TSPSC HMWS Manager 2020 Electrical QP
TSPSC HMWS Manager 2020 Electrical QP
OHM Institute
Hyderabad
HMWSSB || Electrical Engineering (Exam is on 12.11.2020)
HMWSSB - (EE)-SERIES-C(KEY)
1. The open loop transfer function for the asymptotic approximation of the gain plot shown below is
db − 20 db/dec
0 db/dec
14 db − 20 db/dec
0.1 1 2 10 50 log
(0.5s + 1) 10(0.5s + 1)
(1) (2)
s (0.02s + 1)
2
s(0.02s + 1)
(0.5s + 1) 10(0.5s + 1)
(3) (4)
s(0.02s + 1) s2 (0.02s + 1)
Answer: 2
2. Which of the following is the transfer function for the state space representation given below?
−1 1 0 0
X = 0 −1 0 + 1 U and
0 0 −2 1
Y = [1 3 3] X
(2s 2 + 6s + 7) (2s 2 + 6s + 7)
(1) (2)
(s + 1)(s + 2)2 (s − 1)2 (s − 2)
(2s 2 + 6s + 7) (2s 2 + 6s + 7)
(3) (4)
(s + 1)2 (s + 2) (s − 1)(s − 2)2
Answer: 3
k
3. Consider a unity feedback system with G(s) = . For the value of k = 1, what
s(0.5s + 1)(0.05s + 1)
would be the phase cross over frequency in rad/sec?
(1) 40 (2) 10 (3) 20(4) 30
Answer: 1
=
Re G(j)
=0
1
(1)
s (1 + T1s)(1 + T2s)
2
(1 + Ta )
(2)
s(1 + T1s)(1 + T2s)
5. Reduction in steady state error and increase in damping constant is done respectively by means of
(1) Derivative error compensation and phase lag controller
(2) Phase lag controller and derivative error compensation
(3) Phase lag controller and derivative output compensation
(4) Derivative error compensation and derivative output compensation
Answer: 2
6. The overall transfer function C/R of the signal flow graph as shown in the figure is
−H1 −H2
G
R C
G G
(1) (b)
(1 + H1 )(1 + H 2 ) (1 + H1 + H2 )
G
(3) (d) G
(1 + H 2 )
Answer: 3
8. In Nyquist stability criterion, the phase margin is the number of degrees by which the angle at the
gain cross over frequency has to be changed so that the phase becomes
(1) 180° (2) 360° (3) 0° (d) 90°
Answer: 1
9. Which of the following is/are the properties of state transition matrix (t)?
(i)(0) = I, (ii) (0) I, (iii) (t)–1 = (–t) and (iv) (t2 – t1) (t1 – t0) = (t0 – t2)
(1) (i) and (iii) (2) (ii) and (iv)
10. Which of the following method is used to measure medium value of resistances?
(1) Loss of charge method
(2) Potentiometer method
(3) Kelvin double bridge method
(4) Carey-foster slide wire bridge method
Answer: 4
11. Which of the following instruments are used as transfer instrument in the standardization of A.C
potentiometers?
(1) Thermo couple type and Electro dynamo meter type instruments
(2) Rectifier type only
(3) Thermocouple type only
(4) Electro-dynamo meter type only
Answer: 1
13. Three resistances are rated as follows: R1 = 40 5%; R2 = 80 5% and R3 = 50 5%. What
will be the limiting error in ohms if these three resistances are connected in series?
(1) 8.5 (2) 17
(3) 4.25 (4) 2.16
Answer: 1
14. Four arms of an A.C bridge are arranged as follows to obtain the balance:
Arm PQ: R = 250 ; Arm QR: R = 500 ;
Arm SP: C = 0.2 F; Arm `: an unknown impedance. A source of 200 V, 1 kHz is applied between
terminals P and R and detector is connected between the terminals Q and S. The value of unknown
parameter of the Arm ` is _____.
