I/II SEM B.Tech.

(all branches) Basic Electrical Engineering

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. The internal resistance of an ideal voltage source is

(a) 0 (b) infinite (c) 1Ω (d) can’t say

2. The internal resistance of an ideal current source is

(a) 0 (b) infinite (c) 1Ω (d) can’t say

3. A practical voltage source is usually represented by

(a) a resistance in series with an ideal current source
(b) a resistance in parallel with an ideal current source
(c) a resistance in series with an ideal voltage source
(d) a resistance in parallel with an ideal voltage source

4. If RA = RB = RC = R in star network, RAB = RBC = RCA = __________ in it’s equivalent delta

network.
(a) R/3 (b) 3R (c) R (d) 2R/3

5. Two incandescent bulbs of 40W and 60W rating are connected in series across the mains.
Then
(a) the bulbs together consume 100W (b) the bulbs together consume 50W
(c) the 60W bulbs glows brighter (d) the 40W bulbs glows brighter

6. Six incandescent bulbs are connected across 200V. Each bulb is rated at 100W. How much
current flows through each bulb?
(a) 0.5A (b) 2A (c) 6A (d) 7A

7. If a 20V battery is connected across a parallel resistors of 4Ω, 8Ω, 16Ω, how much voltage is
there across 8Ω resistor?
(a) 5V (b) 20V (c) 10V (d) 40V

8. A 10V source is connected to a resistor R=10Ω. How much resistance should be added in
series with R in order to reduce the current to 1/3rd of its original value?
(a) 5Ω (b) 20Ω (c) 10Ω (d) 15Ω

9. If a network contains B branches & N nodes, then the no. of mesh current euations are
___________.
(a) B-N+1 (b) B-N-1 (c) N-B+1 (d) N-B-1

10. A 2H inductor carrying current of 1A will store energy equals to

(a) 1J (b) 2J (c) 3J (d) 4J

11. When five identical capacitors each having a capacitance of 5F are connected in parallel, then
the equivalent capacitance is
(a) 5F (b) 25F (c) 10F (d) 15F

12. An inductor store energy in ____________.

(a) magnetic field (b) electric field (c) electromagnetic field (d) all

13. A capacitor stores energy in ____________.

(a) magnetic field (b) electric field (c) electromagnetic field (d) all

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14. The total power in a series circuit is 10W. There are five equal value resistors in the circuit.
How much power does each resistor dissipate?
(a) 2W (b) 4W (c) 6W (d) 8W

15. Mesh analysis mainly depends on ________.

(a) KVL (b) KCL (c) KVL & KCL (d) None

16. Nodal analysis mainly depends on ________.

(a) KVL (b) KCL (c) KVL & KCL (d) None

17. In an electrical network, the number of nodes are N, then the no. of node voltages are
(a) N (b) N-1 (c) N+1 (d) None

18. Three equal resistances of 9Ω are connected in star, then the equal resistance in the one of the
arms of the delta circuit is __________.
(a) 3Ω (b) 9Ω (c) 15Ω (d) 27Ω

19. A circuit consists of two resistances 10Ω & 20Ω in parallel and the total current passing
through the circuit is 100A, then the current passing through 20Ω is
(a) 22.22A (b) 33.33A (c) 44.44A (d) 55.55A

20. A battery has an emf of 12.9 volts and supplies a current of 3.5A. What is the resistance of the
circuit?
(a) 5.5 (b) 16.4 (c) 3.69 (d) 45.15

21. Sign concention used for potential is

(a) rise in potential is negative (b) rise in potential is zero
(c) rise in potential is equal to fall in potential (d) rise in potential is positive

22. A resistor takes 0.3A at 230V. If the voltage is reduced to 100V, what is the current taken by
the resistor
(a) 0.13A (b) 0.69A (c) 0.18A (d) 0.3A

23. The following voltage drops are measured across each of three resistors in series: 5.2V, 8.5V,
12.3V. What is the value of the source voltage to which these resistors are connected?
(a) 26V (b) 5.2V (c) 8.2V (d) 12.3V

24. Power in a parallel circuit is equal to

(a) product of all powers (b) sum of all resistors in parallel
(c) sum of all powers in parallel (d) product of all resistors in parallel

25. A cell of emf 2V and internal resistance 1Ω is connected with two wires of resistances 2 and 5
in parallel. Find the current through the circuit.
(a) 100/12A (b) 17/14A (c) 0A (d) 14/17A

26. In a series circuit, which of the statement is correct

(a) total power = sum of powers of each resistor in series
(b) total power = zero
(c) total power = VI CosΦ
(d) total power = infinity

