?
a) Inversion of authority
b) Lack of communication
c) Appearance of agressiveness
d) Disengagement of the co-pilot

528
40.3.4.3 (3138)
What is characterized by a ""laissez-faire"" cockpit ?
a) A passive approach by the captain allows decisions, choices and actions by other
crew members
b) Each member carries out actions and makes choices without explicity informing the other
members about them
c) The captain's authority rules all the actions or decisions associated with the situation
d) The high level of independence granted to each member by the captain quickly leads to
tension between the various crew members

40.3.4.3 (3139)
What are the most frequent and the least appropriate reactions on the part of a co-
pilot when faced with a highly authoritarian captain ?1. Self-assertion2. A
scapegoat feeling3. Delayed reactions to observed discrepancies4. Disengagement
a) 2,3,4
b) 1,2
c) 3,4
d) 1,3,4

40.3.4.3 (3140)
What are the most frequent results of an self-centred captain on the flight deck ?
a) In a two-pilot flight deck, the co-pilot is ignored and may react by disengaging,
showing delayed responses or demonstrate the scapegoat effect
b) High group performance despite the strained relations
c) A major risk of authority inversion if the co-pilot is inassertive
d) Performance is very poor as self-centred behaviour leads to an increase of cooperation and
efficiency

40.3.4.3 (3141)
An autocratic cockpit is described by :
a) The captain's excessive authority cosiderably reduces communications and
consequently the synergy and cohesion of the crew
b) Despite the overly strong authority of the captain, everything functions correctly owing to
his natural leadership
c) Each of the members chooses what job to do without telling the others and in the belief
that everyone is aware of what he is doing
d) The atmosphere is relaxed thanks to a captain who leaves complete freedom to the various
members of the crew

40.3.4.3 (3142)
What optimises crew co-operation ?1. Sharing and common task2. Confidence in
each others capability3. Precise definition of functions associated with each crew
members role
a) 1,2,3
b) 1
c) 1,2
d) 2,3

40.3.4.3 (3143)
What distinguishes status from role ?
a) While role defines- via behaviour- the functions that must be performed by 529
individuals, status defines the enjoyment of a hierarchical position and its
recognition by the group
b) While role defines the enjoyment of a hierarchical position and its recognition by the group,
status defines - via behaviour- the functions that must be performed by individuals
c) Unlike status, role is fixed and is not modified either by the situation in flight or by the
interactions of a new crew
d) Unlike status, role is fixed and is modified either by the situation in flight or by the
interactions of a new crew

40.3.4.3 (3144)
What characterises the notion of role ?
a) The function and behaviour associated with the particular role
b) Only the functions associated with role
c) The characteristic behaviour associated with the description of the various roles of a
particular status
d) The hierarchical position of the function and the associated behaviour

40.3.4.3 (3145)
What is synergy in a crew ?
a) The coordinated action of all members towards a common objective, in which
collective performance is proving to be more than the sum of the individual
performances
b) A behavioural expedient associated with the desynchronisation of the coordinated actions
c) The coordinated action of unrelated individual performances in achieving a non-standard
task
d) The uncoordinated action of the crewmembers towards a common objective

40.3.4.3 (3146)
Safety is often improved by applying the principles of CRM, e.g.:
a) expression of one's doubts or different opinion for as long as this doubt can not
be rejected on the base of evidence
b) unquestioned obedience to all the Captain's decisions
c) abstention from any suggestion which might be untimely
d) the avoidance of any conflict in order to preserve the crew's synergy

40.3.4.3 (3147)
An efficient flight deck (synergetic cockpit) will be observed when:
a) decisions are taken by the Captain with the help and participation of the other
crew members
b) the plan of action is defined by the Captain because of his experience level
c) the Captain delegates the decision making process to other crew members
d) decisions do not need to be discussed because of a common synergy between the crew
members

40.3.4.3 (3148)
An non-synergetic cockpit :
a) is characterised by withdrawn crewmembers and unclear communication
b) is characterised by a highly efficient crew, communicating appropriately with the outside
c) always results from an over-relaxed atmosphere
d) is not very dangerous as each person checks everything personally
530
40.3.4.3 (3149)
CRM (Crew Resource Management) training is:
a) intended to develop effectiveness of crew performance by improving attitudes
towards flight safety and human relationship management
b) not intended to change the individual's attitude at all
c) intended solely to alter an individual's personality,
d) is mainly of relevance to pilots with personality disorders or inappropriate attitudes

40.3.4.4 (3150)
What does not apply to a constructive and helpful feedback?
a) Feedback should always state bluntly the personal failings of the receiver
b) It should be individually tailored to the receiver's background
c) It should be formulated subjectively and personally ('I' instead of 'one')
d) It should be actual and specify in regard to the concerned situation

40.3.4.4 (3151)
Which statement is correct?
a) Problems in the personal relation between crew members very likely hamper
their communication process.
b) There is no relation between inadequate communication and incidents or accidents.
c) Inconsistent communication behaviour improves flight safety.
d) Problems in the personal relation between crew members hardly hamper their
communication process.

40.3.4.4 (3152)
What is the sender's frequent reason to communicate implicitly ('between the
lines')?
a) Afterwards he/she always can claim to have been misunderstood.
b) There is no need to make up one's mind before starting to communicate.
c) The receiver grasps quickly what the sender means.
d) He/she has not to adjust to the communication style of the communication partner.

