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Common Test-4 - 19-10-20 PDF

This document provides instructions for Common Test #4 for students in classes 11. It is divided into three sections: Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics. Each section has two parts: Part A and Part B. Part A contains multiple choice questions with either single or multiple correct answers. Part B contains numerical questions. Students must mark their answers on an optical mark recognition (OMR) sheet using an HB pencil. The test is out of a total of 192 marks and lasts 3 hours. Students must follow the instructions carefully and fill out personal details correctly on the OMR sheet.

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Atul
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100% found this document useful (1 vote)
432 views

Common Test-4 - 19-10-20 PDF

This document provides instructions for Common Test #4 for students in classes 11. It is divided into three sections: Physics, Chemistry, and Mathematics. Each section has two parts: Part A and Part B. Part A contains multiple choice questions with either single or multiple correct answers. Part B contains numerical questions. Students must mark their answers on an optical mark recognition (OMR) sheet using an HB pencil. The test is out of a total of 192 marks and lasts 3 hours. Students must follow the instructions carefully and fill out personal details correctly on the OMR sheet.

Uploaded by

Atul
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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COMMON TEST # 4 – C-XI- 1

FIITJEE COMMON TEST


MONTHLY ASSESSMENT PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS
NWCM2022A3W, NWCM2022A4W, NWCM2022X1W, NWCM2022Y1 W, NWCM2022Z1W, NWCM2022XA1W, NWCM2022XA2W, PANINI2022-XI
BATCHES – NWCM822O1S, NWCM2022X1R, NWCM2022Y1R, NWCM2022A1R, NWCM2022A2R, NWCM2022A1W, NWCM2022A2W,

CODE:

Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 192

▪ Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for
this purpose.
▪ You are not allowed to leave the Examination Hall before the end of the test.

INSTRUCTIONS
Caution: Question Paper CODE as given above MUST be correctly marked in the answer OMR
sheet before attempting the paper. Wrong CODE or no CODE will give wrong results.

A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Section.
1, PANINI2022-XI 2, & PANINI2022-G 1

3. Section-I is Physics, Section-II is Chemistry and Section-III is Mathematics.


4. Each section is further divided into two parts: Part-A & Part-B
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be provided
for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic devices, in
any form, are not allowed.

B. Filling of OMR Sheet


1. Ensure matching of OMR sheet with the Question paper before you start marking your answers on OMR
sheet.
2. On the OMR sheet, darken the appropriate bubble with HB pencil for each character of your Enrolment No.
and write in ink your Name, Test Centre and other details at the designated places.
3. OMR sheet contains alphabets, numerals & special characters for marking answers.

C. Marking Scheme For All Two Parts.


(i) Part-A (01 – 8) contains 8 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer. Each question
carries +3 marks for correct answer and – 1 mark for wrong answer.
PART – A (09 – 12) contains 4 Multiple Choice Questions which have One or More Correct answer.
For each question in the group Q. 9 – 12 of PART – A you will be awarded
Full Marks: +4 If only the bubble(s) corresponding to all the correct options(s) is (are) darkened.
Partial Marks: +1 For darkening a bubble corresponding to each correct option, provided NO incorrect
option is darkened.
Zero Marks: 0 If none of the bubbles is darkened.
Negative Marks: −1 In all other cases.
For example, if (A), (C) and (D) are all the correct options for a question, darkening all these three will result
in +4 marks; darkening only (A) and (D) will result in +2 marks; and darkening (A) and (B) will result in −1
marks, as a wrong option is also darkened.

(ii) Part -B (01 – 06) contains 6 Numerical based questions, the answer of which maybe positive or negative
numbers or decimals (e.g. 6.25, 7.00, -0.33, -.30, 30.27, -127.30) and each question carries
+4 marks for correct answer and there will be no negative marking.

Name of the Candidate :__________________________________________

Batch :___________________ Date of Examination :___________________

Enrolment Number :______________________________________________

FIITJEE Ltd., Punjabi Bagh Centre, 31-32-33, Central Market, West Avenue Road, Punjabi Bagh (West), New Delhi - 110026, Ph: 011-45634000
COMMON TEST # 4 – C-XI- 2
Section – I (Physics)
PART – A
(Single Correct Choice Type)
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which
ONLY ONE is correct.