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27. For a parallel circuit, which statement is incorrect
(a) Pγ = VS2 / Rγ (b) Pγ = P1 + P2 + ------- Pm
(c) I1 + I2 + I3 = 0 (d) Ii = Iγ Rγ / (Ri + Rγ)

28. A battery of emf 1.8 volts and internal resistance 1.2Ω is connected to a pair of resistance 4Ω
and 6Ω in paralle. Calculate the potential difference of the battery
(a) 100V (b) 10V (c) 1.2V (d) 1V

29. A battery of emf 12V is connected to an external resistance of 20Ω and it is found to have a
potential difference of 10V. Find its internal resistance
(a) 400Ω (b) 40Ω (c) 0.4Ω (d) 4Ω

30. When a 1.2KΩ resistors, 100Ω resistor. 1KΩ resistor and 50Ω resistor are in parallel, the total
resistance is less than
(a) 1.2KΩ (b) 100Ω (c) 1KΩ (d) 50Ω

31. For the circuit shown below, RAB = _________

R

R
(a) 1 (b) 0 (c) R/3 (d) 3R

32. For the circuit shown below, I3 = ____________.

20A

I1 I2 I3
5Ω 10Ω

(a) 0A (b) 15A (c) 10A (d) 20A

33. For the network shown in figure, Thevenin’s impedance between terminals A & B is
_________. 2Ω 2Ω
A
+
10V_ 2Ω

B
(a) 4Ω (b) 2Ω (c) 3Ω (d) 6Ω

34. If RA = RB = RC = R in star network, RAB = RBC = RCA = __________ in its equivalent delta
network.
(a) R/3 (b) 3R (c) R (d) 2R/3

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35. Superposition theorem is not valid for
(a) current responses (b) voltage responses
(c) linear responses (d) power responses

36. Thevenin’s voltage between terminal A and B will be in the given figure
12Ω
A

20V 12Ω

(a) 10V (b) 20V (c) 5V (d) 24V

37. To get Thevenin’s voltage, you have to ___________.

(a) short the load resistor (b) open the load resistor
(c) short the voltage source (d) open the voltage source

38. In a linear circuit, the superposition theorem can applicable to calculate

(a) voltage and power (b) voltage and current
(c) current and power (d) voltage, current and power

39. Superposition theorem can be applied only to circuits having

(a) resistive elements (b) passive elements
(c) non-linear elements (d) linear bilateral elements

40. Find the RMS value of the alternating current I=4.2Sin(5000t + 450)A
(a) 2.21A (b) 4.2A (c) 2.97A (d) 0.42A

41. What is the effective value of sine wave with a maximum value of 95V?
(a) zero (b) 95V (c) 50V (d) 67.2V

42. Find the peak to peak value of an ac voltage whose effective value is 50V RMS?
(a) 7.07V (b) 707.0V (c) 141.4V (d) 70.7V

43. What is the instattaneous value of v(t)=5Sin(2p x 104t) volts at time, t=25μsec.
(a) -10V (b) 5V (c) 10V (d) 0.137V

44. Average value of sine wave over half a cycle of v(t)=VmSinωt

(a) -0.637Vm (b) zero (c) 0.637Vm (d) unity

45. The current in a 2.2 kΩ resistor is l=5Sin(2π x 100t 450)mA. What is the effective value of
resistor voltage?
(a) 778.0V (b) 7.78V (c) 77.8V (d) 0.778V

46. The ratio of RMS value to the average value is called _________.
(a) peak factor (b) form factor (c) power factor (d) all

47. The ratio of maximum value to the RMS value is called _________.
(a) peak factor (b) form factor (c) power factor (d) all

48. The form factor of a sinusoidal waveform is __________.

(a) 1.11 (b) 1.414 (c) 1.732 (d) 0

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49. The peak factor of a sinusoidal waveform is __________.
(a) 1.11 (b) 1.414 (c) 1.732 (d) 0

50. The form factor of a DC voltage is ________.

(a) 1 (b) 1.414 (c) infinity (d) 0

51. RMS value and the average value are the same in case of
(a) triangular wave (b) square wave (c) sine wave (d) rectangular wave

52. The average value of a sinusoidal waveform over a full cycle is

(a) 1 (b) 1.414 (c) infinity (d) 0

53. If a wire is carrying a direct current of 100A and a sinusoidal alternating current of peak value
100A, then the RMS value of resultant current is
(a) 110V (b) 200V (c) 50V (d) 122.4V

54. Two alternating emf’s are represented by v1 = 5Sin(ωt-450). The phase angle between them is
(a) 300 (b) 450 (c) 600 (d) 900

55. If the peak value of an alternating quantity is 250V and peak factor is 1.57, then the RMS
value is
(a) 356V (b) 159V (c) 177V (d) 250V