(1) Capacitance of 0.3 F
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(2) Capacitance of 0.4 F
(3) Capacitance of 0.1 F
(4) Capacitance of 0.2 F
Answer: 2
16. A milli-ammeter of 1.5 resistance reads upto 100 milliamperes. The series resistance required to
make it as a voltmeter reading upto 100 V is _____.
(1) 1000 (2) 1001.5
(3) 998.5 (4) 98.5
Answer: 3
17. Which of the following statement is wrong with respect to M.I instruments:
(1) Scale is not uniform
(2) For low voltage range, the power consumption is more
(3) Repulsion type instruments are much more common than the attraction type
(4) Attraction type instrument will usually have a more inductance that the corresponding repulsion
instrument
Answer: 2
18. The value of capacitance connected across the series resistance of 2000 with the coil inductance of
1 H and M.I voltmeter to eliminate the frequency error is around
(1) 0.5 F (b) 0.1 F
(3) 1 F (4) 0.25 F
Answer: 4
20. The disc of an energy meter makes 600 revolutions per unit energy consumption. When a load of 1
KW is connected the disc rotates at 10.2 r.p.m. If the load is connected for 12 hours, how many units
are recorded as error?
21. The 3 ½ digital voltmeter displays a maximum value of _____ and has a resolution of ____ of the
range respectively.
(1) 999 and 1/2000th
(2) 1999 and 1/2000th
(3) 999 and 1/1000th
(4) 1999 and 1/1000th
Answer: 2
22. The current transformer never be operated on open circuit for which of the following reasons:
(i) The core flux will increase enormously
(ii) Eddy current and hysteresis losses will increase to a large value
(iii) A very low voltage will be induced in the multi turn secondary
(iv) Eddy current and hysteresis losses will decrease to a large value
(1) (i), (iii) and (iv) (2) (ii) and (iii)
(3) (i) and (ii) (4) (i) and (iii)
Answer: 3
24. The two pressure coils of single-phase dynamo meter type power factor meter are connected as
follows:
(1) One coil is connected in series with non-inductive resistance and the other coil is connected in
parallel with inductive choke coil
(2) One coil is connected in series with non-inductive resistance and the other coil is connected in
series with inductive choke coil
(3) One coil is connected in series with non-inductive resistance and the other coil is connected in
series with capacitance
(4) One coil is connected in series with non-inductive resistance and the other coil is connected in
parallel with capacitance
Answer: 2
26. Match the following if, two sine waves of same magnitude and frequency are applied simultaneously
to the vertical and horizontal deflecting plates of CRO with different phase difference between them.
