Paper EA3 – Energy Auditor – Set B Solutions

NATIONAL CERTIFICATION EXAMINATION 2004

FOR
ENERGY AUDITORS

PAPER – EA3: Energy Efficiency in Electrical Utilities

Date: 23.05.2004 Timings: 0930-1230 HRS Duration: 3 HRS Max. Marks: 150

General instructions:
o Please check that this question paper contains 7 printed pages
o Please check that this question paper contains 65 questions
o The question paper is divided into three sections
o All questions in all three sections are compulsory
o All parts of a question should be answered at one place

Section – I: OBJECTIVE TYPE Marks: 50 x 1 = 50

(i) Answer all 50 questions

(ii) Each question carries one mark
(iii) Put a () tick mark in the appropriate box in the answer book

1. In electricity distribution, if the voltage is raised from 11 kV to 22 kV for the same

loading conditions, the voltage drop in the distribution system would be lower by a
factor of

a) 1/2 b) 1/4 c) 1/16 d) none of the above

2. If the voltage level of the electricity distribution system is raised from 11 kV to 33 kV
for the same loading conditions, the distribution losses are reduced by a factor of

a) 1/3 b) 1/6 c) 1/9 d) none of the above

3. If the reactive power drawn by a particular load is zero, it means the load is operating
at

a) unity power factor b) lagging power factor

c) leading power factor d) none of the above
4. Select the location of installing capacitor bank, which will reduce the electricity
distribution losses to the maximum extent

a) main sub-station bus bars b) distribution board bus bars

c) motor control centre d) motor terminals
5. A six pole induction motor operating at 50 Hz, will have a synchronous speed of

a) 1500 RPM b) 1450 RPM c) 1000 RPM d) 960 RPM

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Paper EA3 – Energy Auditor – Set B Solutions

6. The nearest kVAr compensation required for improving the power factor of a 500 kW
load from 0.8 lag to unity power factor is

a) 375 kVAr b) 400 kVAr c) 500 kVAr d) none of the above

7. A power factor capacitor designed for 5 kVAr at 415 V was found to be operating at
430 V. The effective capacity of the capacitor would be

a) 5.181 kVAr b) 4.657 kVAr c) 5.367 kVAr d) none of the above

8. The percentage increase in power consumption of a compressor with suction side air
filter pressure drop of 250 mmWC is closest to

a) 0.5% b) 2% c) 3% d) 4%
9. A six pole induction motor operating at 50 Hz, with 1.2% slip will run at an actual
speed of

a) 880 RPM b) 988 RPM c) 1000 RPM d) none of the above

10. With increase in design speed of induction motors the required capacitive kVAr for
reactive power compensation for the same capacity range will

a) increase b) decrease c) not change d) none of the above

11. PF capacitor installed at the motor starter location will improve
a) motor operating power factor from the starter to the motor terminals side
b) motor operating power factor from the starter to the power supply side
c) motor design power factor
d) all of the above.
12. For every 4°C reduction in the air inlet temperature of an air compressor, the power
consumption will normally decrease by….. percentage points for the same output.

a) 4 b) 3 c) 2 d) 1
13. The acceptable pressure drop in the distribution system at the farthest point of an
industrial compressed air network is

a) 2.0 bar b) 1.0 bar c) 0.5 bar d) 0.3 bar

14. The kW rating indicated on the name plate of an induction motor indicates

a) rated output of the motor b) rated input of the motor

c) maximum instantaneous input power of the motor
d) maximum input power which the motor can draw
15. A 500 cfm compressor has a loading and unloading period of 10 seconds and 20
seconds respectively during a compressed air leakage test. The air leakage in the
compressed air system would be

a) 166.6 cfm b) 250 cfm c) 333.3 cfm d) none of the above

16. Higher chiller COP can be achieved with

a) higher evaporator temperature and higher condensing temperature

b) lower evaporator temperature and higher condensing temperature
c) lower evaporator temperature and lower condensing temperature
d) none of the above

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Paper EA3 – Energy Auditor – Set B Solutions