1. As situation shown in figure, the elevator is going up with


g
an acceleration , the pulley and string one light and smooth the
2
g
acceleration of centre of mass of the blocks system will be 2
g g 3m
(A) upward (B) upward
2 3
4 6m
(C) g upward (D) none of these
3
Elevator
1. B

2. If the linear density of the rod of length L varies as  = A + Bx, then its centre of mass is
given by:
L(2A + BL) L(3A + 2BL)
(A) XCM = (B) XCM =
3(3A + 2BL) 3(2A + BL)
L(3A + 2BL) L(2A + 3BL)
(C) XCM = (D) XCM =
3 3
2. B

3. A block A slides over an another block B which is placed over a smooth


inclined plane as shown in figure. The coefficient of friction between the A
two blocks A and B is . Mass of blocks B is two time the mass of block B
A. The acceleration of the centre of mass of two blocks is :
gsin  − gcos 
(A) g sin (B)  Fixed
3
gsin  2gsin  − gcos 
(C) (D)
3 3
3. A

4. Four particle of mass m1 = 2m, m2 = 4 m, m3 = m and m4 are placed at four comers of a


square. What should be the value of m4 so that the centre of mass of all the four particles
are exactly at the centre of the square?
(A) 2 m (B) 8 m (C) 6 m (D) none of these
4. D

5. Two masses 3m and m are suspended from a light frictionless


pulley with the help of a massless string. If system is set free the
acceleration of centre of mass will be:
g
(A) g (B)
2 3m
g m
(C) (D) None of these
4
5. C

6. A small ball is projected from point a on the floor towards a


vertical wall as shown in the figure. It hits the wall when its
velocity is horizontal. Ball reaches point A after one bounce
on the floor. If the coefficient of restitution is the same for the
collisions, find its value.
(A) 0.5 (B) 0.25 A
(C) 0.75 (D) 0.33
FIITJEE Ltd., Punjabi Bagh Centre, 31-32-33, Central Market, West Avenue Road, Punjabi Bagh (West), New Delhi - 110026, Ph: 011-45634000
COMMON TEST # 4 – C-XI- 3
6. A

7. A uniform disc and a uniform solid sphere each of Y

mass m and radius R are placed so that their


centres lie on the X-axis. Y-axis is common
tangent as shown in figure. After that a round cut R
R
of radius R/2 is made from disc as well as sphere O
X
as shown in figure, then the centre of mass of the
system will be
Disc Solid sphere

R 
(A) (0, 0, 0) (B)  , 0, 0 
 13 
R 
(C)  , 0, 0  (D) none of these
 26 
7. C

8. A squared shaped plank of mass 100 kg and length of each


side 10 m is placed on a frictionless horizontal surface.
Four person of masses 60 kg, 70 kg, 80 kg and 90 kg are 90 kg 80 kg
standing at the consecutive corners of the square as shown
in figure. If they come to centre of the plank then the
distance travelled by the plank will be
(A) 50 cm
(B) 66.67 cm
60 kg 70 kg
(C) 33.33 cm
(D) none of these
8. A

(Multi Correct Choice Type)


This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which
ONE OR MORE may be correct.

9. A cannon shell is fired to hit a target at a horizontal distance R, however it breaks into two
equal parts at its highest point, One part returns to the cannon. The other part
(A) will falls at a distance R beyond target
(B) will falls at a distance 3R beyond target
(C) will hit the target
(D) have nine times kinetic energy of first just after explosion.
9. AD

10. The magnitude of momentum of a system of particles is constant then the kinetic energy of
the system
(A) may increase (B) may decrease
(C) may remains constant (D) none of these
10. ABC

11. Four bricks each of length l are put on the top of one another in
such a way that part of each extends beyond the one beneath.
I
The largest equilibrium extension are II
III
(A) top brick over hanging the one below by IV
2
(B) second brick from top over hanging the one below
4
(C) third brick from top overhanging by bottom one by
6
11
(D) the total overhanging length on the edge of the bottom brick is
12
FIITJEE Ltd., Punjabi Bagh Centre, 31-32-33, Central Market, West Avenue Road, Punjabi Bagh (West), New Delhi - 110026, Ph: 011-45634000
COMMON TEST # 4 – C-XI- 4
11. ABCD

12. Two equal discs initially at rest are in contact on a


smooth horizontal table. A third disc of same mass but
of double radius strikes them symmetrically and comes
to rest after impact. the coefficient of restitution is
3 9 3 4
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4 16 16 9
12. B

PART – B
(Numerical Based)
This section contains 06 Numerical based questions, the answer of which maybe positive or negative numbers or decimals (e.g.
6.25, 7.00, -0.33, -.30, 30.27, -127.30)

1. Two blocks of masses m1 = 2 kg and m2 = 5 kg are


moving in the same direction along a frictionless
surface with speeds 10 m/s and 3 m/s respectively, m2
being ahead of m1. An ideal spring with k = 1120 N/m is
attached to the back side of m2. The maximum
compression of the spring when the blocks collide is
 1
 n  metre .
 