40.3.4.4 (3153)
Metacommunication is defined as
a) communicating about the communication
b) balancing the own ideas and interests with those of the interlocutor
c) having an assessment conversation
d) active listening

40.3.4.4 (3154)
An individually given feedback improves communication. Which of the following
rules should a feedback comply with?
a) The feedback should always relate to a specific situation.
b) The feedback should only be given if requested by the captain.
c) The receiver of the feedback should immediately justify his behaviour.
d) The feedback should not be referred to a concrete situation.

40.3.4.4 (3155)
Nonverbal communication
a) supports verbal communication
531
b) is of no meaning in the cockpit
c) is always used intentionally
d) should be avoided by all means in the cockpit

40.3.4.4 (3156)
How do you understand the statement 'one cannot not communicate'?
a) Beeing silent as well as inactive are nonverbal behaviour patterns which express
a meaning.
b) Each situation requires communication.
c) You cannot influence your own communication.
d) The statement above is a missprint.

40.3.4.4 (3157)
With regard to the practice of English, which of the following statements is
correct?
a) All pilots should master it because the aeronautical world needs one common
language.
b) Be familiar with normal procedures in English since only this allows for effective
management of any flight's communication.
c) It is necessary and sufficient to have a command of any of the official languages of the
ICAO.
d) The composition of every crew should be geared to a command of the official aeronautical
language of the destination country.

40.3.4.4 (3158)
Which of the following statements concerning communication is valid?
a) Professional communication means: using a restricted and specific language,
tailored to minimize misunderstandings.
b) Professional communication means to exchange information as little as possible.
c) The syntax of communication is of little importance to its success. Only the words uttered
are important.
d) Communication must take priority over any other flight activity under all circumstances

40.3.4.4 (3159)
Which combination of elements guarantee the understanding of a message
without adding new information to it?
a) Feedback.
b) Coding.
c) Synchronization.
d) Encoding.

40.3.4.4 (3160)
The process of responding to a sender by confirming the reception of a message is
called
a) feedback
b) redundancy
c) synchronization
d) transference

40.3.4.4 (3161)
Which elements of communication are prone to malfunctioning?
a) The sender and the receiver as well as coding and decoding 532
b) Coding and decoding
c) The sender
d) The receiver

40.3.4.4 (3162)
Discussing private matters in the cockpit
a) can improve team spirit
b) should be avoided by all means in the cockpit
c) is appropriate in any phase of flight
d) decreases the captains role of leadership

40.3.4.4 (3163)
With regard to communication in a cockpit, we can say that:
a) communication uses up resources, thus limiting the resources allocated to work
in progress
b) communication is always sufficiently automated to enable an activity with a high workload
element to be carried out at the same time
c) communication is only effective if messages are kept short and sufficiently precise to limit
their number
d) all the characteristics of communication, namely output, duration, precision, clarity, etc. are
stable and are not much affected by changes in workload

40.3.4.4 (3164)
The intended recipient of a message must:-1 : give priority and adapt to the
sender's situation.-2 : acknowledge the receipt only in case of doubt.-3 : be able to
reject or postpone a communication attempt if the pilot is too busy.-4 : stabilize or
finish a challenging manoeuvre before starting a discussion.The combination of
correct statements is:
a) 3 and 4 are correct
b) 1,2 and 4 are correct
c) 1 and 2 are correct
d) 2 and 3 are correct

40.3.4.4 (3165)
Different non-technical related opinions between pilots from different cultural
backgrounds might be seen in connection with:-1 : the variations of technical
training and skills.-2 : communication problems.-3 : conflicting ways of
management.-4 : interpersonal problems.The combination of correct statements is:
a) 2,3 and 4 are correct
b) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
c) only 1 is correct
d) 2 and 3 are correct

40.3.4.4 (3166)
The use of modern technology applied to glass-cockpit aircraft has:
a) facilitated feedback from the machine via more concise data for communication
on the flight deck
b) considerably improved all the communication facilities of the crew
c) reduced the scope for non-verbal communication in interpersonal relations
d) improved man-machine communication as a result of flight sensations
533
40.3.4.4 (3167)
In a glass-cockpit aircraft, communication between the members of the crew:
a) does not loose its importance
b) will increase as a result of the increase of technical dissemination of information
c) will be hampered by the decrease in actions brought about by technical improvements
d) are facilitated from the non-verbal point of view owing to the increased availability wich
results from technical lightening of the workload

40.3.4.4 (3168)
What are the communication qualities of a good briefing?A good briefing must:-1 :
contain as much information and be as comprehensive as possible.-2 : be of a
standard type so that it can be reused for another flight of the same type.-3 : be
short and precise.-4 : be understandable to the other crew member(s).The correct
statement(s) is (are):
a) 2,3 and 4 are correct
b) 1 and 2 are correct
c) 1, 2 and 4 are correct
d) 1 and 4 are correct

40.3.4.4 (3169)
Of the following statements, select those which apply to ""information"".-1 : It is
said to be random when it is not intended for receivers.-2 : It is intended to reduce
uncertainty for the receiver.-3 : It is measured in bits.-4 : Each bit of information
reduces uncertainty by a quarter.The correct statement(s) is (are):
a) 2 and 3 are correct
b) 1,2,3 and 4 are correct
c) 2,3 and 4 are correct
d) only 1 is correct