17. Squirrel cage induction motors, in general, have a …… design efficiency in

comparison with the slip ring induction motors for similar ratings

a) lower b) higher c) same d) none of the above

18. One ton of refrigeration (TR) is equal to

a) 4.51 kW b) 3024 kcal/hr c) 1,20,000 BTU/hr d) all of the above

19. Approximate percentage reduction in power consumption with 1 °C rise in evaporator
temperature in refrigerating systems is

a) 1% b) 2% c) 3% d) 4%
20. The refrigerant used in vapour absorption systems is

a) pure water b) steam c) freon d) lithium bromide

21. Li – Br water absorption refrigeration systems have a COP in the range of

a) 0.4 – 0.5 b) 0.65 – 0.70 c) 0.75 – 0.80 d) none of the above

22. Vertical type reciprocating compressors are used in the capacity range of

a) 50 – 150 cfm b) 200 – 500 cfm

c) 500 - 1000 cfm d) above 1000 cfm
23. If the speed of a pump is doubled, pump shaft power goes up by

a) 2 times b) 6 times c) 8 times d) 4 times

24. The outer tube connection of the pitot tube is used to measure …… in the fan system

a) static pressure b) velocity pressure

c) total pressure d) dynamic pressure
25. System resistance in water pumping system varies with

a) square of flow rate b) cube of flow rate

c) square root of flow rate d) none of the above
26. If the speed of a pump is doubled, the pump head goes up by

a) 2 times b) 4 times c) 8 times d) 16 times

27. Friction loss in a piping system carrying fluid is proportional to
1 1
a) b) (fluid flow)2 c) fluid flow d) (fluid flow)2
fluid flow
28. Shaft power of the motor driving a pump is 20 kW. The motor efficiency is 0.9 and
pump efficiency is 0.6. The power transmitted to the water is

a) 10.8 kW b) 12.0 kW c) 18.0 kW d) none of the above

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Paper EA3 – Energy Auditor – Set B Solutions

29. If inlet and outlet water temperatures of a cooling tower are 39 oC and 32oC
respectively and atmospheric DBT and WBT are 35 oC and 30 oC respectively then
the range of cooling tower is

a) 4oC b) 5oC c) 7oC d) 9oC

30. For fans, the relation between flow discharge Q and speed N is

a) = b) = c) = d) none of the above

31. Which of the following ambient conditions will evaporate maximum amount of water
in a cooling tower

a) 35 oC DBT and 25 oC WBT b) 40oC DBT and 38oC WBT

c) 35 oC DBT and 28 oC WBT d) 38 oC DBT and 37 oC WBT
32. The lowest theoretical temperature to which water can be cooled in a cooling tower is

a) WBT of the atmospheric air b) DBT of the atmospheric air

c) average DBT and WBT of the atmospheric air
d) difference between DBT and WBT of the atmospheric air
33. Cooling tower effectiveness is

a) range/ (range + approach) b) approach / (range + approach)

c) approach / range d) none of the above
34. Normally a manufacturer’s guaranteed best approach of a cooling tower is

a) 2.8 oC b) 5 oC c) 8 oC d) 12 oC
35. In general, design chilled water temperature drop across chillers is approximately

a) 1 oC b) 5 oC c) 10 oC d) 15 oC
36. GLS lamp is

a) general lighting service lamp b) general lighting source lamp

c) glow light source lamp d) glow light service lamp
37. Luminous efficacy of which of the following is the highest?

a) CFL b) HPMV c) LPSV d) HPSV

38. The unit of illuminance is

a) lux b) luminaire c) lumens d) none of the above

39. What is the typical frequency of a high frequency electronic ballast?

a) 50 Hz b) 10 kHz c) 30 kHz d) 50 kHz

40. If voltage is reduced from 230 V to 210 V for a fluorescent tube light, it will result in

a) increased power consumption b) reduced power consumption

c) increased light levels d) no change in power consumption and light levels

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Paper EA3 – Energy Auditor – Set B Solutions

41. The maximum unbalanced load between phases should not exceed …… % of the
capacity of the DG set

a) 1 b) 5 c) 10 d) none of the above

42. The rated efficiency of a diesel generator captive power plant has a range of

a) 43% – 45% b) 50% – 60% c) 60% – 70% d) above 70%

43. The compression ratio in diesel engines is in the range of

a) 5:1 to 10:1 b) 10:1 to 13:1 c) 14:1 to 25:1 d) none of the above

44. The operating efficiency of a DG set also depends on

a) inlet air temperature b) turbo charger performance

c) % loading d) all of the above
45. The exhaust gas waste heat recovery potential of a turbo charged genset at 500 kW
loading and 480oC exhaust gas is closest to ……
(Assume exit gas temperature of 180oC and 8 kg gas/ kWh generated)

a) 1.6 lakh kCal/hr b) 2.2 lakh kCal/hr c) 3.0 lakh kCal/hr d) 3.5 lakh kCal/hr
46. The basic functions of an electronic ballast fitted to a fluorescent tube light exclude
one of the following

a) to ignite the lamp b) to stabilize the gas discharge

c) to supply power to the lamp at supply frequency
d) to supply power to the lamp at very high frequency
47. The core losses of a transformer are the least if the core is made up of

