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CompTIA
Exam Questions SY0-701
CompTIA Security+ Exam
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NEW QUESTION 1
Which of the following must be considered when designing a high-availability network? (Choose two).
A. Ease of recovery
B. Ability to patch
C. Physical isolation
D. Responsiveness
E. Attack surface
F. Extensible authentication
Answer: AE
Explanation:
A high-availability network is a network that is designed to minimize downtime and ensure continuous operation even in the event of a failure or disruption. A high-
availability network must consider the following factors12:
? Ease of recovery: This refers to the ability of the network to restore normal functionality quickly and efficiently after a failure or disruption. Ease of recovery can
be achieved by implementing backup and restore procedures, redundancy and failover mechanisms, fault tolerance and resilience, and disaster recovery plans.
? Attack surface: This refers to the amount of exposure and vulnerability of the network to potential threats and attacks. Attack surface can be reduced by
implementing security controls such as firewalls, encryption, authentication, access control, segmentation, and hardening.
The other options are not directly related to high-availability network design:
? Ability to patch: This refers to the process of updating and fixing software components to address security issues, bugs, or performance improvements. Ability to
patch is important for maintaining the security and functionality of the network, but it is not a specific factor for high-availability network design.
? Physical isolation: This refers to the separation of network components or devices from other networks or physical environments. Physical isolation can enhance
the security and performance of the network, but it can also reduce the availability and accessibility of the network resources.
? Responsiveness: This refers to the speed and quality of the network’s performance and service delivery. Responsiveness can be measured by metrics such as
latency, throughput, jitter, and packet loss. Responsiveness is important for ensuring customer satisfaction and user experience, but it is not a specific factor for
high-availability network design.
? Extensible authentication: This refers to the ability of the network to support multiple and flexible authentication methods and protocols. Extensible authentication
can improve the security and convenience of the network, but it is not a specific factor for high-availability network design.
References = 1: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 972: High Availability – CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 – 3.4, video by Professor
Messer.
NEW QUESTION 2
Which of the following methods to secure credit card data is best to use when a requirement is to see only the last four numbers on a credit card?
A. Encryption
B. Hashing
C. Masking
D. Tokenization
Answer: C
Explanation:
Masking is a method to secure credit card data that involves replacing some or all of the digits with symbols, such as asterisks, dashes, or Xs, while leaving some
of the original digits visible. Masking is best to use when a requirement is to see only the last four numbers on a credit card, as it can prevent unauthorized access
to the full card number, while still allowing identification and verification of the cardholder. Masking does not alter the original data, unlike encryption, hashing, or
tokenization, which use algorithms to transform the data into different formats.
References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 2: Compliance and Operational Security, page 721. CompTIA Security+
Certification Kit: Exam SY0-701, 7th Edition, Chapter 2: Compliance and Operational Security, page 722.
NEW QUESTION 3
Which of the following allows for the attribution of messages to individuals?
A. Adaptive identity
B. Non-repudiation
C. Authentication
D. Access logs
Answer: B
Explanation:
Non-repudiation is the ability to prove that a message or document was sent or signed by a particular person, and that the person cannot deny sending or signing
it.
Non-repudiation can be achieved by using cryptographic techniques, such as hashing and digital signatures, that can verify the authenticity and integrity of the
message or document. Non-repudiation can be useful for legal, financial, or contractual purposes, as it can provide evidence of the origin and content of the
message or document. References = Non- repudiation – CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 – 1.2, CompTIA Security+ SY0-301: 6.1 – Non-repudiation, CompTIA
Security+ (SY0-701) Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 1.2, page 2.
NEW QUESTION 4
Which of the following describes the process of concealing code or text inside a graphical
image?
A. Symmetric encryption
B. Hashing
C. Data masking
D. Steganography
Answer: D
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Explanation:
Steganography is the process of hiding information within another medium, such as an image, audio, video, or text file. The hidden information is not visible or
noticeable to the casual observer, and can only be extracted by using a specific technique or key. Steganography can be used for various purposes, such as
concealing secret messages, watermarking, or evading detection by antivirus software12
References:
1: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 5: Cryptography and PKI, page 233 2: CompTIA Security+ Certification Kit: Exam
SY0-701, 7th Edition, Chapter 5: Cryptography and PKI, page 235
NEW QUESTION 5
A company prevented direct access from the database administrators’ workstations to the network segment that contains database servers. Which of the following
should a database administrator use to access the database servers?