40.3.4.4 (3170)
Success in achieving the objectives of a message requires:
a) the matching of verbal, non-verbal and contextual meanings
b) differences in contexts for the sender and the receiver
c) a form of the message, which should not match the expectation of the receiver
d) different codes between form and meaning

40.3.4.4 (3171)
In order to make communication effective, it is necessary to: -1 : avoid the
synchronization of verbal and non-verbal channels.-2 : send information in line
with the receiver's decoding abilities.-3 : always concentrate on the informational
aspects of the message only.-4 : avoid increasing the number of communication
channels, in order to simplify communication.The correct statement(s) is (are):
a) only 2 is correct
b) 1,2 and 3 are correct
c) 3 and 4 are correct
d) 2 and 4 are correct

40.3.4.4 (3172)
Which of the following statements regarding interpersonal interactions are
correct?-1 If the sender finds the receiver competent, he/she tends to reduce
verbal redundancy content of his sentences-2 If the interlocuter is of non-native
534
tongue, the sender will reinforce what he is saying by using more complicated
words so as to optimize understanding-3 If he/she finds him incompetent, he
tends to simplify the content of sentences-4 Simplification of check list in a crew
who know each other essentially takes place in the case of interpersonal
conflictThe correct statement(s) is (are):
a) 1 and 3 are correct
b) 1 and 2 are correct
c) 2 and 3 are correct
d) 3 and 4 are correct

40.3.4.4 (3173)
Professional languages have certain characteristics, for example: -1 : They use a
limited vocabulary .-2 : They are rich and adapted to the context, which sometimes
lead to ambiguities.-3 : Their grammar is rather complicated and complex.-4 :
Context provides meaning, therefor reduces the risk of ambiguities.The correct
statement(s) is (are):
a) 1 and 4 are correct
b) 1 and 3 are correct
c) 2 and 3 are correct
d) only 4 is correct

40.3.4.4 (3174)
A study by NASA has examined the relationships between incidents linked with
ground-to-crew communication. Which of the following factors is the main reason
for disturbances in the correct reception of a message?
a) Listening errors.
b) Errors in understanding clearance values.
c) Radio failure.
d) Mother tongue differing from working language.

40.3.4.4 (3175)
An increase in workload usually leads to:
a) a shorter and less frequent exchange of information
b) a longer and less frequent exchange of information
c) a shorter and more frequent exchange of information
d) a longer and more frequent exchange of information

40.3.4.4 (3176)
Which of the following solutions represent antidotes to conflicts ?1. Seeking
arbitration2. Actively listening to other people3. Abandoning facts so as to move
the conversation to a more emotional level4. Becoming aware of cultural
influences
a) 1,2,4
b) 1,2,3
c) 2,3,4
d) 2,4

40.3.4.4 (3177)
Which of the following statements concerning conflicts is correct ?
a) Conflict management involves the participation of all involved parties in finding
an acceptable collective solution 535
b) Whatever the cause of the conflict, its resolution must necessarily involve an additional
party if it is to be effective
c) Conflicts are negative in themselves and can only lead to a general detachment of involved
parties
d) The emergence of a conflict always results from calling into question the general abilities of
one of the involved parties

40.3.5.0 (3178)
With regard to the average influence of age on pilot performance, it may be said
that age:
a) has little impact when the pilot is able to compensate for it by his/her flight
experience
b) sharply reduces performance without, however, affecting cognitive capabilities
c) has a major impact owing to the impairment of memory
d) increases in impact as speed of thought and memory deteriorate

40.3.5.1 (3179)
Attitudes are defined as:
a) tendencies to respond to people, institutions or events either positively or
negatively
b) the conditions necessary for carrying out an activity
c) the genetic predispositions for thinking and acting
d) a synonym for behaviour

40.3.5.1 (3180)
Which of the following behaviours is most disruptive to teamwork under high
workload conditions in the cockpit?
a) Mentally absent.
b) Sensitive.
c) Disciplined.
d) Jovial.

40.3.5.1 (3181)
Contrary to a person's personality, attitudes:
a) Are the product of personal disposition and past experience with reference to an
object or a situation
b) form part of personality and that, as a result, they cannot be changed in an adult
c) are non-evolutive adaptation procedures regardless of the result of the actions associated
with them
d) are essentially driving forces behind changes in personality

40.3.5.1 (3182)
Which of the following elements make up the personality of an individual ?1.
Heredity2. Childhood environment3. Upbringing4. Past experience
a) 1,2,3,4
b) 1,2,4
c) 2,3
d) 2,3,4

40.3.5.1 (3183)
The effectiveness of the individual depends on: 536
a) the ability to balance the dictates of the individual's needs and the demands of
reality
b) the ability to repress the dictates of needs
c) the ability to go beyond one's own capabilities
d) the total independence with respect to the environment

40.3.5.2 (3184)
Very high ambition and need for achievement
a) disturbe the climate of cooperation
b) fulfil the requirements of stress resistance
c) always promote teamwork
d) improves the coping process with personal failures

40.3.5.2 (3185)
Which of the following personality characteristics makes crew decision making
most effective?
a) Assertiveness.
b) Competitiveness.
c) General intelligence.
d) Friendliness.

40.3.5.2 (3186)
A copilot has passed an upgrading course to become a captain. Which
psychological consequence is most likely?
a) His/her self-concept is going to change because of new roles and tasks which
have to be incorporated.
b) His/her self -concept is going to be stabilized because of the higher status as a captain.
c) The increased command authority leads to a higher professionalism.
d) An upgrading does not have any of the mentioned psychological consequences.