a) silicon alloyed iron (grain oriented) b) copper

c) amorphous core – metallic glass alloy d) none of the above
48. Maximum demand controller is used to

a) switch off non-essential loads in a logical sequence

b) switch off essential loads in a logical sequence
c) controls the power factor of the plant
d) all of the above.
49. The nearest kVA rating required for a DG set with 1000 kW connected load, with
diversity factor of 1.5 and 84% loading and 0.8 power factor is

a) 2000 kVA b) 1500 kVA

c) 1000 kVA d) 500 kVA
50. Modern electronic soft starters are used for motors to

a) achieve variable speed b) provide smooth start and stop

c) improve the loading d) none of the above

……. End of Section – I …….

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Paper EA3 – Energy Auditor – Set B Solutions

Section – II: SHORT DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS Marks: 10 x 5 = 50

(i) Answer all Ten questions

(ii) Each question carries Five marks

S-1. Calculate the transformer total losses for an average loading of 80%. Assume no load
and full load losses as 0.9 kW and 7.3 kW respectively.
Transformer losses = No load losses + (% loading)2 x Full load losses
= 0.9+ (0.8)2 x 7.3
= 5.572kW

S-2. A consultant works out the percentage loading of a particular induction motor as a
ratio of current drawn to the rated current of the motor. Do you agree with the above
methodology adopted by the consultant? Justify your answer with reasons.

NO.
The current drawn by the motor is the resultant sum of the active and reactive
current of the induction motor. The reactive current drawn is independent of
load as it is supply voltage dependent, and hence remain constant as long as
the supplied voltage remains constant . On the other hand, active current drawn
is directly proportional to load and changes in direct proportion to the load.
Therefore, the resultant of active current and reactive current, which is the
current drawn by the motor, does not change in direct proportion to the change
in load as one of the current component is load independent. Therefore ,
current drawn by the induction motor at any part load may not be a true
reflection of the load .

However, the ratio, current drawn by the motor to its rated current, in the 90-
100% loading range, reflects the approximate loading of the motor as the
magnitude of the active current component is much more than the reactive
current component and , hence, the resultant current is more or less dictated by
the active current

OR

NO

The power factor of the motor falls sharply with the decrease in the load. On the
one hand, the decrease in load tends to reduce the currant drawn but at the
same time fall in power factor tends to increase the current. Therefore, the
current drawn by the motor at part load is always a resultant of these two
components. For example, for a 7.5 kW motor with a rated current of 14.5 A,
may draw 9 A at 50% loading. Clearly the ratio 9/14.5 is not 50%.

The above methodology holds true good only at about 80-100% motor loading,
as the fall in PF is not substantial .

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Paper EA3 – Energy Auditor – Set B Solutions

S-3. How does efficiency and power factor of an induction motor changes with the variation
in the applied load on the motor? Draw a curve depicting efficiency and power factor
vs percentage loading of the motor.
(see book-3)

S-4. A fan is operating at 800 RPM developing a flow of 3000 Nm 3/hr. at a static pressure
of 600 mmWC. What will be the flow and static pressure if the speed is reduced to
600 RPM.

Q1 3000 Nm3 / hr. Q2 = ?

N1 = 800 rpm N2 = 600 rpm

PSp1 = 600 mmWc PSp2 = ?

N1 = Q1
N2 Q2
Q2 = N2 = 600 x 3000 = 2250 Nm3 / hr.
N1 x Q1 800

SP1 = N12
SP2 N22

SP2 = SP1 x N22/N12 = 600 x 6002

8002
SP2 = 337.5mmWc

S-5. How do you calculate the TR across Air Handling Units (AHU)?

Refrigeration load in TR is assessed as ;

Where Q is the air flow in CMH

 is density of air kg/m3
h in is enthalpy of inlet air kCal/kg
h out is enthalpy of outlet air kCal/kg

S-6. In a cooling tower, the Cycle of Concentration (C.O.C) is 3 and evaporation losses are
1%. The circulation rate is 1500 m 3 /min. Find out the blow down quantity required
for maintaining the desired level of dissolved solids in the cooling water.

Blow down = Evaporation loss / (COC – 1)

= 0.01 x 1500
__________ = 15 = 7.5 m3/min
(3-1 )

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Paper EA3 – Energy Auditor – Set B Solutions

S-7. What are the various methods of flow control in centrifugal pumps?

1. Pump control by varying speed.

2. Parallel operation of pumps
3. Stop/start control
4. Flow control valve
5. By-pass control
6. Impeller trimming
7. Variable speed drives

S-8. How are energy savings achieved through electronic ballast in a fluorescent tube light
in comparison to the conventional magnetic ballast?