Phase Difference Lissajous Figure
(A) 0° (P) circle
(B) 150° (Q) straight line
(C) 90° (R) ellipse
(1) A-Q; B-R; C-P (2) A-P; B-R; C-Q
(3) A-P; B-Q; C-R (4) A-Q; B-P; C-R
Answer: 1
27. In a CRT, the electrostatic deflection sensitivity and magnetic deflection sensitivity are proportional
___ and ___ with accelerating voltage (V) respectively
(1) 1/Va and Va (2) Va and Va
(3) 1/Va and 1/Va (4) Va and 1/Va
Answer: 3
2 k
−
A
B + + l2
10 k V2 R1
V1 +
−
5 k
−
29. All the following statements are correct with respect to Wein bridge oscillator, except?
(1) Frequency f0 can be varied in the ratio of 3:1
1
(2) The expression for oscillation frequency, f =
2RC
(3) Minimum gain of the amplifier must be 3
(4) It employs lead-lag network
Answer: 1
30. The value of IE (emitter current) for a transistor with dc = 0.97; ICBO = 10 A and IB = 50 A is
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(1) 3 mA (2) 15 mA
(3) 2.5 mA (4) 2 mA
Answer: 4
31. Identify the expression for ID (drain current) in JFET from the following?
Where, IDSS = Saturation value of the drain current when gate is shorted to the source; VGS = Voltage
between gate and source and VP = pinch off voltage
(1) IDSS(1 – VGS / VP)
(2) IDSS(1 – VGS / VP)2
(3) IDSS(1 + VGS / VP)
(4) IDSS(1 + VGS / VP)2
Answer: 2
32. The stability factor (S) of a fixed bias circuit of a transistor of “” = 4 is
(1) 5 (2) 1/5
(3) 3 (4) 1/3
Answer: 1
33. In which of the following feedback topologies, both input as well as output impedances decrease with
introduction of feedback?
(1) Voltage series feedback
(2) Current series feedback
(3) Voltage shunt feedback
(4) Current shunt feedback
Answer: 1
34. Which of the following instruction of 8085 microprocessor has maximum states when compared to
others?
(1) DAD (2) ADI
(3) XCHG (4) SUI
Answer: 3
35. What is the output after the execution of the following sequence of instructions of 8086
microprocessor?
MOV AX, 74A3 H
MOV BX, 9D5B H
ADD AL, BL
DAA
(1) A5 (2) 54
(3) EE (4) E4
Answer: 2
37. According to Boolean algebra and switching functions, Match the following:
Expression Simplification/Result
(x + y).(x + y).
(A) (L)1
(x + y).(x + y)
(B) Complement of (M)y
(xy)x (xy)y
(C) (x yz) + (x y) + (x yz) (N) 0
(D) (xy + z) + z + xy + wz (O) x+y+z+w
(P) x + y + z
(1) A-L; B-N; C-M; D-O
(2) A-L; B-N; C-O; D-P
(3) A-N; B-M; C-O; D-P
(4) A-N; B-L; C-M; D-P
Answer: 4
38. A Four flip-flop ripple counter is being operated at a clock frequency of 32 kHz. The frequency (kHz)
of the waveform at the output of the MSB flip-flop is
(1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 4 (4) 8
Answer: 1
39. If an inverter is placed between the inputs of an S-R flip-flop, the resulting flip-flop is
(1) Master Slave flip-flop
(2) T flip-flop
(3) D flip-flop
(4) JK flip-flop
Answer: 3
41. A single-phase semi converter is operated from 125 V, 50 Hz, A.C supply. If the average output
voltage is 25% of the maximum possible average output voltage, the firing angle is
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(1) 60° (b) 120° (c) 0°(d) 90°
Answer: 2
45. Which of the following expression relates to the fundamental r.m.s value per phase output voltage of
3-phase to 1-phase cycloconverter employing m-phase half wave circuits? Where, r = reduction factor
(1) V0(r.m.s) = r [Vph (m) sin(/m)]
(2) V0(r.m.s) = r [Vph (m) sin(m)]
(3) V0(r.m.s) = r [Vph (m/) sin(m/)]
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(4) V0(r.m.s) = r [Vph (m/) sin(m)]
Answer: 3
46. A single-phase voltage controller is used for controlling the power flow from 230 V, 50 Hz source
into a load circuit consisting of R = 4 and L = 4. The control range of firing angle is
