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The document outlines the details of an exam scheduled for November 3, 2025, at Akhil Bharati Vidyapeeth College Of Nursing, with a specific time and marking scheme. It includes a series of arithmetic questions along with their answer options. Additionally, there is a section dedicated to general intelligence and reasoning questions with their respective answer choices.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
44 views

RPF-Constable-Answer-Key-11-Mar-25-Shift-I

The document outlines the details of an exam scheduled for November 3, 2025, at Akhil Bharati Vidyapeeth College Of Nursing, with a specific time and marking scheme. It includes a series of arithmetic questions along with their answer options. Additionally, there is a section dedicated to general intelligence and reasoning questions with their respective answer choices.

Uploaded by

soldiergirl985
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 21

Exam Date 11/03/2025

Centre Name Akhil Bharati Vidyapeeth College Of Nursing


Exam Time 9:00 AM - 10:30 AM
* Note
Correct Answer will carry 1 mark per Question.
Incorrect Answer will carry 1/3 Negative mark per Question.

1. Options shown in green color with a tick icon are correct.


2. Chosen option on the right of the question indicates the option selected by the candidate.

Section : Arithmetic

Q.1

Ans 1. 2

2. 1

3. 3

4. 0

Q.2
Find the value of

Ans 1. 824

2. 814

3. 823

4. 820

Q.3 The marked price of a jacket is ₹3,000. A shop offers a 10% discount, but during a sale,
they offer an additional 5% discount on the already discounted price. What is the final
price of the jacket after both discounts?
Ans 1. ₹2,700

2. ₹2,550

3. ₹2,400

4. ₹2,565

Q.4 A merchant sells 120 metres of cloth and gains the selling price of 27 metres. Find the
gain percentage (rounded off to the nearest integer).
Ans 1. 32%

2. 26%

3. 29%

4. 30%

Q.5 Ishaan has to reach Kolkata which is 737 km away in 21 hours. His starting speed for 7
hours was 49 km/hr. For the next 184 km his speed was 46km/hr. By what speed he
must travel now so as to reach Kolkata in decided time of 21hours?
Ans 1. 18 km/hr

2. 17 km/hr

3. 23 km/hr

4. 21 km/hr
Q.6 Krish can do a piece of work in 3 hours. Moksh can do it in 24 hours. With the
assistance of Nitin, they completed the work in 2 hours. In how many hours can Nitin
alone do it?
Ans 1. 9

2. 8

3. 7

4. 10

Q.7 Find the HCF of 28, 38 and 68.


Ans 1. 8

2. 4

3. 2

4. 12

Q.8 Simplify

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.9 In what ratio should sugar costing ₹10 per kg be mixed with sugar costing ₹86 per kg so
that by selling the mixture at ₹83.2 per kg, there is a profit of 30%?
Ans 1. 56 : 24

2. 22 : 54

3. 55 : 23

4. 53 : 23

Q.10 In a race, an athlete covers a distance of 336 m in 168 sec in the first lap. He covers the
second lap of the same length in 56 sec. What is the average speed (in m/sec) of the
athlete?
Ans 1. 3

2. 12

3. 1

4. 10

Q.11 A cylindrical rod has an outer curved surface area of 4500 cm2. If the length of the rod is
62 cm, then the outer radius (in cm) of the rod, correct to two places of decimal, is:

Ans 1. 11.55

2. 13.22

3. 11.12

4. 11.63

Q.12 Ramesh bought an old type writer for ₹4,800 and spent ₹700 on its repair. He sold it for
₹6,200. Find his profit percentage (corrected to two places of decimals).
Ans 1. 12.09%

2. 10.23%

3. 12.73%

4. 11.33%
Q.13 A person can complete a journey in 13 hours. He covers the first one-third part of the
journey at the rate of 24 km/h and the remaining distance at the rate of 60 km/h. What is
the total distance of his journey?
Ans 1. 525 km

2. 516 km

3. 513 km

4. 520 km

Q.14 Simplify the given expression.