56. The RMS value of an alternating current i(t)=2+5Sin(314t)

(a) √27A (b) √14.5A (c) √29A (d) 7A

57. An alternating quantity has a time period of 0.02 sec. If the time period is doubled for the
alternating quantity, then the new frequency will be
(a) halved (b) doubled (c) three times (d) four times

58. A constant current of 2.8A exists in a resistor. The RMS value of the current is
(a) 1.4A (b) 2.8A (c) 5.6A (d) undefined

59. In an RLC series circuit, if the difference between XL and XC increases, then the total
(a) impedance remains unchanged (b) impedance increases
(c) impdeance reduce (d) resistance increases

60. The current through a 15pF capacitor is 0.45 Sin(108t + 450) mA. Write the mathematical
expression for the voltage across it
(a) 0.45 Sin(108t – 00)V (b) 0.45 Sin(108t – 450)V
8 0
(c) 0.3 Sin(10 t – 45 )V (d) 0.3 Sin(108t + 450)V

61. In an RLC circuit, phase angle is given by

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62. In an RC circuit, true power is 300W and reactive power is 1000VAR. What is the apparent
power?
(a) 1000VA (b) 1043.9VA (c) 1000VAR (d) 1000W

63. What is the instantaneous value of v=5Sin(2π x 104t) volts at time, t=25μsec.
(a) -10V (b) 5V (c) 10V (d) 0.137V

64. A pure inductive coil allows a current of 10A to flow from a 230V, 50Hz supply. What is the
Inductance of the coil in henrys?
(a) 10/π (b) 26/π (c) 0.23/π (d) 23.5/π

65. Average value of sine wave over half a cycle of f(t)=Sinωt.

(a) -0.637Vm (b) zero (c) 0.637Vm (d) unity

66. A coil of 0.5H and 10Ω is connected in series with a 10μF capacitor. What is the power factor
of the circuit
(a) 0.99 (b) 0.8 (c) 0.06 (d) 1

67. What is the capacitance needed to produce 1200 oms of reactance when the frequency is
3.3MHz?
(a) zero (b) 57.7pF (c) 57.7μF (d) 5.77pF

68. A coil having a resistance of 7Ω and an inductance of 31.8mH is connected to 230V, 50Hz
supply. What is the inductive reactance of the coil?
(a) 25Ω (b) 15Ω (c) 10Ω (d) 20Ω

69. A choke coil takes a current of 3.5A when connected across a 250V, 50Hz mains and
consumes 400W. What is the power factor of the circuit?
(a) 0.64 lag (b) 0.68 lag (c) 0.7 lag (d) 0.67 lag

70. A power factor of ‘1’ indicates

(a) purely resistive circuit (b) purely reactive circuit (c) both a & b (d) none

71. A power factor of ‘0’ indicates

(a) purely resistive circuit (b) purely reactive circuit (c) both a & b (d) none

72. In pure inductive circuit the power factor is __________

(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) infinity (d) can’t say

73. In pure capacitive circuit the power factor is __________

(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) infinity (d) can’t say

74. Power factor is defined as

(a) cosine of phase angle between voltage and current
(b) ratio of active power to apparent power
(c) ratio of resistance to impedance
(d) all

75. In a RLC series circuit VR = 3V, VL = 8V & VC = 4V, the applied voltage is
(a) 15V (b) 5V (c) 8V (d) 7V

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76. In a RL series circuit VR = 6V, VL = 8V, the applied voltage is
(a) 4V (b) 6V (c) 8V (d) 10V

77. In a RC series circuit VR = 3V, VL = 4V, the applied voltage is

(a) 15V (b) 5V (c) 8V (d) 7V

78. Power in AC circuits is given by

(a) VI (b) VI tanΦ (c) VI cosΦ (d) VI sinΦ

79. The phasor combination of resistive power and reactive power is called
(a) True power (b) apparent power (c) reactive power (d) average power

80. Apparent power is expressed in

(a) Volt ampere (b) watts (c) both a & b (d) VAR

81. What is the condition for resonance?

(a) phase angle is 900 lag (b) phase angle is zero
0
(c) phase angle is 90 lead (d) phase angle is 1800

82. For resonant series circuit, for f<f1, the behaviour of circuit is
(a) circuit is resistive (b) circuit is R-L-C
(c) circuit is capacitive (d) circuit is inductive

83. Q-factor of a series resonant circuit is

(a) voltage/current (b) voltage across L or C / applied voltage
(c) power factor (d) L/C

84. In a series RLC circuit R=2kΩ, L=1H and C=2.5nF, the resonant frequency is ________
(a) 1083Hz (b) 2183Hz (c) 3183Hz (d) 4123Hz

85. For a series RLC circuit the power factor at lower half power frequency is _________
(a) 0.5 lagging (b) 0.65 leading (c) 0.707 leading (d) unity