(1) 0° 45° (2) 0° 45°
(3) 45° 180° (4) 45° 180°
Answer: 4
48. Which of the following statements are correct with respect to 3-phase dual converter?
(i) It is used for high power applications up to 2000 kW
(ii) For a highly inductive load, it can operate in two quadrants only
(iii) The delay angle of converter (2) is (-), if the delay angle of the converter (1) is
(iv) There is no circulating current flows through the converters
(1) (iii) and (iv) only
(2) (i), (iii) and (iv) only
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii) only
(4) (i) and (iii) only
Answer: 4
49. A step-up chopper is used to deliver load voltage of 500 V from a 200 V D.C source. If the blocking
period of the thyristor is 80 s, the required pulse width is
(1) 120 s (2) 200 s
(3) 100 s (4) 80 s
Answer: 1
50. A step-down chopper with R–L–E load, the per unit ripple current for fixed value of T/ has the
maximum value when duty cycle () is
(1) 1 (2) 0.5
(3) 0.25 (4) 0.75
Answer: 2
51. The no-load copper losses under dynamic braking and plugging operation of a separately excited d.c
motor respectively during starting (with normal notations) is
(1) 3/2 J02; ½ J02
(2) 3/2 J02; 3/2 J02
52. A 200 V, 960 r.p.m and 200 A separately excited D.C motor has an armature resistance of 0.02 , fed
from a chopper with a source voltage of 200 V. For continuous conduction mode, the duty ratio of
chopper for braking operation at rated torque and 480 r.p.m is
(1) 0.83 (2) 0.51
(3) 0.47 (4) 0.38
Answer: 3
53. All the following statements with respect to Static Kramer drive system are correct, except
(1) It has high efficiency
(2) It offers speed control for both sub-synchronous and above synchronous speed of SRIM (Slip
Ring Induction Motor)
(3) It offers speed control only for sub-synchronous speed of SRIM
(4) Slip power can flow only in one direction
Answer: 2
54. A single-phase full bridge inverter has a resistive load of R = 4 and the D.C input voltage is 50 V.
The average current and peak reverse blocking voltage of each thyristor respectively is
(1) 12.5 A; 50 V (2) 6.25 A; 25 V
(3) 12.5 A; 25 V (4) 6.25 A; 50 V
Answer: 4
55. By considering the effect of source impedance in a single-phase full converter, the output voltage will
be maximum and minimum respectively for the overlap angles of
(1) 90° and 180° (2) 180° and 90°
(3) 0° and 180° (4) 180° and 0°
Answer: 3
56. The ratio of voltage drops due to overlap in a 1- full converter to 3- full converter is
(1) 1:3 (2) 3:1
(3) 1:2 (4) 2:1
Answer: 1 (appropriate as there is no exact answer)
58. The maximum arc power input to arc furnace occurs at a power factor of
(1) 0.3 to 0.4 lag (2) 0.1 to 0.2 lag
(3) 0.7 to 0.8 lag (4) 0.5 to 0.6 lag
Answer: 3
59. In speed control of 3-phase Slip Ring Induction Motor (SRIM) using chopper, the effective value of
external resistance (Re) is __ , if 0.4 is the duty cycle of the chopper and 20 is the external
resistance across the chopper.
(1) 16 (2) 12
(3) 6 (4) 8
Answer: 2
60. At constant supply voltage, if the supply frequency to the stator varies from rated frequency to twice
the rated frequency, then in the 3-phase Induction Motor
(1) Slip speed increases
(2) Torque increases
(3) Stator current increases
(4) Power developed remains constant
Answer: 4 (appropriate as there is no exact answer)
61. In 3-phase induction motor control, by decreasing the supply frequency to lower value of frequencies
at constant supply voltage.
(A) It draws more magnetizing current
(B) It operates at very high efficiency
(C) Air gap flux increases
(D) Magnetic circuits of motor are in linear portion of magnetization curve.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(1) A and B are correct
(2) C and D are correct
(3) A and C are correct
(4) B and D are correct
Answer: 3
63. Two lamps of 72 C.P (L1) and 32 C.P(L2) respectively are one meter apart. Where the screen should
be placed on a straight line passing through the lamps so as to have equal illumination on it?