Ans 1. 22.5

2. 225

3. 2250

4. 2.25

Q.15 In what ratio should sugar costing ₹24 per kg be mixed with sugar costing ₹47 per kg so
that by selling the mixture at ₹42.9 per kg, there is a profit of 30%?
Ans 1. 10 : 13

2. 7 : 15

3. 14 : 9

4. 8 : 15

Q.16

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.17
Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.18 Three workers, X, Y and Z, can finish a job in 6 days, 9 days and 18 days, respectively.
How long will it take them to finish the job if they all work together?

Ans 1. 3 days

2. 7 days

3. 15 days

4. 11 days
Q.19 At a traffic signal, a red light flashes two times per minute and a green light flashes six
times in five minutes at regular intervals. If both the lights start flashing at the same
time, how many times do they flash together in each hour?
Ans 1. 2

2. 28

3. 20

4. 24

Q.20 The ages of Ritika and Animesh are in the ratio of 7 : 9 respectively. After 6 years the
ratio of their ages will be 4 : 5. What is the difference in their present ages?
Ans 1. 12

2. 26

3. 7

4. 24

Q.21 X invested ₹m for simple interest at 10% rate of interest per annum for 4 years, and Y
invested ₹2,000 more than X for compound interest at 20% rate of interest per annum
for 2 years. The ratio of the interest obtained by X and Y is 10 : 33, respectively. Find the
investment of X.
Ans 1. ₹1000

2. ₹2,000

3. ₹3,000

4. ₹4,000

Q.22 The average of the marks of 14 students in a class is 60. If the marks of each student
are doubled, find the new average?
Ans 1. 120

2. 60

3. 14

4. 28

Q.23 The total surface area of a cuboid is 174 cm2. If its length and breadth are 3 cm and 5
cm, respectively, then what is the ratio of its length to its height?
Ans 1. 1 : 2

2. 1 : 3

3. 1 : 4

4. 2 : 3

Q.24 Deepak was given an increment of 12% on his salary. His new salary is ₹76,720. What
was his salary before the increment?
Ans 1. ₹69,300

2. ₹69,000

3. ₹68,500

4. ₹68,850

Q.25 The marked price of an Ajrakh saree is ₹3,600. During the festive season sale, it is sold
for ₹3,150. Determine the discount percentage.
Ans 1. 13.5%

2. 10%

3. 12.5%

4. 11%
Q.26 An Uber auto covers a distance of 322 km in 46 hours. What is its speed in km/h?
Ans 1. 9

2. 2

3. 7

4. 11

Q.27 The average of first 114 even numbers is


Ans 1. 114.5

2. 116

3. 115.5

4. 115

Q.28 A town had 1,60,000 inhabitants in 2021. Its population declines at a rate of 5% per
annum. What will be its population in 2024?
Ans 1. 99,000

2. 1,16,640

3. 1,00,000

4. 1,37,180

Q.29 Find the mean proportional of 44 and 11?


Ans 1. 19

2. 24

3. 25

4. 22

Q.30 A sum, when invested at 10% simple interest per annum, amounts to ₹4800 after 2
years. What is the simple interest (in ₹) on the same sum at the same rate of interest in
2 years?
Ans 1. 800

2. 3200

3. 1600

4. 400

Q.31 Chetan bought 52 books for Rs 1125 from one shop and 48 books for Rs 925 from
another. What is the average price (in Rs) he paid per book ?
Ans 1. 23.5

2. 22.5

3. 21.5

4. 20.5

Q.32 A number when increased by 50 %', gives 2610. The number is:
Ans 1. 3480

2. 5220

3. 1740

4. 870

Q.33 The monthly incomes of two friends Sachin and Chetan, are in the ratio 5 : 7
respectively and each of them saves ₹96000 every month. If the ratio of their monthly
expenditure is 2 : 3, find the monthly income of Sachin(in ₹).
Ans 1. 672000

2. 479000

3. 480000

4. 481000
Q.34

Ans
1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.35 8 men can complete a piece of work in 12 days while 4 women can do it in 16 days. In
how many days can 8 women and 4 men complete it?
Ans 1. 9 days

2. 7 days

3. 6 days

4. 11 days

Section : General Intelligence and Reasoning

Q.36 In a certain code language,


‘A = B’ means ‘A is the sister of B’,
‘A $ B’ means ‘A is the brother of B’,
‘A @ B’ means ‘A is the wife of B’ and
‘A * B’ means ‘A is the father of B’.