86. In RLC parallel circuit, the impedance at resonance is

(a) maximum (b) minimum (c) zero (d) infinity

87. The value of current at resonance in a series RLC circuit is governed by

(a) R (b) L (c) C (d) all

88. Which type of magnification occurs in series resonant RLC circuit?

(a) voltage mangnification (b) current magnification
(c) both (d) none

89. Which type of magnification occurs in parallel resonant RLC circuit

(a) voltage magnification (b) current magnification
(c) both (d) can’t say

90. In series resonant RLC circuit if frequency increases then resistance will
(a) Increases (b) decreases (c) remains constant (d) none

91. Which of the following statement is correct?

(a) f1=f0-B.W/2 (b) f2 = f0+B.W/2 (c) f02 = f1f2 (d) all

92. What is the relation between f0, BW and Q-factor

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(a) f0 = BW / Q-factor (b) f0 = BW - Q-factor
(c) f0 = BW + Q-factor (d) f0 = BW x Q-factor

93. In series RLC circuit the resonant frequency is fr, if all the component values are now doubled
the new resonant frequency is
(a) 2fr (b) fr (c) fr/4 (d) fr/2

94. The dynamic impedance of a RLC parallel circuit is

(a) R (b) L/CR (c) R/LC (d) C/LR

95. In a series RLC circuit, the half power frequencies are f1 = 40Hz and f2 = 90Hz. Then the
resonant frequency is
(a) 50Hz (b) 130Hz (c) 60Hz (d) 90Hz

96. In a series RLC circuit, R=10Ω and band width, then inductance in the circuit is
(a) 2H (b) 0.15H (c) 0.1Hz (d) 0.05H

97. In a balanced delta connection, IL =

(a) Iph / √3 (b) Iph (c) √2Iph (d) √3Iph

98. In a three-phase system the emf’s are

(a) 300 apart (b) 400 apart (c) 900 apart (d) 1200 apart

99. In a balanced 3-phase star connected load, the power consumed/ph is 500W, the power factor
of the load is 0.8 lagging. The total reactive power taken by the load is
(a) 1875 var (b) 375 var (c) 625 var (d) 1125 var

100. In a two wattmeter method of measurement of power in a balanced load the readings are W1
=400W, W2 = 200W, the p.f. of the load is
(a) 0.5 lag (b) 0.866 lag (c) 0.866 lead (d) 0.5 lead

101. In a 2 wattmeter method, one of the wattmeter reads zero, and the other reads 1000W in a
balanced 3-phase load. The reactive power taken by the load is
(a) 1000 VAR (b) √3 x 1000 VAR (c) zero (d) 3000 VAR

102. In a balanced 3-phase star connected system lags behind by _____ electrical degress.
(a) 600 (b) 900 (c) 1200 (d) 1500

103. The relationship between the line and phase voltage of a delta-connected circuit is _______
(a) VL = VP (b) VL = √3VP (c) VL = VP / √2 (d) VL = (2/π) VP

104. A 400V, 3-phase induction motor takes a no load current of 5A. The phase angle of the
current is 750. The readings of wattmeters in the two wattmeter method of measurement of
power are
(a) 2000 cos 1050, 2000 cos 450 (b) √3 x 2000 cos 450, √3 x 2000 cos 750
0
(c) √3 x 2000 cos 75 each (d) 2000 cos 750. 2000 som 450

105. Three equal impedances are first connected in delta across a 3-phase balanced supply. If the
same impedances are connected in star across the same supply
(a) phase currents will be one-third (b) line currents will be one-third
(c) power consumed will be one-third (d) none of the above

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106. A 3-phase star connecte symmetrical load consumes P watts of power from a balanced
supply. If the same load is connected in delta to the same supply, the power consumption will
be
(a) P (b) √3P (c) 3P (d) not determined from the given data

107. The power measurement in balanced 3-phase circuit can be done by

(a) one wattmeter method only (b) two wattmeter method only
(c) three wattmeter method only (d) any one of the above

108. In the measurement of 3-phase power by two-wattmeter method, if the two wattmeter
readings are equal the power factor of the circuit is
(a) 0.8 lagging (b) 0.8 leading (c) zero (d) unity

109. In a two wattmeter method of measuring power in a 3-phase system one of the wattmeters
reads negative implying
(a) wattmeter connection is fautly (b) load is unbalanced
(c) power flow is in the reverse direction (d) power factor is less than 0.5

110. While measuring power in a three phase load by two-wattmeter method, the readings of the
two wattmeters will be equal and opposite when
(a) p.f. is unity (b) load is balanced
(c) phase angle is between and (d) the load is purely inductive