40.3.5.3 (3187)
Which of the following responses lists most of the common hazardous thought
patterns (attitudes) for pilots to develop?
a) Anti-authority, impulsiveness, invulnerabilty, resignation, machismo complex
b) Invulnerability, underconfidence, avoidance of making decisions, lack of situational
awareness
c) Machismo complex, resignation, confidence, self critcism
d) Resignation, confidence, inattention

40.3.5.3 (3188)
Which of the following is NOT an hazardous attitude?
a) Domination
b) Macho
c) Anti-authority
d) Impulsivity

40.3.6.1 (3189)
The relationship between arousal and flying performance is
a) approximately the form of an inverted U
b) approximately linear increasing
537
c) approximately exponential
d) approximately sinusoidal

40.3.6.1 (3190)
In a complex task high levels of arousal
a) narrow the span of attention
b) improve performance
c) lead to better decision-making
d) reduce failures

40.3.6.1 (3191)
A high level of motivation is related
a) to high levels of arousal
b) to high levels of intelligence
c) to complacency
d) to monotony states

40.3.6.1 (3192)
If during flight a pilot is in a mental condition of ""optimum arousal"" he/she will
be:
a) prepared best to cope with a difficult task
b) unprepared to handle a difficult situation
c) approaching a condition of complacency or fatigue
d) in a confused mental state

40.3.6.1 (3193)
Please check the following statements:1. A stressor causes activation 2. Activation
stimulates a person to cope with it
a) 1 and 2 are both correct
b) 1 is correct, 2 is not correct
c) 1 is not correct, 2 is correct
d) 1 and 2 are both not correct

40.3.6.1 (3194)
An identical situation can be experienced by one pilot as exciting in a positive
sense and by another pilot as threatening. In both cases:
a) the arousal level of both pilots will be raised
b) both pilots will loose their motor-coordination
c) both pilots will experience the same amount of stress
d) the pilot feeling threatened, will be much more relaxed, than the pilot looking forward to
what may happen

40.3.6.2 (3195)
What are easily observable indications of stress?
a) Perspiration, flushed skin, dilated pupils, fast breathing.
b) Lowering of the blood pressure.
c) Faster, deep inhalation, stabbing pain around the heart.
d) Rising of the blood pressure, pupils narrowing, stabbing pain around the heart.

538
40.3.6.2 (3196)
Which of the following statements is true?
a) Stressors accumulate thus increasing the likelihood to exhaustion.
b) Stressors are independent from each other.
c) Stress should always be avoided under any circumstances.
d) People are capable of living without stress.

40.3.6.2 (3197)
How should a pilot react, when suffering from chronic stress?
a) Attempt to reduce the stress by using a concept which approaches the entire
body and improves wellness.
b) Use moderate administration of tranquillizers before flight.
c) Ignore the particular stressors and increase your physical exercises.
d) Always consult a psychotherapist before the next flight.

40.3.6.2 (3198)
In case of in-flight stress, one should :
a) use all available resources of the crew
b) only trust in oneself, beeing sure to know the own limits
c) demonstrate aggressiveness to stimulate the crew
d) always carry out a breathing exercise

40.3.6.2 (3199)
The behavioural effects of stress may include :-1 : manifestation of
aggressiveness.-2 : a willingness to improve communication.-3 : a willingness for
group cohesion.-4 : a tendency to withdrawl.-5 : inappropriate gestural
agitation.The combination of correct statements is :
a) 1,4 and 5 are correct
b) 1 and 4 are correct
c) 1,2 and 3 are correct
d) 2,4 and 5 are correct

40.3.6.2 (3200)
The cognitive effects of stress may include :-1 : excessive haste.-2 : an
improvement in memory.-3 : a complete block: action is impossible.-4 : a risk of
focusing on a particular aspect.-5 : ease of decision-making.-6 : an increase in the
rate of mistakes.The combination which brings together all correct statements is :
a) 1,3,4,6
b) 1,2,5
c) 2,3,5,6
d) 3,4,5

40.3.6.2 (3201)
What is the effect of stress on performance ?-1 : It always reduces
performance.-2 : Optimum performance is obtained with optimum arousal.-3 :
Excessive stress weakens performance.-4 : Insufficient stress weakens
performance.The combination of correct statements is:
a) 2,3,4
b) 1,2,3
c) 1,3,4
d) 1,2,4 539
40.3.6.2 (3202)
What are the characteristics of the alarm phase of the stress reactions?-1 :
increased arousal level as a result of adrenaline secretion.-2 : an increase in heart
rate, respiration and release of glucose.-3 : a decrease in stress resistance.-4 :
activation of the digestive system.-5 : secretion of cortisol to mobilize
attention.The combination of correct statements is:
a) 1,2,3
b) 1,2
c) 2,4,5
d) 1,3,5

40.3.6.2 (3203)
What are the three phases of General Adaptation Syndrome ?
a) Alarm, resistance, exhaustion.
b) Alert, resistance, performance.
c) alarm, resistance, performance,
d) alert, resistance, exhaustion

40.3.6.2 (3204)
The organism is mobilized by a process known as:
a) GAS : General Adaptation Syndrome
b) NAS : Natural Adaptation Syndrome
c) GMS : General Mobilization Syndrome.
d) GAF : General Adaptation Function.