1. 4

2. Three objects A, B and C are kept in a straight line on a


frictionless horizontal surface. These have masses m,
2m and m, respectively. The object A moves towards B
2m
with a speed 9 ms–1 and makes an elastic collision with m m
it. Thereafter, B makes completely inelastic collision A B C
with C. All motions occur on the same straight line. Find
the final speed (in ms–1) of the object C.
2. 4

3. A sphere of mass m collides elastically with another stationary sphere of mass m/2 obliquely.
Both the spheres are smooth and there are no external forces acting on them. Maximum
angle through which sphere of mass m can be deflected wrt its initial direction of motion is

. Value of x is
x
3. 6

4. A ball moving with velocity î collides with stationary frictionless wall and returns with a

velocity . Find coefficient of restitution for this collision.
2
4. 0.25
Range: 0.23 to 0.27

The mass per unit length of a rod varies as m =  0  x where M0 is a constant and x is the
M
5.
 L 
distance of any point on rod measured from one end. Centre of mass of the rod from the
KL
given end is at a distance on the rod. Find the value of K.
3
5. 2
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COMMON TEST # 4 – C-XI- 5

6. A small ball moving with a velocity 10 m/s, horizontally


10 m/s
(as shown in figure) strikes a rough horizontal surface
having  = 0.5 . If the coefficient of restitution is e = 0.4.
Horizontal component of velocity of ball in m/s after Ist 5m
impact will be (g = 10 m/s2) =0.5

6. 3

space for rough work

FIITJEE Ltd., Punjabi Bagh Centre, 31-32-33, Central Market, West Avenue Road, Punjabi Bagh (West), New Delhi - 110026, Ph: 011-45634000
COMMON TEST # 4 – C-XI- 6
Section – II (Chemistry)
PART – A
(Single Correct Choice Type)
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which
ONLY ONE is correct.

1. For a chemical reaction 3A ( g) + B ( g) A 3B ( g) , the amount of A3B at equilibrium is


affected by
(A) temperature and pressure (B) temperature only
(C) pressure only (D) temperature, pressure and catalyst
1. A

2. For the process H2O ( s ) H2O ( ) in equilibrium shifts forward by


(A) decrease of pressure (B) increase of pressure
(C) decrease of temperature (D) none of the above
2. B

3. For the following equilibrium


NH2COONH4 ( s ) 2NH3 ( g) + CO2 ( g) Kp is found to be 0.5 at 400 K. Hence the partial
pressure of NH3 and CO2 are respectively
(A) 2.0, 1.0 atm (B) 1.0, 2.0 atm
(C) 1.0, 0.5 atm (D) 0.5, 1.0 atm
3. C

4. Solubility of a solute in water is dependent on the temperature as given by S = Ae−H/RT ,


where  H is heat of solution.
Solute + H2O ( ) solution  = x
For a given solution, variation of logs with temperature is show graphically. Hence solute is

log

log T
(A) CuSO4.5H2O (B) NaCl
(C) Sucrose (D) CaU
4. D

5. The molecular weight of PCl5 is 208.32 but when heated to 230oC it is reduced to 124. The
extent of dissociation of PCl5 at this temperature will be
(A) 6.8% (B) 68%
(C) 46% (D) 64%
5. B

6. For the reaction


NH4HS ( s ) NH3 ( g) + H2S ( g )
In a closed flask the equilibrium pressure is P atm. The standard Gibb’s energy of the
reaction would be
(A) –RT n P (B) –RT(nP - n2)
(C) -2RTnP (D) -2RT(nP - nZ)
6. D

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COMMON TEST # 4 – C-XI- 7
7. PCl5 is 40% dissociated when pressure is 2 atm. It will be 30% dissociated when pressure is
approximately.
(A) 1.9 atm (B) 0.19 atm
(C) 3.8 atm (D) 0.38 atm
7. C

8. For the reaction 2SO2 ( g) + O2 ( g) 2SO3 ( g) ,K C = x . The equilibrium constant for the
reaction
1
SO3 SO2 ( g) + O2 ( g) will be
2
1 1
(A) (B)
x x2
1 1
(C) (D)
x 3 x
8. C

(Multi Correct Choice Type)


This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which
ONE OR MORE may be correct.