(1) 0.6 m from (L1) (2) 0.5 m from (L2)
(3) 0.4 m from (L1) (4) 0.3 m from (L2)
Answer: 1
65. Which of the following statement is correct with respect to polar curves?
(1) Slight depression occurs at 180° in horizontal polar curve
(2) Slight depression occurs at 0° in horizontal polar curve
(3) Slight depression occurs at 90° in vertical polar curve
(4) Slight depression occurs at 0° in vertical polar curve
Answer: 2
67. In dielectric heating the frequency and applied voltage are doubled, the heat produced would become
________ times that of the initial heat required.
(1) Remains same (4) Two
(2) Four (4) Eight
Answer: 4
69. The efficiency of starting of six traction motors connecting in series parallel method used in electric
traction is
(1) 60% (2) 85%
(3) 50% (4) 75%
Answer: 4
70. The tractive effort required without slipping the motion of a train of adhesive weight 100 tonnes with
coefficient of adhesion 0.25 is
(1) 25 tonnes (2) 50 tonnes
(3) 400 tonnes (4) 100 tonnes
Answer: 1
72. A train has a scheduled speed of 60 kmph over a level track; distance between stops being 2 km.
station stopping time is 20 sec. The average speed (kmph) of a train is
(1) 144 (2) 12
(3) 86 (4) 72
Answer: 4
+ +
50
V1 V2
− −
77. The active and reactive power consumed by the circuit given below is
I
I2 I1
Z 1 1
10 V
−j j
0 T
80. The value of “R” for resonance of the parallel network shown in figure below is
10 R
j 10
− j2
(1) 6 (2) 10
(3) 5 (4) 2
Answer: 1
81. The mapping of the Laplace variables into the z-plane through z = esT,
(1) The left half of s-plane, (real axis) < 0 corresponds to |z| > 1
(2) j axis in the s-plane corresponds to outside the unit circle in the z-plane
(3) the right half of s-plane, (real axis) > 0 corresponds to |z| > 1
(4) the right half of s-plane, (real axis) > 0 corresponds to |z| < 1
Answer: 3
83. In two wattmeter method of measuring power in a 3-phase balanced load, the power factor of the
circuit if (i) two watt meters readings are equal and (ii) two readings are equal and opposite
respectively is
(1) zero and one (2) one and zero
(3) 0.5 and zero (4) one and 0.866 lagging
Answer: 2
2A +
− 4V
3 + +
− 3 VR
VR 2 I
−
85. For the circuit given below, the Norton’s current and resistance across ‘a’ and ‘b’ terminals
respectively is
3
a
3 6
−
20 V +
−
+ 10 V
b
89. Which of the Maxwell’s law relates the time varying magnetic field with the conduction current and
displacement current?
(1) Third (2) Fourth
(3) First (4) Second
Answer: 2
90. In a simple T section, a low pass filter has a design impedance of R0. The characteristic impedance
for -section at 0.8 fc (cut-off frequency) is
(1) 0.2 R0 (2) 5 R0
(3) 2.3 R0 (4) 1.67 R0
Answer: 4
91. A parallel R-L-C circuit of R = 2, L = 1H and C = 0.5 F is suddenly connected to a current source
dv
of 10 Amps, by closing the switch at t = 0+. The value of at t = 0+ is
dt
(1) 20 V/s (2) 5 V/s
92. The RLC series circuit having R = 200 , L = 0.1 H and C = 10 F is suddenly connected to a
voltage source of 200 Volts, by closing the switch at t = 0+ is
(1) over damped (2) un damped
(3) under damped (4) critically damped
Answer: 4
95. The full-load voltage drops due to resistance and leakage reactance in a single-phase transformer are
2% and 4% respectively. The full-load copper loss is equal to iron loss. The efficiency of a
transformer at half-load at unity power factor is nearly
(1) 95% (2) 92%
(3) 97% (4) 94%
Answer: 1
96. The total charge contained within a cubical region described by 0 x, y, z 3, of volume charge
density (3x + 4y + 2z) c/m3 is
(1) Zero (2) 364.5 C
(3) 350.4 C (4) 344.5 C
Answer: 2
97. The charge density at appoint (1, 0, 2) for electric potential V = (4x3 + 2y2) is
(1) 230 C/m2 (2) – 280 C/m2
(3) – 240 C/m2 (4) 200 C/m2
Answer: 2
98. The inductance of a Toroidal coil of 500 turns wound on a steel ring of 0.5 m mean diameter and 2
10–3 m2 cross-sectional area for an excitation of 4000 A/m produces a flux density of 1T is
(1) 80 mH (2) 120 mH
(3) 40 mH (4) 160 mH
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Answer: 160 μH
100. A 3-phase squirrel cage induction motor has a full-load slip of 0.04. The motor starting current at
rated voltage is 5 times of its full-load current. The (%) tapping on the auto transformer starter to
have full-load torque at the time of starting is
(1) 100 (2) 65
(3) 57.3 (4) 75
Answer: 1
102. A 100 kVA, 2000/200 V, 1-phase two winding transformer is to be sued as an auto-transformer for
stepping up the voltage from 2000 V to 2200 V. the ratio of full load losses as an auto transformer to