A. Jump server
B. RADIUS
C. HSM
D. Load balancer
Answer: A
Explanation:
A jump server is a device or virtual machine that acts as an intermediary between a user’s workstation and a remote network segment. A jump server can be
used to securely access servers or devices that are not directly reachable from the user’s workstation, such as database servers. A jump server can also provide
audit logs and access control for the remote connections. A jump server is also known as a jump box or a jump host12.
RADIUS is a protocol for authentication, authorization, and accounting of network access. RADIUS is not a device or a method to access remote servers, but
rather a way to verify the identity and permissions of users or devices that request network access34. HSM is an acronym for Hardware Security Module, which is
a physical device that provides secure storage and generation of cryptographic keys. HSMs are used to protect sensitive data and applications, such as digital
signatures, encryption, and authentication. HSMs are not used to access remote servers, but rather to enhance the security of the data and applications that reside
on them5 .
A load balancer is a device or software that distributes network traffic across multiple servers or devices, based on criteria such as availability, performance, or
capacity. A load balancer can improve the scalability, reliability, and efficiency of network services, such as web servers, application servers, or database servers.
A load balancer is not used to access remote servers, but rather to optimize the delivery of the services that run on them. References =
? How to access a remote server using a jump host
? Jump server
? RADIUS
? Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS)
? Hardware Security Module (HSM)
? [What is an HSM?]
? [Load balancing (computing)]
? [What is Load Balancing?]
NEW QUESTION 6
A client asked a security company to provide a document outlining the project, the cost, and the completion time frame. Which of the following documents should
the company provide to the client?
A. MSA
B. SLA
C. BPA
D. SOW
Answer: D
Explanation:
An ISOW is a document that outlines the project, the cost, and the completion time frame for a security company to provide a service to a client. ISOW stands for
Information Security Operations Work, and it is a type of contract that specifies the scope, deliverables, milestones, and payment terms of a security project. An
ISOW is usually used for one-time or short-term projects that have a clear and defined objective and outcome. For example, an ISOW can be used for a security
assessment, a penetration test, a security audit, or a security training.
The other options are not correct because they are not documents that outline the project, the cost, and the completion time frame for a security company to
provide a service to a client. A MSA is a master service agreement, which is a type of contract that establishes the general terms and conditions for a long-term or
ongoing relationship between a security company and a client. A MSA does not specify the details of each individual project, but rather sets the framework for
future projects that will be governed by separate statements of work (SOWs). A SLA is a service level agreement, which is a type of contract that defines the
quality and performance standards for a security service provided by a security company to a client. A SLA usually includes the metrics, targets, responsibilities,
and penalties for measuring and ensuring the service level. A BPA is a business partnership agreement, which is a type of contract that establishes the roles and
expectations for a strategic alliance between two or more security companies that collaborate to provide a joint service to a client. A BPA usually covers the
objectives, benefits, risks, and obligations
of the partnership. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 8: Governance, Risk, and Compliance, page 387. Professor Messer’s
CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, Section 8.2: Compliance and Controls, video: Contracts and Agreements (5:12).
NEW QUESTION 7
Which of the following provides the details about the terms of a test with a third-party penetration tester?
A. Rules of engagement
B. Supply chain analysis
C. Right to audit clause
D. Due diligence
Answer: A
Explanation:
Rules of engagement are the detailed guidelines and constraints regarding the execution of information security testing, such as penetration testing. They define
the scope, objectives, methods, and boundaries of the test, as well as the roles and responsibilities of the testers and the clients. Rules of engagement help to
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ensure that the test is conducted in a legal, ethical, and professional manner, and that the results are accurate and reliable. Rules of engagement typically include
the following elements:
? The type and scope of the test, such as black box, white box, or gray box, and the target systems, networks, applications, or data.
? The client contact details and the communication channels for reporting issues, incidents, or emergencies during the test.
? The testing team credentials and the authorized tools and techniques that they can use.
? The sensitive data handling and encryption requirements, such as how to store, transmit, or dispose of any data obtained during the test.
? The status meeting and report schedules, formats, and recipients, as well as the confidentiality and non-disclosure agreements for the test results.
? The timeline and duration of the test, and the hours of operation and testing windows.