40.3.6.2 (3205)
What is the most decisive factor in regard to a very demanding stress situation?
a) The subjective evaluation of the situation by the individual.
b) The time available to cope with the situation.
c) The objective threat of the situation.
d) The unexpected outcome of the situation.

40.3.6.2 (3206)
Stress appears:-1 : only in a situation of imminent danger.-2 : only when faced
with real, existing and palpable phenomenon.-3 : sometimes via imagination, the
anticipation of a situation or its outcome.-4 : because of the similarity with a
formerly experienced stressful situationThe correct statement(s) is (are):
a) 3,4
b) 1,2
c) 2, 3
d) 1,2,4

40.3.6.2 (3207)
Cognitive evaluation which leads to stress is based on:
a) the evaluation of the situation and the evaluation of capabilities to cope with it
b) the evaluation of the situation and the the state of fatigue of the individual
c) the evaluation of the capabilities of the individual and the time available
d) the capabilities of the individual and the solutions provided by the environment

40.3.6.2 (3208)
Which of the following physical stimuli may cause stress reactions?-1 : noise.-2540
:
interpersonnal conflict.-3 : temperature.-4 : administrative problem.-5 :
hunger.The combination of correct statements is:
a) 1,3,5
b) 1,3,4
c) 3,4,5
d) 2,3,5

40.3.6.2 (3209)
Which of the following statements concerning stress is correct?
a) Stress will be evaluated differently depending on whether it improves or
reduces performance.
b) Stress always creates a state of high tension which decreases cognitive and behavioural
performance.
c) Stress is evaluated as a positiv mechanism only in connection with precise tasks of the kind
encountered in aeronautics
d) Stress is a necessary way of demonstrating one's own work.

40.3.6.2 (3210)
Acute stress quickly leads to
a) the mobilization of resources required to cope with the stressor
b) a decrease in the amount of resources mobilized to face the situation
c) a permanent state of incapacitation
d) a state of overactivation beyond the control of willpower

40.3.6.2 (3211)
The resistance phase of stress reaction is characterized by:-1 : activation of the
autonomic nervous system (ANS).-2 : testosterone secretion which enables fats to
be converted into sugar.-3 : a sudden fall in stress resistance.-4 : the appearance
of psychosomatic disorders when lasting over a prolonged time.The combination of
correct statements is:
a) 1 and 4 are correct
b) 1,2 and 3 are correct
c) 2 , 3 and 4 are correct
d) 3 and 4 are correct

40.3.6.2 (3212)
Stress may be defined as:
a) a normal phenomenon which enables an individual to adapt to encountered
situations
b) a poorly controlled emotion which leads to a reduction in capabilities
c) a psychological phenomenon which only affects fragile personalities
d) a human reaction which one must manage to eliminate

40.3.6.2 (3213)
What is a stressor?
a) An external or internal stimulus which is interpreted by an individual as beeing
stressful
b) All external stimulation are stressors since they modify the internal equilibrium
c) A psychological problem developed in a situation of danger
d) The adaptation response of the individual to his environment
541
40.3.6.2 (3214)
What triggers stress in humans?
a) The subjective interpretation an individual gives to a situation experienced
b) Objective stimulation from the environment regards of subjective perceptions
c) Only strong excitations of the sensory organs: a flash of light, noise, the smell of smoke
d) Always the awareness of an emotion and a physiological activation (e. g. rapide heart rate)

40.3.6.2 (3215)
In relation to the word ´stress´as it affects human beings, which of the following
responses is correct?
a) ´Stress´is a term used to describe how a person reacts to demands placed upon
him/her.
b) All forms of stress should be avoided.
c) Reactive stressors relate purely to a pilot´s physical condition.
d) Self imposed obligations will not create stress.

40.3.6.2 (3216)
Workload essentially depends on:
a) the current situation, the pilot's expertise and the ergonomics of the system
b) the pilot's experience and the ergonomics of the system
c) the pilot's knowledge
d) the task and the day's parameters (weather report, aircraft load, type of flight, etc)

40.3.6.2 (3217)
Which of the following statements in regard to motivation is correct?
a) Extremely high motivation in combination with excessive stress will limit
attention management capabilities
b) Too much motivation may result in hypovigilance and thus in a decrease in attention
c) Motivation will reduce the task automation process
d) Low motivation will guarantee adequate attention management capabilities

40.3.6.2 (3218)
What are the effects of distress (overstress) ?
a) It increases vigilance for a longer period than stress itself, but may focus
attention
b) It reduces vigilance and focusses attention
c) It activates resources stored in memory
d) It has very little immediate effect on vigilance and attention

40.3.6.2 (3219)
Pilot stress reactions :
a) differ from pilot to pilot, depending on how a person manages the particular
stressors
b) seem to be always the same for most pilots
c) are related to an internationally recognized list of stressors where the top-ten items should
be avoided by all means
d) do not change with the environment or different situations but mainly with the characters
themselves

40.3.6.2 (3220)
Fixation or tunnel vision is primarily to be expected when : 542
a) stress is high
b) stress is medium
c) stress and motivation are medium
d) stress and motivation are low

40.3.6.2 (3221)
The maintenance of man's internal equilibrium is called :
a) Homeostasis
b) Heterostasis
c) Homeothermy
d) Poikilothermy

40.3.6.2 (3222)
A stress reaction is:
a) the non-specific response of the body to every demand placed on a person
b) the specific response of the body to every demand placed on a person
c) the non-specific stimuli causing a human body to respond
d) the specific stimuli causing a human body to respond