111. In two wattmeter method of power measurement, if one of the wattmeter sows zero reading,
then it can be concluded that
(a) power factor is unity (b) power factor is 0.5
(c) power factor is 0.5 lagging (d) power factor is 0.5 leading

112. In India, electrical power is transmitted by

(a) 1-phase AC system (b) 3-wire DC system
(c) 3-phase 3-wire AC system (d) 2-wire DC system

113. The minimum number of wattmeters required to measure power in a 3-phase balanced
system is
(a) one (b) two (c) three (d) four

114. If an are the readings of two wattmeters used to measure power of a 3-phase balanced load,
then the active power draw n by the load is
(a) W1 + W2 (b) W1 – W2 (c) √3 (W1 + W2) (d) √3 (W1 - W2)

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I/II SEM B.Tech. (all branches) Basic Electrical Engineering

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. The nature of the current flowing in the armature of the DC machine is

(a) AC (b) DC (c) pulsating (d) dc superimposed on ac

2. The commutator in a dc machine can be convert

(a) AC to DC (b) DC to AC (c) both a and b (d) None of the above

3. DC generator operates on the principle of

(a) electromagnetic induction (b) Lenz’s law (c) Biov-Savart’s law (d) None

4. A conductor is rotating within a magnetic field. At which position do the peak voltage occur
(a) at the right angles to the axis of magneitc field
(b) along the axis of the magnetic field
(c) at 45 degree angles to the axis of magnetic field
(d) anywhere

5. The resistance of armature winding depends on

(a) number of conductors (b) number of poles
(c) cross-sectional area of die conductor (d) all of above

6. The output voltage os a simple DC generator is

(a) AC square wave (b) AC sinusoidal wave (c) pure DC (d) pulsating DC

7. A four pole lap wound DC shunt generator is supplying 46A to a load. The field current of the
generator is 2A. The current per parallel path is
(a) 12A (b) 24A (c) 24A (d) none

8. Why is the armature of a DC machine made of silicon steel stampings

(a) To reduce eddy current loss (b) to reduce hysteresis loss
(c) for the ease with which the slots can be created (d) to achieve high permeability

9. The armature coils of a DC machine are not made of aluminium, because

(a) aluminium is costly (b) aluminium has low resistivity
(c) the thermal conductivity of aluminium low (d) the size of the machine will become more

10. Brushes of DC machines are usually made of

(a) hard copper (b) soft copper (c) carbon (d) all of above

11. Commutation in a DC generator causes

(a) DC changes to AC (b) DC changes to DC
(c) AC changes to DC (d) changes to high voltage DC

12. The yoke of a DC machine is made up of

(a) carbon (b) cast iron/cast steel (c) copper (d) bronze

13. The emf generated in the armature of DC generator is directly proportional to

(a) number of poles (b) speed of armature (c) flux/pole (d) all of the above

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14. Internal characteristic of a generator is plotted between
(a) Ia and (V+Ia Ra) (b) Ia and load voltage, V (c) Ia and Ea (d) none of these

15. Which type of DC generator is used to charge the batteries

(a) shunt generator (b) series generator
(c) long shunt compound generator (d) any of the above

16. If the number of opoles in a lap wound generator be doubled, then the generated emf will
(a) become half (b) become double (c) increase to four times (d) remain constant

17. Which of the following DC generator can build up without any residual magnetism in the
poles?
(a) compund generator (b) self-excited generator (c) series generator (d) shunt generator

18. The polarity of a DC generator can be reversed by

(a) increase field current (b) reversing the field current
(c) reversing field current as well as direction of rotation (d) any of the above

19. In DC generators, current to the extema 1 circuit from armature comes out from
(a) slip rings (b) commutator (c) bruch connection (d) none

20. The material for commutator is generally

(a) carbon (b) mica (c) copper (d) cast iron

21. While pole flux remains constant, if the speed of the generator is doubled, the emf generated
will be
(a) half (b) twice (c) nominal value (d) slightly less than nominal

22. The efficiency of a DC machine is maximum when

(a) variable losses equal to constant losses
(b) stray losses are equal to copper losses
(c) field copper losses are equal to armature copper losses
(d) magnetic losses are equal to windage loss

23. The critical resistance of a DC generator refers to the resistance of

(a) load (b) brushes (c) field (d) armature

24. A shunt generator supplies 9A of load current at 400V. If its armature resistance is 1 ohm and
field current is 1A, thent he generated emf will be
(a) 400 volts (b) 409 volts (c) 401 volts (d) none of these

25. In shunt motor armature current is equal to

(a) load current (b) the sum of motor current and field current
(c) the difference of motor current and field current (d) both motor and field current

26. What is the current drawn by a 220V Dc motor of armature resistance 0.5 ohm and back emf
200V?
(a) 4A (b) 20A (c) 40A (d) 110A