? The professional and ethical behavior expectations for the testers, such as avoiding unnecessary damage, disruption, or disclosure of information.
Supply chain analysis, right to audit clause, and due diligence are not related to the terms of a test with a third-party penetration tester. Supply chain analysis is the
process of evaluating the security and risk posture of the suppliers and partners in a business network. Right to audit clause is a provision in a contract that gives
one party the right to audit another party to verify their compliance with the contract terms and conditions. Due diligence is the process of identifying and
addressing the cyber risks that a potential vendor or partner brings to an organization.
References = https://www.yeahhub.com/every-penetration-tester-you-should-know-about- this-rules-of-engagement/
https://bing.com/search?q=rules+of+engagement+penetration+testing
NEW QUESTION 8
An analyst is evaluating the implementation of Zero Trust principles within the data plane. Which of the following would be most relevant for the analyst to
evaluate?
A. Secured zones
B. Subject role
C. Adaptive identity
D. Threat scope reduction
Answer: D
Explanation:
The data plane, also known as the forwarding plane, is the part of the network that carries user traffic and data. It is responsible for moving packets from one
device to another based on the routing and switching decisions made by the control plane. The data plane is a critical component of the Zero Trust architecture, as
it is where most of the attacks and breaches occur. Therefore, implementing Zero Trust principles within the data plane can help to improve the security and
resilience of the network.
One of the key principles of Zero Trust is to assume breach and minimize the blast radius and segment access. This means that the network should be divided into
smaller and isolated segments or zones, each with its own security policies and controls. This way, if one segment is compromised, the attacker cannot easily
move laterally to other segments and access more resources or data. This principle is also known as threat scope reduction, as it reduces the scope and impact of
a potential threat.
The other options are not as relevant for the data plane as threat scope reduction. Secured zones are a concept related to the control plane, which is the part of
the network that makes routing and switching decisions. Subject role is a concept related to the identity plane, which is the part of the network that authenticates
and authorizes users and devices. Adaptive identity is a concept related to the policy plane, which is the part of the network that defines and enforces the security
policies and rules.
References = https://bing.com/search?q=Zero+Trust+data+plane https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/security/zero-trust/deploy/data
NEW QUESTION 9
Which of the following practices would be best to prevent an insider from introducing malicious code into a company's development process?
A. Code scanning for vulnerabilities
B. Open-source component usage
C. Quality assurance testing
D. Peer review and approval
Answer: D
Explanation:
Peer review and approval is a practice that involves having other developers or experts review the code before it is deployed or released. Peer review and
approval can help detect and prevent malicious code, errors, bugs, vulnerabilities, and poor quality in the development process. Peer review and approval can also
enforce coding standards, best practices, and compliance requirements. Peer review and approval can be done manually or with the help of tools, such as code
analysis, code review, and code
signing. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 11: Secure Application Development, page 543 2
NEW QUESTION 10
A security administrator needs a method to secure data in an environment that includes some form of checks so that the administrator can track any changes.
Which of the following should the administrator set up to achieve this goal?
A. SPF
B. GPO
C. NAC
D. FIM
Answer: D
Explanation:
FIM stands for File Integrity Monitoring, which is a method to secure data by detecting any changes or modifications to files, directories, or registry keys. FIM can
help a security administrator track any unauthorized or malicious changes to the data, as well as verify the integrity and compliance of the data. FIM can also alert
the administrator of any potential breaches or incidents involving the data.
Some of the benefits of FIM are:
? It can prevent data tampering and corruption by verifying the checksums or hashes of the files.
? It can identify the source and time of the changes by logging the user and system actions.
? It can enforce security policies and standards by comparing the current state of the data with the baseline or expected state.
? It can support forensic analysis and incident response by providing evidence and audit trails of the changes.
References:
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? CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 5: Technologies and Tools, Section 5.3: Security Tools, p. 209-210
? CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 2: Technologies and Tools, Objective 2.4: Given a scenario, analyze and interpret output
from security technologies, Sub-objective: File integrity monitor, p. 12
NEW QUESTION 10
Which of the following is a primary security concern for a company setting up a BYOD program?
A. End of life
B. Buffer overflow
C. VM escape
D. Jailbreaking
Answer: D
Explanation:
Jailbreaking is a primary security concern for a company setting up a BYOD (Bring Your Own Device) program. Jailbreaking is the process of removing the
manufacturer’s or the carrier’s restrictions on a device, such as a smartphone or a tablet, to gain root access and install unauthorized or custom software.