9. For the reaction N2O4 ( g) 2NO2 ( g) , the value of K is 50 at 400 K and 1700 at 500 K.
Which of the following options is/are correct?
(A) The reaction is endothermic
(B) The reaction is exothermic
(C) If NO2(g) and N2O4(g) are mixture at 400 K at partial pressures 20 bar and 2 bar
respectively more N2O4(g) will be formed
(D) The entropy of the system increases
9. ACD

10. The equilibrium SO2Cl2 ( g) SO2 ( g) + Cl2 ( g) is attained at 25oC in a closed container
and an inert gas helium is introduced. Which of the following statements are correct?
(A) The concentration of SO2, Cl2 and SO2Cl2 do not change
(B) More Cl2 is formed
(C) More SO2Cl2 is formed
(D) Conc. of SO2 is reduced
10. A

11. Consider the equilibrium N2O4 ( g) 2NO ( g) at a given temperature(T) and pressure(P).
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
(A) Observed molar mass < Theoretical molar mass
4x 2P
(B) KP = where P = pressure and x = extent of decomposition
(
1 − x2 )
(C) KP remains constant with change in P and x
(D) KP changes with change of T
11. ABCD

12. When two reactants A and B are mixed to give products C & D, the reaction quotient Q at
the initial stages of the reaction
(A) is zero (B) decreases with time
(C) is independent of time (D) increases with time
12. D

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COMMON TEST # 4 – C-XI- 8
PART – B
(Numerical Based)
This section contains 06 Numerical based questions, the answer of which maybe positive or negative numbers or decimals (e.g.
6.25, 7.00, -0.33, -.30, 30.27, -127.30)

1. 2.0 mol of PCl5 were introduced in a vessel of 5.0 L capacity at a particular temperature. At
equilibrium, PCl5 was found to be 35% dissociated into PCl3 and Cl2. The value of KC for the
reaction is
1. 0.75

2. Go for the reaction X + Y Z is -4.606 Kcal at 1000 K. The equilibrium constant for the
reverse mode of the reaction will be
2. 0.1

3. One mole of N2O4(g) at 100 K is kept in a closed container at 1.0 atm pressure. It is heated
at 300 K, where 30% of mass of N2O4(g) decomposes to NO2. The resultant pressure (in
atm) will be
3. 3.9

4. Consider the following equilibria


A B KC = 1
B C K C = 2
C D K C = 3
The equilibrium constant for the equilibrium process A D will be
4. 6

5. For the equilibrium 2NOCl ( g) 2NO ( g) + Cl2 ( g) the value of the equilibrium constant
KC is 3.75  10 at 1069 K. The value of KP for the reaction at this temperature is x  10−6 .
−6

Then x is (R = 0.082 L atm K −1 mol−1 )


5. 328.72
Range 328.71 to 328.72

6. One mole of H2O and one mole of CO are taken in 10 L vessel and heated to 725 K. At
equilibrium 40% of water(by mass) reacts with CO according to the equation
H2O ( g) + CO ( g) H2 ( g) + CO2 ( g)
Calculate the equilibrium constant for the reaction
6. 0.44

space for rough work

FIITJEE Ltd., Punjabi Bagh Centre, 31-32-33, Central Market, West Avenue Road, Punjabi Bagh (West), New Delhi - 110026, Ph: 011-45634000
COMMON TEST # 4 – C-XI- 9
Section – III (Mathematics)
PART – A
(Single Correct Choice Type)
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which
ONLY ONE is correct.

1. The area of an equilateral triangle inscribed in the circle x2 + y2 − 2x = 0 is


3 3 3 3
(A) (B)
4 2
3 3
(C) (D) none
8
1. A

2. A straight line with slope2 and y – intercept 5 touches the circle, x2 + y2 + 16x + 12y + c = 0
at a point Q. Then the coordinates of Q are
(A) (–6, 11) (B) (–9, –13)
(C) (–10, –15) (D) (–6, –7)
2. D

3. If focus of conic is (1, 0), directrix is x + 1 = 0 and e = 1, then equation of conic is


(A) y2 = 4x (B) x2 = xy
(C) ( x + 1) + y 2 = ( x − 1)
2 2
(D) x2 + 2y + 1 = 0
3. A

4. If L1 and L 2 are the length of the tangent from (0, 5) to the circles x2 + y2 + 2x − 4 = 0 and
x2 + y2 − y + 1 = 0 then
(A) L1 = 2L2 (B) L2 = 2L1
(C) L1 = L2 (D) L21 = L 2
4. C

5. From (3, 4) chords are drawn to the circle x2 + y2 − 4x = 0 . The locus of the mid points of
the chords is:
(A) x2 + y2 − 5x − 4y + 6 = 0 (B) x2 + y2 + 5x − 4y + 6 = 0
(C) x2 + y2 − 5x + 4y + 6 = 0 (D) x2 + y2 − 5x − 4y − 6 = 0
5. A