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27. On which of the following principle does the DC motor work?
(a) Corks-crew rule (b) right hand thumb rule
(c) Fleming’s left hand rule (d) Fleming’s right hand rule

28. Speed of the stator field of an induction motor is

(a) synchronous speed (b) any speed (c) less than synchronous speed (d) slip speed

29. Difference in speed between stator field and rotor is called

(a) Full load speed (b) no load speed (c) slip (d) regulation

30. Frequency of current in rotor

(a) supply frequency (b) less than supply frequency
(c) greater than supply frequency (d) slip times frequency

31. Shape of the torque slip curve is

(a) rectangular hyperbola (b) parabola (c) sine curve (d) cosine curve

32. Machine with negative slip is called

(a) induction motor (b) brake (c) induction generator (d) synchronous machine

33. When induction motor is at standstill

(a) slip is zero (b) slip is one (c) any slip (d) slip is infinity

34. When the motor runs at synchronous speed slip is

(a) one (b) infinity (c) zero (d) two

35. An induction motor works with

(a) DC only (b) AC only (c) AC and DC both (d) None

36. The two important parts of an induction motor are

(a) Stator and rotor (b) slip rings and brushes
(c) core and winding (d) shaft and ball bearings

37. The principle of operation of a 3-phase induction motor closely resembles to that of
(a) two winding transformer with its secondary short-circuited
(b) two winding transformer with its secondary open-circuited
(c) synchronous motor
(d) DC shunt motor

38. An electric motor gets over-heated. This may be due to

(a) over-loading (b) shorted stator winding (c) low or high voltage (d) any of the above

39. Synchronous speed of an induction motor can be increased by

(a) reducing mechanical friction (b) increasing number of poles
(c) increasing supply voltage (d) none

40. The operation of an induction motor is based on

(a) Lenz’s law (b) Ampere’s law (c) principle of mutual induction (d) none

41. Slip of the induction machine is 0.02 and the stator supply frequency is 50Hz. What will be
the frequency of the rotor induced emf?
(a) 10Hz (b) 50 Hz (c) 1 Hz (d) 25Hz
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42. The rotor frequency for a 3-phase 1000 rpm 6-pole induction motor with a slip of 0.04 is
_____ Hz.
(a) 8 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 2

43. The fequency generated in a 8-pole alternator that rotates at 750rpm is

(a) 30Hz (b) 40Hz (c) 50Hz (d) 60Hz

44. One of the advantages of distributing the winding in an alternator is to

(a) Reduce noise (b) save on copper (c) imporve voltage waveform (d) reduce harmonics

45. Salient pole type rotors as compared to cylindrical pole type are
(a) smaller in diamter and larger in axial length
(b) larger in diameter and smaller in axial length
(c) larger in diameter as well as axial length
(d) small in diameter as well as axial length

46. Which material is used for construction of stator core

(a) Copper (b) Copper alloy (c) Silicon steel (d) Mild steel

47. Which material is used for construction of slip rings?

(a) Silver (b) Copper alloy (c) Silicon steel (d) Mild steel

48. Which material is used for construction of rotor core.

(a) Copper (b) Copper alloy (c) Silicon steel (d) Mild steel

49. A capacitor start, capacitor run single phase induction motor is basically a
(a) ac series motor (b) dc series motor
(c) 2 phase induction motor (d) 3 phase induction motor

50. The starting torque of a capacitor start motor is

(a) Zero (b) low (c) same as rated torque (d) more than rated torque

51. The torque developed by a split phase motor is proportional to

(a) Sine of angle between Im and Is (b) Cosine of angle between Im and Is
(c) Main winding current, Im (d) Auxiliary winding current, Is

52. A capacitor start single phase induction motor is switched on the supply with its capacitor
replaced by an inductor of equivalent reactance value. It will
(a) not start (b) start and run (c) start and then stall (d) none

53. The starting capacitor of a single phase motor is

(a) Electrolytic capacitor (b) Ceramic capacitor (c) Paper capacitor (d) None

54. Which of the following is the most economical method of starting a single phase motor?
(a) Resistance start method (b) Inductance start method
(c) Capacitance start method (d) Split-phase method

55. In a split phase motor, the ratio of number of turns for starting winding to that for running
winding is
(a) 2.0 (b) more than 1 (c) 1.0 (d) less than 1

56. Out of the following motors, which will give the highest starting torque?
(a) Universal motor (b) Capacitor start motor
(c) Shaded pole motor (d) all have zero starting torque
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57. Which single phase AC motor will you select for record players and tape recorders?
(a) Hysteresis motor (b) Shaded pole motor
(c) Reluctance motor (d) Two value capacitor motor