Jailbreaking can compromise the security of the device and the data stored on it, as well as expose it to malware, viruses, or hacking. Jailbreaking can also violate
the warranty and the terms of service of the device, and make it incompatible with the company’s security policies and standards. Therefore, a company setting up
a BYOD program should prohibit jailbreaking and enforce device compliance and encryption. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500
Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 2, page 76. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 2.4, page 11.
NEW QUESTION 13
A hacker gained access to a system via a phishing attempt that was a direct result of a user clicking a suspicious link. The link laterally deployed ransomware,
which laid dormant for multiple weeks, across the network. Which of the following would have mitigated the spread?
A. IPS
B. IDS
C. WAF
D. UAT
Answer: A
Explanation:
IPS stands for intrusion prevention system, which is a network security device that monitors and blocks malicious traffic in real time. IPS is different from IDS,
which only detects and alerts on malicious traffic, but does not block it. IPS would have mitigated the spread of ransomware by preventing the hacker from
accessing the system via the phishing link, or by stopping the ransomware from communicating with its command and control server or encrypting the files.
NEW QUESTION 18
A company is concerned about weather events causing damage to the server room and downtime. Which of the following should the company consider?
A. Clustering servers
B. Geographic dispersion
C. Load balancers
D. Off-site backups
Answer: B
Explanation:
Geographic dispersion is a strategy that involves distributing the servers or data centers across different geographic locations. Geographic dispersion can help the
company to mitigate the risk of weather events causing damage to the server room and downtime, as well as improve the availability, performance, and resilience
of the network. Geographic dispersion can also enhance the disaster recovery and business continuity capabilities of the company, as it can provide backup and
failover options in case of a regional outage or disruption12.
The other options are not the best ways to address the company’s concern:
? Clustering servers: This is a technique that involves grouping multiple servers together to act as a single system. Clustering servers can help to improve the
performance, scalability, and fault tolerance of the network, but it does not protect the servers from physical damage or downtime caused by weather events,
especially if the servers are located in the same room or building3.
? Load balancers: These are devices or software that distribute the network traffic or workload among multiple servers or resources. Load balancers can help to
optimize the utilization, efficiency, and reliability of the network, but they do not prevent the servers from being damaged or disrupted by weather events, especially
if the servers are located in the same room or building4.
? Off-site backups: These are copies of data or files that are stored in a different location than the original source. Off-site backups can help to protect the data
from being lost or corrupted by weather events, but they do not prevent the servers from being damaged or disrupted by weather events, nor do they ensure the
availability or continuity of the network services.
References = 1: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 972: High Availability – CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 – 3.4, video by Professor
Messer3: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 984: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 99. : CompTIA Security+
SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 100.
NEW QUESTION 23
An employee clicked a link in an email from a payment website that asked the employee to update contact information. The employee entered the log-in
information but received a “page not found” error message. Which of the following types of social engineering attacks occurred?
A. Brand impersonation
B. Pretexting
C. Typosquatting
D. Phishing
Answer: D
Explanation:
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Phishing is a type of social engineering attack that involves sending fraudulent emails that appear to be from legitimate sources, such as payment websites,
banks, or other trusted entities. The goal of phishing is to trick the recipients into clicking on malicious links, opening malicious attachments, or providing sensitive
information, such as log-in credentials, personal data, or financial details. In this scenario, the employee received an email from a payment website that asked the
employee to update contact information. The email contained a link that directed the employee to a fake website that mimicked the appearance of the real one.
The employee entered the log-in information, but received a “page not found” error message. This indicates that the employee fell victim to a phishing attack, and
the attacker may have captured the employee’s credentials for the payment website. References = Other Social Engineering Attacks – CompTIA Security+
SY0-701 – 2.2, CompTIA Security+: Social Engineering Techniques & Other Attack … - NICCS, [CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test
Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition]
NEW QUESTION 26
Which of the following exercises should an organization use to improve its incident response process?