6. The vertex of the parabola, x2 + 2x + y + 1 = 0 is


(A) (0, −1) (B) (−1, 0)
(C) (1, −4) (D) (−2, 1)
6. B

7. The normal at the point (3, 4) on a circle cuts the circle at the point (–1, –2). Then the
equation of the circle is :
(A) x2 + y2 + 2x − 2y − 13 = 0 (B) x2 + y2 − 2x − 2y − 11 = 0
(C) x2 + y2 − 2x + 2y + 12 = 0 (D) x2 + y2 − 2x − 2y + 14 = 0
7. B

FIITJEE Ltd., Punjabi Bagh Centre, 31-32-33, Central Market, West Avenue Road, Punjabi Bagh (West), New Delhi - 110026, Ph: 011-45634000
COMMON TEST # 4 – C-XI- 10
The angle between the two tangents from the origin to the circle ( x − 7 ) + ( y + 1) = 25
2 2
8.
equals
   
(A) (B) (C) (D)
6 3 2 4

8. C

(Multi Correct Choice Type)


This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which
ONE OR MORE may be correct.

9. The Circle x2 + y2 − 2x − 4y + 1 = 0 and x2 + y2 + 4x + 4y − 1 = 0


(A) touch internally
(B) touch externally
(C) have 3x + 4y − 1 = 0 as the common tangent at the point of contact
(D) have 3x + 4y + 1 = 0 as the common tangent at the point of contact
9. BC

10. Two circles x2 + y2 + px + py − 7 = 0 and x2 + y2 − 10x + 2py + 1 = 0 intersect each other


orthogonally then the value of p is
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 5
10. BC

11. Consider the circles


C1 : x2 + y2 − 4x + 6y + 8 = 0
C2 : x2 + y2 − 10x − 6y + 14 = 0
Which of the following statement(s) hold good in respect of C1 and C2 ?
(A) C1 and C2 are orthogonal
(B) C1 and C2 touch each other
(C) Radical axis between C1 and C2 is also one of their common tangent
(D) Middle point of the line joining the centres of C1 and C2 lies on their radical axis
11. BC

12. The parabola x2 + 2x − 4y = 0 has


1
(A) vertex = ( −1, − ) (B) length of latus rectum = 4
4
 3  1
(C) focus =  −1,  (D) focus =  0, − 
 4  4
12. ABC

PART – B
(Numerical Based)
This section contains 06 Numerical based questions, the answer of which maybe positive or negative numbers or decimals (e.g.
6.25, 7.00, -0.33, -.30, 30.27, -127.30)

1. If the vertex of a parabola be at origin and directrix be x + 5 = 0, then find the length of its
latus rectum.

1. 20

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COMMON TEST # 4 – C-XI- 11
2. Two circles have an external tangent with length 36 cm. The shortest distance between
theses circles is 14 cm. If the radius of the longer circle is 4 times the radius of the smaller
circle then the radius of the larger circle in cms is
2. 20

3. Sum of the abscissa and ordinate of the centre of the circle touching the line 3x + y + 2 = 0
at the point (–1, 1) and passing through the point (3, 5) is
3. 4

4. The area of the quadrilateral formed by the tangents from the point (4, 5) to the circle
x2 + y2 − 4x − 2y − 11 = 0 with the pair of radii through the points of contact of the tangents is
4. 8

5. The length of tangent drawn from the point ( 5, 1) to the circle x2 + y2 + 6x − 4y − 3 = 0 is


5. 7

6. The positive value of  , for which the line 3x + 4y =  touches the circle x2 + y2 = 10x , is
6. 40

space for rough work

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COMMON TEST # 4 – C-XI- 12

FIITJEE INTERNAL TEST


BATCHES – NWCM822O1S, NWCM2022X1R, NWCM2022Y1R, NWCM2022 A1R,
NWCM2022A2R, NWCM2022A1W, NWCM2022A2W, NWCM2022A3W, NWCM2022A4W,
NWCM2022X1W, NWCM2022Y1W, NWCM2022Z1W, NWCM2022XA1W,
NWCM2022XA2W, PANINI2022 -XI 1, PANINI2022-XI 2, & PANINI2022-G 1

COMMON TEST – IV
ANSWER KEY
QP Code:

Physics (Section -I)


PART – A

PART – B

PART – C

Chemistry (Section-II)
PART – A

PART – B

PART – C

Mathematics (Section -III)


PART – A

PART – B

PART – C

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