40.3.6.2 (3223)
Stress is above all :
a) the best adaptation phenomenon that man possesses for responding to the
various situation which he may have to face
b) a psychosomatic disease that one can learn to control
c) a response by man to his problems, which automatically leads to a reduction in his
performance
d) a phenomenon which is specific to modern man

40.3.6.2 (3224)
Experiencing stress depends on:
a) the individual interpretation of the situation
b) the fragility of individuals to certain types of stimulation
c) the individual's state of tiredness
d) the environment of the situation which the individual will live through or is in the process of
living through

40.3.6.2 (3225)
Stress is a reaction to adapt a specific situation.This reaction
a) may include various psychological and physiological elements which one can
learn to manage
b) is always linked to excessive fear
c) can only be controlled by medical treatment
d) is purely physiological and automatic

40.3.6.2 (3226)
The individual's perception of stress depends on:
a) the subjectiv evaluation of the situation and one's abilities to cope with it
b) the objectiv evaluation of the situation and one's abilities to cope with it
c) the pilot's increasing level of arousal
d) the conditions of the current situation only
543
40.3.6.2 (3227)
Stress is a response which is prompted by the occurence of various stressors. Of
these, which can be called physiological ?
a) Noise, temperature (low or high), humidity, sleep deprivation
b) Noise, hunger, conflicts, a death
c) Heat, humidity, fatique, administrative problems
d) Temperature, hunger, thirst, divorce

40.3.6.2 (3228)
General Adaptation Syndrome is characterised by the following phases :-1 :
alarm-2 : alert phase-3 : resistance phase-4 : exhaustion phase-5 : vigilance phase
a) 1,3,4
b) 2,3,4
c) 1,2,4,5
d) 2,3,4,5

40.3.6.2 (3229)
A person being exposed to extreme or prolonged stress factors can perceive:
a) distress (stress reactions)
b) coping stress
c) eustress
d) stressors

40.3.6.2 (3230)
Getting uneasy will effect:1. attention2. concentration 3. memory 4. prudence
a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct
b) 1 and 2 are correct
c) 1 and 3 are correct
d) 2, 3 and 4 are correct

40.3.6.2 (3231)
The biological reaction to stress is identical regardless of the cause of stress. This
mechanism occurs in three phases and is referred to, by Selye, as the ""General
Adaptation Syndrome"". The sequence is:
a) alarm phase - resistance phase - exhaustion phase
b) alarm phase - denial phase - exhaustion phase
c) exhaustion phase - resistance phase - adaptation phase
d) resistance phase - exhaustion phase - recovery phase

40.3.6.2 (3232)
According to the different phases of the ""General Adaptation Syndrom"" check the
following statements:1. During the alarm phase stress hormones (i.e. adrenalin)
will cause a massiv release of glucose into the blood, an acceleration of pulse and
blood pressure as well as an increase in the rate and depth of breathing2. During
the resistance phase the parasympathetic system uses a different type of hormone
(cortisol) assisting to convert fat into sugar thus providing sufficient energy supply
to the brain and body cells for sustained operation.3. During the exhaustion phase
the body has to be given time to eliminate the waste products which have been
generated excessively during the two preceeding phases,
a) 1,2 and 3 are correct
b) 1 and 2 are correct, 3 is false
544
c) only 1 is correct
d) 2 and 3 are correct, 1 is false

40.3.6.2 (3233)
1. Adaptation is a new state of equilibrium after having coped with a stressful
situation. 2. An individual's prospect of the situation and his/her abilities to cope
with it will determine the type and strength of stress.
a) 1 and 2 are both correct
b) 1 is correct, 2 is false
c) 1 is false, 2 is correct
d) 1 and 2 are both false

40.3.6.2 (3234)
Learning to fly naturally induces stress in a student pilot because he is lacking
experience. Manifestations of this type of stress are:1. nervousness and
chanellized attention2. being rough at the controls3. smoke and drink much more
alcohol than usual4. airsickness, lack of sleep
a) 1 and 2 are correct, 3 and 4 are false
b) 1 and 2 are false, 3 and 4 are correct,
c) 1, 2 and 3 are correct, 4 is false
d) 1, 2 and 4 are correct, 3 is false

40.3.6.2 (3235)
The level at which a pilot will experience a situation as stressful
a) depends on the individual's perception of available abilities in comparison to the
situational demands
b) does not depend on his capacity to absorb information
c) depends on the level of demand but not on individual interpretation of the situational
demands
d) depends on self-confidence alone

40.3.6.2 (3236)
Please check the following statements:1. Psychosomatic means that mental and/or
emotional stressors can be manifested in organic stress reactions.2. Psychosomatic
means that a physical problem is always followed by psychological stress.
a) 1 is correct, 2 is false
b) 1 and 2 are both correct
c) 1 is false, 2 is correct
d) 1 and 2 are both false

40.3.6.2 (3237)
1. Psychosomatic means that a physiological problem is followed by psychological
stress. 2. Psychosomatic complaints hardly occur in professional aviation because
of the strict selection for this particular profession .
a) 1 and 2 are both not correct
b) 1 and 2 are both correct
c) 1 is correct 2 is not correct
d) 1 is not correct 2 is correct

40.3.6.3 (3238)
545
A fatigued pilot
a) will show signs of increased irritability
b) is acting similar as when encountering a state of depression
c) will get precordial pain
d) considerably increases the ability to concentrate