58. A universal motor is one

(a) which can run on any value of supply voltage
(b) which has infinitely varying speed
(c) which can operate on AC as well as DC voltage
(d) which can work as single phase or three phase motor

59. The motor used in household refrigerators is

(a) DC series motor (b) DC shunt motor
(c) universal motor (d) single phase induction motor

60. Single phase motor are commercially manufactured up to

(a) 1 H.P (b) 2 H.P. (c) 5 H.P. (d) 10 H.P B

61. An ammeter is
(a) an absolute instrument (b) an indication instrument
(c) a recording instrument (d) a controlling instrument

62. The coil of a moving coil meter is wound on

(a) Aluminium frame (b) Iron frame
(c) Insulation frame (d) A semiconductor material

63. Moving coil instrument can be used for measurements at

(a) high frequencies (b) low frequencies (c) only DC (d) both DC and AC

64. The disadvantage of permanent magnet moving coil instruments is

(a) high power consumption (b) high cost relative to moving iron instruments
(c) low torque/weight ratio (d) absence of effective and efficient eddy current damping

65. In moving coil meters, damping is provided by

(a) Aluminium frame (b) Damping vane
(c) Damping vane in an air-tight chamber (d) None of these

66. Damping method used in moving coil instruments is

(a) air damping (b) fluid damping (c) spring damping (d) eddy current damping

67. In moving coil instruments, scale used is

(a) Nonlinear scale (b) Linear scale (c) Square scale (d) Logarithmic scale

68. Moving iron instruments

(a) are used for only dc measurements
(b) are used for only ac measurements
(c) are used for both dc and ac measurements
(d) belong to the polarized class of instruments

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69. A moving iron type instruments has
(a) Uniform scale
(b) Nonlinear scale
(c) its deflection directly proportional to current
(d) its deflection directly proportional to voltage

70. Moving iron meter can be used up to frequency of

(a) 50Hz (b) 200Hz (c) 500Hz (d) 125 Hz

71. Instrument used for ac measurement alone is

(a) permanent magnet type (b) hot wire type (c) electrostatic type (d) induction type

72. Which of the following meters cannot measure both dc as well as ac

(a) moving iron meter (b) thermocouple meter (c) dynamometer (d) induction type meter

73. The internal resistance of a voltmeter should be very high in order to have
(a) High voltage range (b) maximum loading effect
(c) minimum current through the meter (d) more current from the voltage source

74. The internal resistance of an ammeter should be very low in order to have
(a) High accuracy (b) high sensitivity
(c) maximum voltage drop across the meter (d) minimum effect on the current in the
circuit

75. A shunt in current meter is a resistance connected

(a) in series with the meter to increase its range
(b) across the meter to increase its range
(c) across the meter to decrease its range
(d) across the meter to reduce the voltage across it

76. The damping torque is prodcued by

(a) Spring control (b) gravity control
(c) air friction or eddy currents (d) utilizing thermal effects

77. The most efficient form of damping in an instrument is

(a) eddy current (b) fluid friction (c) air friction (d) none of these

78. Damping provides

(a) braking action on a meter pointer (b) good accuracy
(c) starting torque on the meter pointer (d) counter torque on deflection torque

79. To increase the range of a voltmeter

(a) a low resistance is connected in series
(b) a low resistance is connected in parallel
(c) a high resistance is connected in series
(d) a high resistance is connected in parallel

80. The shunt resistance in an ammeter is usually

(a) less than meter resistant (b) equal to meter resistance
(c) more than meter resistance (d) of any value

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81. Meter accurancy is determined by
(a) one-tenth of full scale deflection (b) one-fourth of full scale deflection
(c) half scale deflection (d) full scale deflection

82. In a moving coil ammeter, pole pieces are used to

(a) short circuit magnetic field (b) overcome damping
(c) yield accurate results (d) none of these

83. Shunt used in measuring instrument should have

(a) zero resistance (b) very low resistance (c) high resistance (d) very high resistance

84. The voltmeter of choice for measuring the emf of a 100V DC source would be
(a) 100V, 1mA (b) 100V, 2mA (c) 100V, 10kΩ/V (d) 100V, 100Ω/V

85. A DC voltmeter has a sensitivity of 1000Ω/V. When it measures half full scale in 100V range,
the current through the voltmeter is
(a) 100mA (b) 1mA (c) 0.5mA (d) 50mA

86. The deflecting torque of a moving iron instruments is

(a) I2 dL/dө (b) 1/2 I2 dL/dө (c) I dL/dө (d) 1/2 I dL/dө

87. Moving iron and PMMC instruments can be distinguished from each other by looking at
(a) Pointer (b) Terminal size (c) scale (d) none