How is W related to D if ‘W = P $ H @ F * D’?


Ans 1. Mother's mother

2. Sister

3. Mother

4. Mother's sister

Q.37 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

31 44 61 80 103 132 ?
Ans 1. 183

2. 196

3. 169

4. 163

Q.38 If ‘A’ stands for ‘÷’, ‘B’ stands for ‘×’, ‘C’ stands for ‘+’ and ‘D’ stands for ‘−’, then the
resultant of which of the following would be 50?
Ans 1. 16 C 4 D 8 A 2 D 18

2. 16 B 4 D 8 A 2 C 18

3. 16 A 4 D 8 C 2 B 18

4. 16 B 4 C 8 A 2 D 18
Q.39 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
No wasps are lizards.
All ants are wasps.

Conclusions:
(I) : Some wasps are ants.
(II) : No lizards are ants.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (II) follows

2. Only conclusion (I) follows

3. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

4. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

Q.40 Select the correct mirror image of the given combination when the mirror is placed at
'MN' as shown below.

Ans 1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.41 Select the pair that follows the same pattern as that followed by the two pairs given
below. Both pairs follow the same pattern.

SIG : WMK
ING : MRK
Ans 1. MDE : QAI

2. GRC : KNG

3. VHK : ZLO

4. SYM : WCI

Q.42 In a certain code language, ‘BEST’ is coded as ‘4781’ and ‘BEDS’ is coded as ‘8157’.
What is the code for ‘D’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. 1

2. 8

3. 5

4. 7

Q.43 Each group of letters in the following triads is related to the subsequent one following a
certain logic. Select the option in which the triad follows the same logic.

ROAD - OADR - RADO


HALO - ALOH - HLOA
Ans 1. WALE - ALEW - WLEA

2. SAME - AMSE - SMAE

3. MEAN - NEAM - NAEM

4. TEAR - EART - TAER


Q.44 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series based on the
English alphabetical order?

TVO RTM PRK NPI ?


Ans 1. LNG

2. LNH

3. LMH

4. LMG

Q.45 V, A, L, U, E and S live on six different floors of the same building. The lowermost floor
in the building is numbered 1, the floor above it, number 2 and so on, till the topmost
floor is numbered 6. L lives on an even numbered floor but not on floor number 4. Only
two people live between L and V. U lives on an odd numbered floor but not on the
lowermost floor. Only two people live between U and E. S lives immediately below U.
How many people live between A and S?
Ans 1. Two

2. One

3. Four

4. Three

Q.46 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre. B sits third to
the left of E. G is the immediate neighbour of F and A. C sits second to the left of A.
How many people sit between D and F when counted from the left of F?
Ans 1. Four

2. Two

3. Three

4. Five

Q.47 In a certain code language,

'A # B' means ‘A is the father of B’,


'A ! B' means ‘ A is the brother of B’,
'A @ B' means ‘A is the sister of B’ and
'A ÷ B' means ‘A is the wife of B’.

How is R related to Y if 'R @ S ! T ÷ X # Y'?


Ans 1. Mother's sister

2. Mother's son

3. Mother's brother

4. Mother's mother

Q.48 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows. Counting to
be done from left to right only. (All numbers are single-digit numbers only.)

(Left) 3 5 9 7 4 2 5 7 6 3 2 4 6 5 4 1 9 8 7 8 4 5 1 3 4 2 (Right)

How many such even digits are there each of which is immediately preceded by an even
digit and also immediately followed by an odd digit?
Ans 1. One

2. Two

3. Four

4. Three

Q.49 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

840 850 859 867 874 ?


Ans 1. 880

2. 879

3. 878

4. 881
Q.50 Rohan starts from Point A and drives 6 km towards the south. He then takes a right turn,
drives 16 km, turns right and drives 2 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 9 km. He
takes a final left turn, drives 4 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and
towards which direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are
90 degrees turns only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 9 km towards the south

2. 9 km towards the north

3. 7 km towards the west

4. 7 km towards the east

Q.51 Refer to the following number and symbol series and answer the question that follows.
Counting to be done from left to right only.