a two winding transformer is
(1) 1 : 11 (2) 11 : 10
(3) 10 : 11 (4) 1 : 10
Answer: 1
103. Which of the following statements are true in case of delta-delta connected 3-phase transformer?
(i) The cross-sectional area of each turn of winding is small
(ii) Windings require more number of turns
(iii) Can be used for small H.V transformers
(iv) Can be used as V-connection
(1) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (2) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(3) (i), (ii) and (iii) (4) (i), (ii) and (iv)
Answer: 4
107. The stator of a 3-phase, 4-pole Slip Ring Induction Motor (SRIM) is connected to 3-phase, 50 Hz
supply. A load requiring 3-phase, 30 Hz supply is connected to the star connected rotor through three
slip rings of SRIM. The rotor must be driven against the direction of stator field at a speed (r.p.m) of
(1) 600 (2) 2400
(3) 1500 (4) 900
Answer: 1 & 2
108. If the aluminium rotor bars of a 3-phase Squirrel Cage Induction Motor are replaced by copper bars,
then staring torque, maximum torque and slip at maximum torque would be respectively
(1) Same, same and more
(2) More, less and more
(3) Less, same and less
(4) More, same and more
Answer: 3
109. Which of the following test (s) is/ (are) called non-loading test (s) of a D.C machines?
(1) Swinburne’s and Hopkinson’s test only
(2) Field and Hopkinson’s test only
(3) Swinburne’s test only
(4) Hopkinson’s test only
Answer: 3
110. The angle between armature m.m.f and field m.m.f of a cylindrical rotor type Synchronous Generator
at U.P.F and Zero p.f lagging load is respectively
(1) 90° and 180° (2) 180° and 90°
(3) 90° and 0° (4) 0° and 90°
Answer: 1
112. The number of sections of a starter resistance required for a 200 V d.c shunt motor of armature
resistance 0.25 for maximum and minimum allowable current of 50 A and 25 A respectively is
(1) 3 (2) 6 (3) 5 (4) 4
Answer: 4
113. A 200 V, 10 kW D.C shunt motor takes 2.5 A when running light. The variable losses for maximum
efficiency of motor of an armature resistance 0.5 , field resistance of 400 and brush drop of 2 V is
(1) 994 W (2) 494 W
(3) 394 W (4) 794 W
Answer: 2
114. During slip test on a salient pole synchronous machine, the voltage and current for one phase is 30 V,
25 V, 10 A and 6 A respectively. If armature resistance is negligible, the values of Xd and Xq
respectively are
(1) 3 and 4.16 (2) 4.16 and 3
(3) 5 and 2.5 (4) 2.5 and 5
Answer: 3
116. When a Synchronous machine is loaded from floating conditions, alternator begins operating at a
____ p.f, whereas Synchronous motor at a ____ p.f respectively
(1) Lagging; Lagging
(2) Leading; Leading
(3) Lagging; Leading
(4) Leading; Lagging
Answer: 4
118. A 100 MW generator with a regulation parameter “R” of 0.025 Hz/MW has its frequency fallen by
0.2 Hz. If the turbine power remains unchanged, by how much the reference power setting is
changed?