40.3.6.3 (3239)
What is the effect of tiredness on attention ?
a) It reduces the ability to manage multiple matters
b) It increases the ability to manage multiple matters
c) It leads to one's attention being dispersed between different centres of interest
d) It has no specific effects on attention

40.3.6.3 (3240)
Which of the following statements concerning tiredness is correct ?
a) Tiredness is a subjective sensation which is reflected in hypovigilance or in poor
management of intellectual capabilities
b) Tiredness is always the result of an intellectual overload
c) Tiredness is the consequence of a diminution of performance
d) Tiredness is an objective psychophysiological symptom of a reduction in attention
capabilities

40.3.6.4 (3241)
In order to completely resynchronise with local time after zone crossing, circadian
rhythms require
a) less time when flying from east to west
b) more time when flying from east to west
c) about one day per 2.5 hours of time shift
d) about one week per 2.5 hours of time shift

40.3.6.4 (3242)
Flying from Frankfurt to Moscow you will have a lay-over of 4 days. What time
measure is relevant for your circadian rhythm on the 3. day?
a) LT (local time).
b) MEZ (middle european time).
c) ZT (zonal time).
d) UTC (universal time coordinated).

40.3.6.4 (3243)
The readjustment of the biological rhythms after a time shift is normally more
difficult
a) with flights towards the East
b) with flights towards the West
c) with flights towards the North
d) with flights towards the South

40.3.6.4 (3244)
During paradoxical sleep
a) rapid eye movements can be observed
b) the tone of the muscles is similar to that in the waking state
c) respiration is very regular
d) the rhythm of the heart is very regular 546
40.3.6.4 (3245)
The physiological rhythms of a pilot in a new time zone will resynchronise to this
new time zone at a rate of about
a) 1 - 1.5 hours a day
b) 2 - 2.5 hours a day
c) 3 - 3.5 hours a day
d) 4 - 4.5 hours a day

40.3.6.4 (3246)
The duration of a period of sleep is governed primarily by
a) the point within your circadian rhythm at which you try to sleep
b) the duration of your previous sleep
c) the amount of time you have been awake
d) the number of points you have in your 'credit/deficit' system

40.3.6.4 (3247)
Of the following statements concerning the effects of circadian rhythms on
performance, we know that :
a) Sensorimotor performance is better in the evening whereas intellectual
performance is better in the morning
b) Sensorimotor performance is better in the morning whereas intellectual performance is
better in the evening
c) Sensorimotor and intellectual performance are better in the morning and are sensitive to
the duration of the sleep state
d) Sensorimotor and intellectual performance are better in the evening and very sensitive to
the duration of the waking period

40.3.6.4 (3248)
In order to minimize the effects of crossing more than 3-4 time zones with a
layover more than 24 hrs, it is advisable to :1. Adapt as quickly as possible to the
rhythm of the arrival country2. Keep in swing with the rhythm of the departure
country for as long as possible3. Maintain regular living patterns (waking ,sleeping
alternation and regular meal pattern )4. Try to sleep as much as possible to
overcome negative arousal effects
a) 2,3
b) 1,3
c) 2,4
d) 1,4

40.3.6.4 (3249)
Concerning circadian rhythm disruption (jet lag), the effects of adjustment to
destination time :1. are longer for western rather than eastern flights2. are longer
for eastern rather than western flights3. vary little between individuals4. may vary
greatly between individuals
a) 2,4
b) 1,3
c) 1,4
d) 2,3

40.3.6.4 (3250)
What seem to be the main roles of deep sleep ? 547
a) It essentially allows for physical recovery and the reconstitution of neuron
energy reserves
b) It is confined to physical recuperation associated with fatigue
c) Its main role is associated with activities of memory activities and restoration of attention
capabilities
d) Via physical recovery, it is characterised by an alternation of dream phases and paradoxical
phases

40.3.6.4 (3251)
What are the main effects of a lack of sleep loss on performance ?
a) It increases fatigue, concentration and attention difficulties, the risk of sensory
illusions and mood disorders
b) It increases fatigue and concentration difficulties, but facilitates stress management by
muscular relaxation,
c) It causes muscular spasms
d) It reduces concentration and fatigue only with sleep loss greater than 48 hours

40.3.6.4 (3252)
The human circadian rhythm is based on a cycle of about:
a) 24 hours
b) 1.5 hours
c) 12 hours
d) 48 hours

40.3.6.4 (3253)
Disturbance of the biological clock appears after a:1. bad night's sleep 2. day flight
Amsterdam - New York 3. day flight Amsterdam - Johannesburg4. night flight New
York - Amsterdam
a) 2 and 4 are correct
b) 1,2 and 3 are correct
c) 1 and 3 are correct
d) 1,2,3 and 4 are correct

40.3.6.4 (3254)
Sleeplessness or the disruption of sleeping patterns 1. can lead to symptoms of
drowsiness, irritability and lack of concentration2. will make an individual more
prone to make errors
a) 1 and 2 are both correct
b) 1 is not correct, 2 is correct
c) 1 is correct, 2 is not correct
d) 1 and 2 are both not correct