(Left) # / 4 6 3 + 9 8 9 # 1 * 6 ? # / 7 # * 4 9 (Right)

How many such symbols are there, each of which is immediately preceded by a number
and also immediately followed by another symbol?
Ans 1. Two

2. Three

3. None

4. One

Q.52 Mr. Tqr starts from Point A and drives 19 km towards South. He then takes a right turn,
drives 31 km, turns right and drives 5 km. He then takes a right turn and drives 8 km. He
then takes a right turn, drives 5 km, turns left and drives 14 km. He takes a final left turn,
drives 19 km and stops at Point P. How far (shortest distance) and towards which
direction should he drive in order to reach Point A again? (All turns are 90 degree turns
only unless specified.)
Ans 1. 9 km to the South

2. 9 km to the West

3. 9 km to the East

4. 9 km to the North

Q.53 Select the set in which the numbers are related in the same way as are the numbers of
the following sets.
(NOTE: Operations should be performed on the whole numbers, without
breaking down the numbers into their constituent digits. E.g. 13 –
Operations on 13 such as adding / subtracting /multiplying to 13 can be
performed. Breaking down 13 into 1 and 3 and then performing
mathematical operations on 1 and 3 is not allowed.)
36 - 7 - 5
2-1-1
Ans 1. 6 - 3 - 2

2. 10 - 3 - 2

3. 4 - 3 - 1

4. 5 - 3 - 2

Q.54 In a certain code language, ‘my little brother’ is coded as ‘jk yu qw’ and ‘brother and me’
is coded as ‘wq jk uy’. How is ‘brother’ coded in the given language?
Ans 1. jk

2. uy

3. qw

4. wq
Q.55 Refer to the following number series and answer the question that follows. Counting to
be done from left to right only. (All numbers are single-digit numbers only.)

(Left) 4 6 7 1 4 2 5 9 4 6 2 9 3 5 1 3 8 7 6 7 9 5 2 1 7 4 (Right)

How many such even digits are there each of which is immediately preceded by an even
digit and also immediately followed by an even digit?
Ans 1. Three

2. One

3. Four

4. Two

Q.56 In a certain code language, ‘TXKF’ is coded as ‘E#OP’ and ‘KAFT’ is coded as ‘O#RE’.
What is the code for ‘A’ in the given code language?
Ans 1. R

2. O

3. #

4. E

Q.57 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group? (Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels
or their position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. OSM

2. MQK

3. MLE

4. QUO
Q.58 Identify the figure given in the options which when put in place of the question mark (?)
will logically complete the series.

Ans

1.

2.

3.

4.

Q.59 Bristi is ranked 12th from the top and 31st from the bottom in her class. How many
students are there in the class?
Ans 1. 43

2. 44

3. 41

4. 42

Q.60 Seven people, A, B, C, D, E, F and G, are sitting in a row, facing north. Only five people
sit between G and F. Only three people sit to the right of A. C sits to the left of A but
right of D. E sits to the right of B but left of G.
How many people sit to the right of B?
Ans 1. Two

2. Three

3. Four

4. One
Q.61 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.
Statements:
No lemon is an orange.
No orange is a grapefruit.
No orange is a mandarin.
Conclusions:
(I): No lemon is a grapefruit.
(II): Some mandarins are grapefruits.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (II) follows.

2. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows.

3. Only conclusion (I) follows.

4. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow.

Q.62 If A stands for '+', B stands for '−', C stands for '×' and D stands for '÷', what will come in
place of the question mark (?) in the following equation?

8D4C6D2B6A2=?
Ans 1. 2

2. 8

3. 14

4. 20

Q.63 Based on the English alphabetical order, three of the following four letter-clusters are
alike in a certain way and thus form a group. Which letter-cluster DOES NOT belong to
that group?
(Note: The odd one out is not based on the number of consonants/vowels or their
position in the letter-cluster.)
Ans 1. FLG

2. LRX

3. OUA

4. DJP

Q.64 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?
2, 3, 6, 11, ?, 27
Ans 1. 20

2. 19

3. 18

4. 21

Q.65 APPLE is related to YNNJC in a certain way based on the English alphabetical order. In
the same way, ORANGE is related to MPYLEC. To which of the following is GUAVA
related, following the same logic?
Ans 1. UGVAA

2. HVBWB

3. FTZUZ

4. ESYTY

Q.66 What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the given series?