A. Tabletop
B. Replication
C. Failover
D. Recovery
Answer: A
Explanation:
A tabletop exercise is a simulated scenario that tests the organization’s incident response plan and procedures. It involves key stakeholders and decision-makers
who discuss their roles and actions in response to a hypothetical incident. It can help identify gaps, weaknesses, and improvement areas in the incident response
process. It can also enhance communication, coordination, and collaboration among the
participants. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 525 1
NEW QUESTION 30
A bank insists all of its vendors must prevent data loss on stolen laptops. Which of the following strategies is the bank requiring?
A. Encryption at rest
B. Masking
C. Data classification
D. Permission restrictions
Answer: A
Explanation:
Encryption at rest is a strategy that protects data stored on a device, such as a laptop, by converting it into an unreadable format that can only be accessed with a
decryption key or password. Encryption at rest can prevent data loss on stolen laptops by preventing unauthorized access to the data, even if the device is
physically compromised.
Encryption at rest can also help comply with data privacy regulations and standards that require data protection. Masking, data classification, and permission
restrictions are other strategies that can help protect data, but they may not be sufficient or applicable for data stored on laptops. Masking is a technique that
obscures sensitive data elements, such as credit card numbers, with random characters or symbols, but it is usually used for data in transit or in use, not at rest.
Data classification is a process that assigns labels to data based on its sensitivity and business impact, but it does not protect the data itself. Permission
restrictions are rules that define who can access, modify, or delete data, but they may not prevent unauthorized access if the laptop is stolen and the security
controls are bypassed. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 17-18, 372-373
NEW QUESTION 35
A systems administrator works for a local hospital and needs to ensure patient data is protected and secure. Which of the following data classifications should be
used to secure patient data?
A. Private
B. Critical
C. Sensitive
D. Public
Answer: C
Explanation:
Data classification is a process of categorizing data based on its level of sensitivity, value, and impact to the organization if compromised. Data classification helps
to determine the appropriate security controls and policies to protect the data from unauthorized access, disclosure, or modification. Different organizations may
use different data classification schemes, but a common one is the four-tier model, which consists of the following categories: public, private, sensitive, and critical.
Public data is data that is intended for public access and disclosure, and has no impact to the organization if compromised. Examples of public data include
marketing materials, press releases, and public web pages.
Private data is data that is intended for internal use only, and has a low to moderate impact to the organization if compromised. Examples of private data include
employee records, financial reports, and internal policies.
Sensitive data is data that is intended for authorized use only, and has a high impact to the organization if compromised. Examples of sensitive data include
personal information, health records, and intellectual property.
Critical data is data that is essential for the organization’s operations and survival, and has a severe impact to the organization if compromised. Examples of
critical data include encryption keys, disaster recovery plans, and system backups.
Patient data is a type of sensitive data, as it contains personal and health information that is protected by law and ethical standards. Patient data should be used
only by authorized personnel for legitimate purposes, and should be secured from unauthorized access, disclosure, or modification. Therefore, the systems
administrator should use the sensitive data classification to secure patient data.
References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 90-91; Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, video 5.5 -
Data Classifications, 0:00 - 4:30.
NEW QUESTION 40
Which of the following must be considered when designing a high-availability network? (Select two).
A. Ease of recovery
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B. Ability to patch
C. Physical isolation
D. Responsiveness
E. Attack surface
F. Extensible authentication
Answer: AE
Explanation:
A high-availability network is a network that is designed to minimize downtime and ensure continuous operation of critical services and applications. To achieve
this goal, a high-availability network must consider two important factors: ease of recovery and attack surface.
Ease of recovery refers to the ability of a network to quickly restore normal functionality after a failure, disruption, or disaster. A high-availability network should
have mechanisms such as redundancy, failover, backup, and restore to ensure that any single point of failure does not cause a complete network outage. A high-
availability network should also have procedures and policies for incident response, disaster recovery, and business continuity to minimize the impact of any
network issue on the organization’s operations and reputation. Attack surface refers to the exposure of a network to potential threats and vulnerabilities. A high-
availability network should have measures such as encryption, authentication, authorization, firewall, intrusion detection and prevention, and patch management to
protect the network from unauthorized access, data breaches, malware, denial-of-service attacks, and other cyberattacks. A high-availability network should also
have processes and tools for risk assessment, threat intelligence, vulnerability scanning, and penetration testing to identify and mitigate any weaknesses or gaps
in the network security. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 4:
Architecture and Design, pages 164-1651. CompTIA Security+ Certification Kit: Exam SY0- 701, 7th Edition, Chapter 4: Architecture and Design, pages 164-1652.