(1) 2 MW (2) 6 MW
(3) 4 MW (4) 8 MW
Answer: 4
119. When a generator is supplying a load, an incremental change in a load of 6 MW requires generation
to be increased by 8 MW. If, the incremental cost at the plant bus is ` 25 /MWh, then the incremental
cost at the receiving end is
(1) 3.33 /MWh (2) 90 / MWh
(3) 45/MWh (4) 66.66/MWh
Answer: 1
120. The terminal voltage (Vt) for Z.P.F leading operation of an alternator to have same short circuit
current during Z.P.F lagging is _____ to/that of Excitation e.m.f (Ef)
(1) Two times (2) Three times
(3) Equal (4) Half
Answer: 1
121. In an electromagnetic relay, the relation between the current ‘I’ in the exciting coil, the position of
armature ‘x’ and the flux linkages ‘’ is given by, I = 2 2 + 3 (1 – x + x2). The position of
armature (x) to have magnetic force equal to zero is
(1) 0.25 (2) > 1
(3) 1 (4) 0.5
Answer: 4
Speed
123. With respect to stability point of view, which of the following statements are correct?
(A) The impedance grounding is better than solid grounding during ground faults
(B) In a two-machine system, it is advisable to have resistance grounding at the sending end and
reactance grounding at the receiving end during L-G faults
(C) During 3-phase fault, reactance grounding is used at the both ends
(1) A and B only (2) B and C only
(3) A, B and C (4) A and C only
Answer: 1
124. A Y-connected load has balanced currents with “acb” phase sequence of Ia = 100 [0°; Ib = 100 [120°;
and Ic = 100 [–120° Amps. Which of the sequence component(s)/ is (are) zero?
(1) Zero and negative sequence components only
(2) Zero, positive and negative sequence components only
(3) Zero sequence components only
(4) Zero and positive sequence components only
Answer: 4
125. Which of the following faults can be simulated for a solidly grounded, unloaded alternator with all
three sequence networks?
(1) L-L and L-L-G faults
(2) 3-phase fault and L-G faults
(3) L-G and L-L-G faults
(4) L-G and L-L faults
Answer: 3
126. Which of the following method is not economical in improving the transient stability of a power
system?
(1) Use of high-speed circuit breakers
(2) Use of higher moment of inertia of the machines
(3) Use of higher system voltage
(4) Use of parallel lines
Answer: 3
128. The solution of swing equation by step by step method with normal notations is given by
(1) n = n - n-1 = r(n-1)t
(2) n = n - n-1 = r(n-2)t
(3) n-1 = n-1 - n-2 = r(n-2)t
(4) n-1 = n-1 - n-2 = r(n-3/2)t
Answer: 4
129. The equivalent inertia constant of two non-coherent machines having inertia constants H1 and H2
respectively is
H1H 2 H1H2
(1) (2)
H1 − H 2 H1 + H2
(3) H1 + H2 (4) H1 – H2
Answer: 2
131. Pick up the correct statement from the following with respect to power system networks?
(1) Admittance matrix is full, whereas impedance matrix is relatively sparse.
(2) Admittance matrix as well as impedance matrix is relatively sparse
(3) Admittance matrix is relatively sparse, whereas impedance matrix is full
(4) Admittance matrix as well as impedance matrix is full
Answer: 3
133. The power loss in a uniformly loaded D.C distributor fed at both ends with equal voltages is given by
_____. Where “r” is resistance per metre run with uniform loading of “i” amperes per metre run of
the distributor of total length “I” meters.
i 2 rl 3 i 2 rl 3
(1) (2)
8 6
i 2 rl 3 i 2 rl 3
(3) (4)
12 4
Answer: 3
135. An overhead transmission line has a span of “x” meters and the conductor weighs 1000 kg/km. If the
ultimate strength of the conductor is “y” kg and factor of safety 2, then the maximum sag in meters is
x2 x2
(1) (2)
y 4y
x2 x2
(3) (4)
2y 8y
Answer: 2
136. If a guard ring is used for uniform potential distribution across a three-unit string, the capacitance of
guard ring to top disc link is ______, where “C” is the shunt capacitance to earth.