2005, 1805, 1625, 1463, 1317, ?


Ans 1. 1185

2. 1186

3. 1187

4. 1216
Q.67 L, M, N, O, P, Q, and R are sitting around a circular table facing the centre. P sits third to
the left of O. Q sits second to the left of L. Only O sits between M and Q. R is not an
immediate neighbour of P. How many people sit between N and Q when counted from
the right of N?
Ans 1. Four

2. One

3. Two

4. Three

Q.68 Select the term from among the given options that can replace the question mark (?) in
the following series.

LO33 KN45 JM57 IL69 ?


Ans 1. HL81

2. HK82

3. HL82

4. HK81

Q.69 Read the given statements and conclusions carefully. Assuming that the information
given in the statements is true, even if it appears to be at variance with commonly
known facts, decide which of the given conclusions logically follow(s) from the
statements.

Statements:
All engines are bats.
All mangoes are bats.

Conclusions:
(I) : Some mangoes are engines.
(II) : All engines are mangoes.
Ans 1. Only conclusion (I) follows

2. Neither conclusion (I) nor (II) follows

3. Only conclusion (II) follows

4. Both conclusions (I) and (II) follow

Q.70 Which of the following letter-number clusters will replace the question mark (?) in the
given series to make it logically complete?

EDX 26, HGS 15, ?, NMI -7, QPD -18


Ans 1. NJO 4

2. KJN 4

3. HKL 7

4. JLK 6

Section : General Awareness

Q.71 Which of the following is NOT a provision to disqualify the members of a political party
on the ground of defection mentioned in the tenth schedule of the Indian Constitution?
Ans 1. If a nominated member joins another party after 6 months of his seat

2. If a party merges with another party

3. If a member votes against his party will

4. If an elected member joins another party after election

Q.72 The Fifth Five Year Plan in India aimed for:


Ans 1. industrial growth

2. employment generation

3. eradication of poverty

4. promotion of cottage industries


Q.73 Which state’s Tourism and Art and Culture Department organises the Hornbill Festival?
Ans 1. Manipur

2. Mizoram

3. Sikkim

4. Nagaland

Q.74 Which of the following dance forms evolved from Assam?


Ans 1. Sattriya

2. Kathak

3. Kathakali

4. Kuchipudi

Q.75 The Shanan power project is located in which of the following Indian states?
Ans 1. Uttarakhand

2. Himachal Pradesh

3. Haryana

4. Punjab

Q.76 In which year did the government establish a new institution called NITI Aayog in place
of the Planning Commission?
Ans 1. 2015

2. 2019

3. 2017

4. 2021

Q.77 In which month did the Reserve Bank of India enter its 90th year of operations, in 2024?
Ans 1. February

2. April

3. August

4. June

Q.78 1 horse power (hp) = _____.


Ans 1. 746 MW

2. 746 × 10−6 MW

3. 746 × 10−3 MW

4. 746 × 106 MW

Q.79 The Thar Desert extends into which neighbouring country of India?
Ans 1. Nepal

2. Bangladesh

3. Bhutan

4. Pakistan

Q.80 What is the coastal zone located in the western part of India, along the Arabian Sea and
south of Goa, known as?
Ans 1. Malabar coast

2. Coromandel coast

3. Sunderbans

4. Konkan coast
Q.81 In which language film category did 777 Charlie win at the South Indian International
Movie Awards (SIIMA) 2023?
Ans 1. Telugu

2. Tamil

3. Kannada

4. Malayalam

Q.82 The concept of Directive Principles in the Indian Constitution is borrowed from the
Constitution of which country?
Ans 1. Canada

2. Ireland

3. USA

4. UK

Q.83 The last ruler of the Maurya Empire was killed by whom?
Ans 1. Avanti Varman