88. The scale of a dynamometer type instrument marked in terms of rms value would be
(a) uniform throughout (b) non uniform crowded near full scale
(c) non uniform croweded at the beginning (d) non uniform crowded around mid scale

89. The developed torque of an electrostatic voltmeter is given by

(a) 1/2 I2 dL/dө (b) I2 dN/dө (c) 1/2 V2 dC/dө (d) 1/2 I dL/dө

90. In induction type instruments, angle between two fluxes should be

(a) 00 (b) 450 (c) 900 (d) 1800

91. A laboratory ac voltmeter is most likely to

(a) PMMC (b) moving iron (c) electro-dynamic (d) induction type

92. The instrument which is cheapest for dc measurement is

(a) PMMC (b) moving iron (c) electro-dynamic (d) induction type

93. Uniformity in the scale of an ammeter indicates that it is

(a) rectifier type (b) moving iron (c) electro-dynamic (d) PMMC type

94. Which of the following instrument has high power consumption?

(a) rectifier type (b) moving iron (c) hot-wire (d) PMMC type

95. Which of the following voltmeters has least power consumption?

(a) PMMC (b) electrostatics (c) electro-dynamic (d) induction type

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96. An SCR is considered to be a semi controlled device because
(a) It can be turned off but not on with a gate pulse.
(b) It conducts only during one half cycle of an alternating current wave.
(c) It can be turned on but not off with a gate pulse.
(d) It can be turned on only during one half cycle of an AC.

97. SCR will be turned off when anode current is

(a) < latching current but greater than holding current and gate signal is 0.
(b) less than holding current
(c) < latching current but greater than holding current and gate signal is present.
(d) both (a) and (b).

98. After proper turn on of thyristor

(a) gate signal is always present (b) gate signal must be removed
(c) gate signal should present but can be removed (d) noen of the above

99. Anode current in an SCR consists of

(a) holes only (b) electrons only (c) either electron or holes (d) both electron and holes

100. Power transistor are type of

(a) BJTs (b) MOSFETs (c) IGBTs (d) all of above

101. A thyristor can termed as

(a) AC switch (b) DC switch (c) both a and b (d) Square wave switch

102. Thyristor is nothing but a

(a) controlled transistor (b) controlled switch
(c) amplifier with higher gain (d) amplifier with large current gain

103. For a buck converter to reduce the conduction losses in diode

(a) A high on – resistance switch can be added in parallel
(b) A high on – resistance switch can be added in series
(c) A low on – resistance switch can be added in series
(d) A low on – resistance switch can be added in parallel

104. A step-down choppers can be used in

(a) electric traction (b) electric vehicles (c) machine tools (d) all of these

105. Choppers is a
(a) AC-DC converters (b) AC-AC converters (c) DC-AC converters (d) DC-DC converters

106. The main objective of static power converters is to

(a) obtain an DC output waveform from a DC power supply
(b) obtain an DC output waveform from a DC power supply
(c) obtain an AC output waveform from a DC power supply
(d) obtain an AC output waveform from a AC power supply

107. In DC-DC converters, if T is the chopping period, thent he output voltage can be controlled
by PWM by varying
(a) T keeping TON constant (b) TOFF keeping T constant
(c) TON keeping T constant (d) both (b) & (c)

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108. A fuse in a motor circuit provides protection against
(a) Short circuit (b) over load (c) open circuit (d) both short circuit and over load

109. The material used for the fuse wire should be of

(a) low resistivity and hgh melting point (b) high resistivity and high melting point
(c) high resistivity and low melting point (d) low resistivity and low melting point

110. A material best suited for the manufacture of the fuse is

(a) Silver (b) Copper (c) Aluminium (d) Zinc

111. The ground wire is coloured

(a) yellow (b) red (c) black (d) green

112. The neutral wire is coloured

(a) yellow (b) red (c) black (d) green

113. In equipment grounding, the enclosure is connected to ____ wire

(a) ground (b) neutral (c) both (d) none

114. The lagging power factor is due to ___ power drawn by the circuit
(a) active (b) reactive (c) apparent (d) none

115. The maximum value of power factor can be

(a) 0.5 (b) 0.8 (c) 1 (d) infinity

116. The most economical power factor for a consumer is generally

(a) 0.5 lagging (b) 0.8 lagging (c) unity (d) 0.95 lagging

117. In case of primary cell

(a) Chemical energy is converted into mechanical energy
(b) Chemical energy is converted into electrical energy
(c) Electrical energy is converted into mechanical energy
(d) Electrical energy is converted into chemical energy

118. Primary cell generally used for

(a) Wall clocks (b) aeroplanes (c) trains (d) automobiles

119. The positive plate of lead acid cell is

(a) Nickel (b) Iron (c) Lead (d) Zinc

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