(1) 2C (2) C/2
(3) C/3 (4) C
Answer: 2
138. The power angle characteristic of a synchronous machine connected to infinite bus system is P =
2sin p.u. The operating point is at = _____ corresponding to synchronizing power coefficient of
unity.
(1) 60° (2) 45°
(3) 30° (4) 90°
Answer: 1
139. The power plant which has transmission and distribution cost quite high is
(1) Steam power plant
(2) Diesel power plant
(3) Nuclear power plant
(4) Hydroelectric power plant
Answer: 4
140. A power station has a maximum demand of 20,000 kW with the annual load factor of 60% and the
plant capacity factor of 50%. The reserve capacity of the plant is
(1) 12,000 kW (2) 8,000 kW
(3) 10,000 kW (4) 4,000 kW
Answer: 4
141. An industry has maximum load of 120 kW at 0.8 p.f lagging consumed 25,000 units per annum. The
tariff is 100 per kVA of maximum demand plus 5 per unit. The annual saving if the power factor is
raised to unity is
(1) 6,000 (2) 8,000
(3) 3,000 (4) 4,000
Answer: 3
142. The torque produced in induction relay (shaded pole structure) is maximum when the two fluxes are
displaced by
(1) 90° and the disc rotation will be form unshaded pole to the shaded pole
(2) 90° and the disc rotation will be form shaded pole to the unshaded pole
(3) 45° and the disc rotation will be form unshaded pole to the shaded pole
(4) 45° and the disc rotation will be form shaded pole to the unshaded pole
Answer: 1
143. The characteristic equation of a system is given by P(s) = s5 + s4 + 3s3 + 3s2 + 6s + 4, the number of
roots present in the right half of s-plane is _____.
(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Zero
144. In distribution networks, which of the following Circuit Breakers are more suitable?
(1) SF6 Circuit Breakers
(2) Vacuum Circuit Breakers
(3) Air circuit Breakers
(4) Oil Circuit Breakers
Answer: 3
146. A 3-phase transformer rated for 66/13.2 kV is connected is star/delta and the protecting transformer
on the L.V side have a ratio of 200 / 5. The ratio of the Current Transformer on the H.V side is
(1) 40 : 5 / 3 (2) 40 : 5 3
(3) 80 : 5 / 3 (4) 80 : 5 3
Answer: 1
147. For the given system shown in figure, which of the following is the equivalent circuit for moving
summing point to left?
+
x G y
+
w
x G y
(1)
w G
+
x G y
(2) +
w
+
x G y
(3) +
w G
x G y
(4)
w
1000(s + 1)
148. The steady state error of the transfer function, G(s) = for unit step input and unit
(s + 10)(s + 50)
ramp input respectively is _____.
(1) Zero, 0.333 (2) Zero and 0.5
(3) 0.333; (4) 0.5;
Answer: 3
149. Which of the following statements are correct to draw the root locus for a open loop transfer function
K(s 2 + 2s + 2)
of G(s) H(s) = ?
s 2 (s + 4)
(a) Centroid is (– 2)
(b) Root locus on real axis lies between – and – 2
(c) The root loci breakaway at s = 0
(d) Angle of asymptotes is at complex zero, (1+j2)
(1) (a), (b)
(2) (b), (d)
(3) (a), (b)
(4) (a), (c)
Answer: 4
150. The angle of asymptotes of the root locus of a unity feedback system with transfer function
K(s + 4)
G(s) = is _____
(s2 + 2s + 2)
(1) 90°
(2) 180°
(3) 270°
(4) 60°
Answer:2