2. Pushyamitra Shunga

3. Ashoka

4. Vishnugupta Candraditya

Q.84 The Government of India launched UDAN regional connectivity scheme in the year
2016, this is related to ______ sector.
Ans 1. road transport

2. rail transport

3. civil aviation

4. water transport

Q.85 Who among the following scientists discovered the element radium?
Ans 1. Dmitri Mendeleev

2. Marie Curie

3. JJ Thomson

4. Wilhelm Roentgen

Q.86 According to the Union Budget 2024, what is the revised tax slab limit for the 5% tax
rate under the new tax policy?
Ans 1. ₹5 lakh

2. ₹7 lakh

3. ₹10 lakh

4. ₹2.5 lakh

Q.87 An area with a population of over 1 million is classified as a _______.


Ans 1. mega city

2. metropolitan city

3. suburban area

4. district town

Q.88 What humanitarian issue was condemned by the BRICS nations during the 16th summit
held in Russia?
Ans 1. Crises in the Middle East

2. Deforestation in the Amazon

3. Poverty in Africa

4. Refugee crises in Europe


Q.89 Which crop is referred to as the 'golden fibre' in India?
Ans 1. Wheat

2. Silk

3. Jute

4. Cotton

Q.90 Who are eligible to vote in Lok Sabha elections?


Ans 1. Citizens aged 18 and above who are not disqualified under the Constitution or any law

2. Citizens who have paid income tax

3. Only citizens with a government job

4. Only citizens aged 21 and above

Q.91 According to the Economic Survey 2023-24 presented in Parliament on 22 July, what
position does India now rank globally in market capitalisation to GDP ratio?
Ans 1. 5th

2. 7th

3. 3rd

4. 11th

Q.92 What was the average monthly GST collection in India for the 2023-24 fiscal year?
Ans 1. ₹1.68 lakh crore

2. ₹1.5 lakh crore

3. ₹2 lakh crore

4. ₹2.5 lakh crore

Q.93 Who among the following claimed his sixth Norway Chess title at the 12th edition of the
Norway Chess super-tournament that concluded on 7 June, 2024?
Ans 1. Fabiano Caruana

2. Ding Liren

3. Magnus Carlsen

4. Gukesh D

Q.94 The angle between the direction of electric and magnetic fields of an electromagnetic
wave is:
Ans 1. 90°

2. 45°

3. 0°

4. 180°

Q.95 Which part of the Indian Constitution, added by the 42nd Amendment, deals with
tribunals?
Ans 1. Part XVI

2. Part X-A

3. Part XIV-A

4. Part IXB

Q.96 Who led the revolt of 1857 in the city of Farrukhabad?


Ans 1. Mohammad Khan

2. Khan Bahadur Khan

3. Tafazzul Hussain Khan

4. Abdul Ali Khan


Q.97 To whom did Mahatma Gandhi send a letter in March 1930, explaining why the British
rule in India was considered a 'curse'?
Ans 1. Lord Adam

2. Lord Irwin

3. Lord Mountbatten

4. Lord Wellesley

Q.98 The four Vedas, together with their Brahmanas are also known as ______.
Ans 1. Vedangas

2. Upavedas

3. Shruti

4. Puranas

Q.99 Which of the following was a major benefit of globalisation for India after 1991?
Ans 1. Reduced foreign investment

2. Increased access to foreign markets

3. Isolation from global economies

4. Decreased foreign trade

Q.100 EI-Nino, a climate pattern, is an extension of which of the following?


Ans 1. North Pacific Current

2. East Australian Current

3. Warm Equatorial Current

4. Equatorial Counter Current

Q.101 When was Awadh brought under the control of the Britishers after the uprising of the
First War of Independence?
Ans 1. 1858

2. 1859

3. 1860

4. 1857

Q.102 Who became the first Indian gymnast to secure a gold medal in any Asian
Championships after winning a gold medal at the Asian Gymnastics Championships
2024, held in Tashkent?
Ans 1. Pranati Nayak

2. Aruna Reddy

3. Meghana Gundlapally Reddy

4. Dipa Karmakar

Q.103 Tilak believed that political rights could only be achieved through:
Ans 1. persuasion

2. table talk

3. courageous action (strong pressure)