40.3.6.4 (3255)
Check the following statements:1. A person experiencing sleep loss is unlikely to
be aware of personal performance degradation2. Performance loss may be present
up to 20 minutes after awaking from a short sleep (nap)
a) 1 and 2 are both correct
b) 1 is correct 2 is false
c) 1 is false, 2 is correct
d) 1 and 2 are both false
548
40.3.6.4 (3256)
The sleep cycles repeat during the course of a night's sleep.1. Each succeeding
cycle contains a greater amount of REM- sleep.2. Frequent interruption of the REM-
sleep can harm a human being in the long run.
a) 1 and 2 are both correct
b) 1 is correct 2 is not correct
c) 1 is not correct 2 is correct
d) 1 and 2 are both not correct

40.3.6.4 (3257)
1. REM-sleep becomes shorter with any repeated sleep cycle during the night.2.
REM-sleep is more important for the regeneration of mental and physical functions
than all the other sleep stages are.
a) 1 is not correct 2 is correct
b) 1 and 2 are both correct
c) 1 is correct 2 is not correct
d) 1 and 2 are false

40.3.6.5 (3258)
Stress management programmes usually involve:
a) the prevention and/or the removal of stress
b) only the removal of stress
c) only the prevention of stress
d) the use of psychoactive drugs

40.3.6.5 (3259)
Using a checklist prior start is a contribution to
a) safety, because the concentration on the check list items will draw the pilot´s
attention to flight related tasks, reducing distraction from personal stress
b) stress, because time pressure prior take-off is always present
c) workload, because using checklists will increase the pilot´s workload prior take-off
d) frustration

40.3.6.5 (3260)
The human performance is generally
a) better when relaxed, independent of the period of day
b) better very early in the morning
c) always better in the evening than in the morning
d) constant throughout the day

40.3.6.5 (3261)
What are the main strategies for adapting to time constraints ?
a) The preparation of action and the prioritisation of tasks
b) The preparation of action and time management
c) The prioritisation of tasks and the application of procedures
d) The preparation of action and the application of procedures

40.3.6.5 (3262)
If coping with a stress situation is impossible, one will remain in the state of:
a) distress
549
b) adaptation
c) hypoxia
d) eustress

40.3.7.0 (3263)
The performance of the man machine system is above all :
a) a combination which is based on decreasing the pilot's workload and increasing
his time for supervision
b) a balanced combination between someone actively engaged in his work and automated
systems which serve to control the pilot's workload
c) a combination which must make the pilot available for the sphere in which he is most
qualified, namely checking departures from the normal operating range
d) a combination in which the pilot must keep the main repetitive tasks and automated
systems under his control in line with rule-based behaviour

40.3.7.1 (3264)
Which of the following operations are performed more effectively by automatic
systems than by people ?1. Waiting for an infrequent phenomenon2. Long term
controlling of a set value (e.g holding of trajectory) 3. Monitoring to ensure that
certain values are not exceeded (e.g holding of flight path) 4. Qualitative decision-
making
a) 1,2,3
b) 2,4
c) 3,4
d) 2,3,4

40.3.7.1 (3265)
Which of the following drawbacks are associated with automation ?1. Reduced
competence in manually controlling the aircraft2. Increased likelihood of slips
while programming automatic systems 3. Difficulties in adapting to the use of a
sidestick4. General decrease in technical reliability
a) 1,2
b) 1,4
c) 2,3,4
d) 1,3

40.3.7.1 (3266)
Which of the following operations are performed more effectively by people than
by automatic systems ?1. Qualitative decision-making2. Waiting for an infrequent
phenomenon3. Monitoring to ensure that certain values are not exceeded4.
Detections of unusual conditions (smell, noise, etc.)
a) 1,4
b) 1,2
c) 3,4
d) 2,3,4

40.3.7.1 (3267)
If man is compared with a computer, it can be said that man :
a) has more effective means of action (output) and is above all capable of
considerable synergy
b) has less effective means of action (output) than the computer
c) has less effective means of data collection than the computer 550
d) is relatively limited compared with a computer, that means of data collection or means of
action are referred to

40.3.7.2 (3268)
How can a pilot avoid automation complacency?
a) Regard the automatic system as additional crew members that needs to be
crosschecked as well
b) Always try to enhance your aviation related knowledge during low workload periods
c) Always fly the whole flight manually to remain in man-machine loop
d) Nothing, because it is system-inherent

40.3.7.2 (3269)
A high degree of cockpit automation may alter the traditional tasks of the pilots in
a way, that
a) the attention of the cockpit crew will become reduced with the consequence of
'being out of the loop'
b) it is guaranteed that the crew maqintains always situational awareness
c) Crew Coordination can be neglected on long haul flights without compromizing safety
d) the crew can pay more attention to solve the problem in an abnormal situation without
monitoring the automatic systems

40.3.7.2 (3270)
One negative aspect of the highly automated cockpit results in :
a) complacency among the crewmembers
b) pilots disregarding the automatic equipment
c) constantly high crew overload with regard to the monitoring tasks
d) less experienced crews because of more transparent system details

40.3.7.3 (3271)
As a result of automation in cockpits,
a) communication and coordination call for an even greater effort on the part of
the crew members
b) man-man communication has been significantly improved
c) coordination between the members is facilitated by the provision of more precise and more
important information
d) communication and coordination have clearly improved in man-man and man-machine
relations

50.1.1.1 (3272)
How does the height of the tropopause normally vary with latitude in the northern
hemisphere ?
a) It decreases from south to north.
b) It remains constant from north to south.
c) It increases from south to north.
d) It remains constant throughout the year.

50.1.1.1 (3273)
What, approximately, is the average height of the tropopause over the equator ?
a) 16 km
b) 8 km
551