The first is because its low internal core loss, quite unlike conventional
magnetic ballasts. And second is the increased light output due to the
excitation of the lamp phosphors with high frequency

S-9. Whether it is advisable to install a servo transformer for controlling the operating
voltage of the lighting circuit? Justify your answer.

Most of the problems faced by the lighting equipment and the gears are due to
the supply voltage fluctuations. Hence, the lighting equipments have to be
isolated from the power feeders. This is carried out by installing lighting voltage
transformers, which regulate the voltage exclusively for lighting circuits. This
reduces the voltage related problems in turn increasing the efficiency of the
lighting system. This also results in energy saving during the periods when the
supply voltage levels are on higher side. In addition, it increases the life and
performance of the control gear units of the lamps due to better voltage
regulation.

S-10. A 2.0 MW DG set with an average load of 1.5 MW running in parallel with the grid was
found to be exporting 80 kVAr. Without calculating, explain what could be the possible
reasons for the export of reactive power to the grid. List advantages/disadvantages of
the above situation.

The DG set besides meeting the reactive power requirement of the load was
generating excessive 80 kVAR. The PF of the DG set must be lower than the
load PF. Since the DG set in parallel operation with grid, it will be in a position
to export reactive power.
Advantage:
The plant can improve its utility PF, provided it is worked out on the basis of
kWh and kVARh. In this process, some of the lagging kVARs imported from the
grid can be nullified by the export of kVARs. The PF penalty imposed or
improved PF benefits on the imported power can be accrued by the plant.

Disadvantage;
1. The excitation power required by the DG set will increase.
2. I2r losses of the alternator will increase.

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Paper EA3 – Energy Auditor – Set B Solutions

……. End of Section - II …….

Section – III: LONG DESCRIPTIVE QUESTIONS Marks: 5 x 10 = 50

(i) Answer all Five questions

(ii) Each question carries Ten marks

L-1. A plant has 2 identical 1000 kVA transformers. The plant average load is 700 kVA and
has never exceeded 900 kVA in the past.
(a) Compare the transformer losses when single transformer is in operation and when
both transformers are in parallel operation.
(b) What would you like to advise to the plant’s management on transformer operation

keeping in view the energy saving potential, reliability and safety of the system.

Assume no load loss of 2.1 kW and full load copper loss of 12 kW for each
transformer.

Transformer Losses ( when 2 transformers are in operation )

No load loss =2.1kW /transformer
F.L( Cu ) loss = 12kW / transformer
Cu loss at operating load = (350/1000)2 x 12= 1.47kW / transformer
Operating loss per transformer = 2.1+1.47 =3.57kW / transformer
Operating loss for both the transformers =3.57x 2 = 7.14kW
Transformer Losses ( when 1 transformer is in operation )
No load loss = 2.1kW
F.L loss = 12kW

Cu loss at operating load = (700/1000)2 x 12= 5.88kW

Operating loss per transformer = 2.1+5.88=7.98kW
Increase in transformer losses ( when 1 transformer is in operation )= 7.98-
7.14=0.84kW
(b) What would you like to advise to the plant’s management on transformer operation

keeping in view the energy saving potential, reliability and safety of the system.

1. The plant should operate two transformers in parallel operation, as there is a

power saving potential of 0.84 kW
2. In case the transformers average loading decrease below 700kva , the plant may
again work out the transformer losses and decide on the single or two
transformer in parallel . The break even point is around 600 kVA loading.
3. In case , it works out economical to operate only one transformer, then the
primary side of the stand by transformer should be kept in the switched off
mode.

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Paper EA3 – Energy Auditor – Set B Solutions

4. The transformers should be alternatively operated periodically as the

transformer oil of stand by switched off transformer will have a tendency to
absorb moisture, because of which its break down voltage strength will reduce.
This will hamper its insulation capabilities in the initial period of its switch on
mode.
5. Before switching on the stand by transformer, its oil should be preheated to
drive away the absorbed moisture.

L-2. A centrifugal pump is delivering 60 m3/s of water at a discharge pressure of 3 kg/cm 2g.
The pump suction is 2 meter below the pump center line. Find out the power drawn
by the motor if the pump efficiency is 70% and motor efficiency is 90%.

Q = 60 m3 / Sec.
P1 = 3 Kg/Cm2 = 30 m
Pump = 70%
Motor = 90%
Total Head = Deliver head - Suction head = 30-(-2) = 32 metres.