4. diplomatic discussions

Q.104 The next Kumbh Mela, commemorated every 12 years at the Sangam, also known as
Tirtharaj or the 'King of Tirthas,' is scheduled to take place in 2025. In which of the
following cities will the 2025 Kumbh Mela be held?
Ans 1. Prayagraj

2. Haridwar

3. Varanasi

4. Ujjain
Q.105 The northernmost island of the Andaman group is:
Ans 1. Little Andaman Island

2. Neil Island

3. South Andaman Island

4. Landfall Island

Q.106 Which Supreme Court case established the 'Collegium system' for judicial
appointments in India?
Ans 1. Minerva Mills vs. Union of India

2. SR Bommai vs. Union of India

3. The Second Judges Case (1993)

4. Kesavananda Bharati vs. State of Kerala

Q.107 Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi Inaugurated which of the following High-
Performance Computing (HPC) Systems tailored for Weather and Climate Research in
September 2024?
Ans 1. Arka and Arunika

2. Trinetra and Arka

3. PARAM Seva and Trinetra

4. Chandra and Trinetra

Q.108 As of 26 November 2024, how many constitutional amendments have been made to the
Constitution of India since it was first enacted in 1950?
Ans 1. 370

2. 106

3. 101

4. 144

Q.109 Apart from English, how many Indian languages does the AI model ‘Sarvam-1’ support
as of October 2024?
Ans 1. 5

2. 10

3. 8

4. 13

Q.110 Which policy was introduced to attract foreign companies to invest in India?
Ans 1. Liberalisation Policy

2. Import Substitution Policy

3. Nationalisation Policy

4. Socialist Policy

Q.111 How many shuddha notes were primarily there in Hindustani classical music?
Ans 1. 3

2. 7

3. 11

4. 6

Q.112 Under The Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Amendment Bill, 2024, what is
the penalty imposed on violators of the provisions mentioned in the Bill?
Ans 1. Between ₹10,000 and ₹15 lakh

2. Between ₹10,000 and ₹10 lakh

3. Between ₹50,000 and ₹15 lakh

4. Between ₹5,000 and ₹5 lakh


Q.113 Appeals from the judgments of a Family Court under the Family Courts Act, 1984, lie to
which court?
Ans 1. High Court

2. Family Court Tribunal

3. District Court

4. Supreme Court of India

Q.114 What was the average monthly income of rural households in India, as reported by the
NABARD All India Rural Financial Inclusion Survey (NAFIS) 2021-22, released in
October 2024?
Ans 1. ₹14,000

2. ₹11,059

3. ₹12,698

4. ₹10,500

Q.115 The liver belongs to which organ system in the human body?
Ans 1. Digestive system

2. Nervous system

3. Respiratory system

4. Circulatory system

Q.116 Which of the following best represents the cyclotron frequency of a charged particle in
a magnetic field?
Ans 1. The frequency at which the charged particle undergoes circular motion in the magnetic field due to the Lorentz force acting on
it
2. The frequency at which the charged particle experiences collisions with other particles

3. The frequency at which the charged particle rotates about an axis passing through its centre

4. The frequency at which the charged particle emits electromagnetic radiation

Q.117 Match the following.


Harappan Site Present State
A. Lothal I. Haryana
B. Kalibagan II. Gujarat
C. Daimabad III. Rajasthan
D. Birhan IV. Maharashtra
Ans 1. A-II; B-III; C-IV; D-I

2. A-I; B-II; C-III; D-IV

3. A-III; B-IV; C-II; D-I

4. A-IV; B-I; C-III; D-II

Q.118 The Right to Vote is:


Ans 1. neither a Fundamental Right nor a legal right

2. a legal right

3. a Fundamental Right

4. a Fundamental Duty

Q.119 The Green Revolution had a significant socio-economic impact on the rural areas of
which two Indian states?
Ans 1. Maharashtra and Gujarat

2. Tamil Nadu and Kerala

3. Bihar and Uttar Pradesh

4. Punjab and Haryana


Q.120 Which economic model guided India’s planning approach during the 1950s and 1960s?
Ans 1. Keynesian Model

2. Mahalanobis Model

3. Gandhian Model

4. Nehruvian Model

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