The pump suction is 2 m below the pump centerline. Hence it should be –2m. So the total
developed head would be 30 – (-2) = 32 m
Hydraulic Power(kW) = Q (m3/s) x Total Head(m) x ρ x g / 1000

= 60 x 32 x 1000 x 9.81
1000

=18835.2 kW

Shaft Power = Hydraulic Power = 18835.2 / 0.70 = 26907 kW

Pump efficiency

Shaft power
Motor Power = 26907 = 29896.6 kW
Motor efficiency 0.9 0

L-3. A compressed air leakage test was conducted in an engineering industry, which
employs a 500 cfm reciprocating compressor. The compressed air system is
maintained at the normal loading-unloading settings of 6.2 kg / cm2g and 7 kg / cm 2g
respectively. The following was observed for a period of 10 minutes trial:

On load time = 50 secs

Unload time = 110 secs.
Subsequently some of the air leakage points were attended and the leakage test was
repeated. The following was observed while maintaining the same loading &
unloading pressure settings and trial period:
On load time = 30 secs
Unload time = 130 secs.

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The average power drawn during the above 2 trials was observed as 70 kW during
load and 15 kW during unload condition. Calculate the annual cost savings for
4000 hr/ year of compressor operation. Assume energy charge of Rs. 4.50 per kWh.

Leakage quantity when loading is 40 secs and unloading is 120 secs

= (50x 500) / (50+110) = 156.25cfm

Leakage quantity when loading is 30 secs

and unloading is 130 secs.

= (30 x 500) / (30+130) = 93.75cfm

Specific power consumption = 70kWh / (500 x 60 cfh) = 0.00233 kW/ ft3

Reduction in leakage quantity =156 –93.75= 62.25 cfm = 3735 cfh

Energy savings per hour =3735x 0.0023 = 8.59 kWh

Cost savings @ Rs 4.5/kWh @4000hrs/annum

=8.59 kWh x 4000hrs/annum x Rs.4.5 /kWh= Rs.154620 / annum

L-4. List 10 energy saving opportunities in fan systems.

1. Change of impeller by a high efficiency impeller along with cone.

2. Change of fan assembly as a whole, by a high efficiency fan
3. Impeller derating (by a smaller dia impeller)
4. Fan speed reduction by pulley dia modifications for derating
5. Option of two speed motors or variable speed drives for variable duty conditions
6. Option of energy efficient flat belts, or, cogged raw edged V belts, in place of
conventional V belt systems, for reducing transmission losses.
7. Adopting inlet guide vanes in place of discharge damper control
8. Minimizing system resistance and pressure drops by improvements in duct system

L-5. Briefly explain the step by step approach for the conduct of energy audit of vapour
compression refrigeration unit.

The cooling effect produced is quantified as tons of refrigeration.

1 ton of refrigeration = 3024 kCal/hr heat rejected.
The specific power consumption kW/TR is a useful indicator of the performance of
refrigeration system. By measuring refrigeration duty performed in TR and the Kilo
Watt inputs measured, kW/TR is used as a reference energy performance indicator.
The refrigeration TR is assessed as TR = Q Cp  (Ti – To) / 3024

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Where Q is mass flow rate of coolant in kg/hr

Cp is coolant specific heat in kCal /kg deg C
Ti is inlet, temperature of coolant to evaporator (chiller) in 0C
To is outlet temperature of coolant from evaporator (chiller) in 0C.
The above TR is also called as chiller tonnage. In a centralized chilled water system,
apart from the compressor unit, power is also consumed by the chilled water
(secondary) coolant pump as well condenser water (for heat rejection to cooling tower)
pump and cooling tower fan in the cooling tower fan. Effectively, the overall energy
consumption would be towards ;
 Compressor kW
 Chilled water pump kW
 Condenser water pump kW
 Cooling tower fan kW, for induced / forced draft towers
The specific power consumption for certain TR output would therefore have to
include :
 Compressor kW/TR
 Chilled water pump kW/TR
 Condenser water pump kW/TR
 Cooling tower fan kW/TR
and overall kW/TR as a sum of the above.
In case of air conditioning units, the air flow at the Fan Coil Units (FCU) or the Air
Handling Units (AHU) can be measured with an anemometer. Dry bulb and wet bulb
temperatures are measured at the inlet and outlet of AHU or the FCU and the
refrigeration load in TR is assessed as:

Where Q is the air flow in CMH

 is density of air kg/m3
h in is enthalpy of inlet air kCal/kg
h out is enthalpy of outlet air kCal/kg
Use of handy psychometric charts can help to calculate h in and hout from dry bulb, wet
bulb temperature values which are, in-turn measured, during trials, by a
whirling psychrometer.

……. End of Section – III …….

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