NEW QUESTION 44
A company is required to use certified hardware when building networks. Which of the following best addresses the risks associated with procuring counterfeit
hardware?
A. A thorough analysis of the supply chain
B. A legally enforceable corporate acquisition policy
C. A right to audit clause in vendor contracts and SOWs
D. An in-depth penetration test of all suppliers and vendors
Answer: A
Explanation:
Counterfeit hardware is hardware that is built or modified without the authorization of the original equipment manufacturer (OEM). It can pose serious risks to
network quality, performance, safety, and reliability12. Counterfeit hardware can also contain malicious components that can compromise the security of the
network and the data that flows through it3. To address the risks associated with procuring counterfeit hardware, a company should conduct a thorough analysis of
the supply chain, which is the network of entities involved in the production, distribution, and delivery of the hardware. By analyzing the supply chain, the company
can verify the origin, authenticity, and integrity of the hardware, and identify any potential sources of counterfeit or tampered products. A thorough analysis of the
supply chain can include the following steps:
? Establishing a trusted relationship with the OEM and authorized resellers
? Requesting documentation and certification of the hardware from the OEM or authorized resellers
? Inspecting the hardware for any signs of tampering, such as mismatched labels, serial numbers, or components
? Testing the hardware for functionality, performance, and security
? Implementing a tracking system to monitor the hardware throughout its lifecycle
? Reporting any suspicious or counterfeit hardware to the OEM and law enforcement agencies References = 1: Identify Counterfeit and Pirated Products -
Cisco, 2: What Is Hardware Security? Definition, Threats, and Best Practices, 3: Beware of Counterfeit Network Equipment - TechNewsWorld, : Counterfeit
Hardware: The Threat and How to Avoid It
NEW QUESTION 47
A company needs to provide administrative access to internal resources while minimizing the traffic allowed through the security boundary. Which of the following
methods is most secure?
A. Implementing a bastion host
B. Deploying a perimeter network
C. Installing a WAF
D. Utilizing single sign-on
Answer: A
Explanation:
A bastion host is a special-purpose server that is designed to withstand attacks and provide secure access to internal resources. A bastion host is usually placed
on the edge of a network, acting as a gateway or proxy to the internal network. A bastion host can be configured to allow only certain types of traffic, such as SSH
or HTTP, and block all other traffic. A bastion host can also run security software such as firewalls, intrusion detection systems, and antivirus programs to monitor
and filter incoming and outgoing traffic. A bastion host can provide administrative access to internal resources by requiring strong authentication and encryption,
and by logging all activities for auditing purposes12.
A bastion host is the most secure method among the given options because it minimizes the traffic allowed through the security boundary and provides a single
point of control and defense. A bastion host can also isolate the internal network from direct exposure to the internet or other untrusted networks, reducing the
attack surface and the risk of compromise3.
Deploying a perimeter network is not the correct answer, because a perimeter network is a network segment that separates the internal network from the external
network. A perimeter network usually hosts public-facing services such as web servers, email servers, or DNS servers that need to be accessible from the internet.
A perimeter network does not provide administrative access to internal resources, but rather protects them from unauthorized access. A perimeter network can
also increase the complexity and cost of network management and security4.
Installing a WAF is not the correct answer, because a WAF is a security tool that protects web applications from common web-based attacks by monitoring,
filtering, and blocking HTTP traffic. A WAF can prevent attacks such as cross-site scripting, SQL injection, or file inclusion, among others. A WAF does not provide
administrative access to internal resources, but rather protects them from web application vulnerabilities. A WAF is also not a comprehensive solution for network
security, as it only operates at the application layer and does not protect against other types of attacks or threats5.
Utilizing single sign-on is not the correct answer, because single sign-on is a method of authentication that allows users to access multiple sites, services, or
applications with one username and password. Single sign-on can simplify the sign-in process for users and reduce the number of passwords they have to
remember and manage. Single sign-on does not provide administrative access to internal resources, but rather enables access to various resources that the user
is authorized to use. Single sign-on can also introduce security risks if the user’s credentials are compromised or if the single sign-on provider is
breached6. References = 1: Bastion host - Wikipedia, 2: 14 Best Practices to Secure SSH Bastion Host - goteleport.com, 3: The Importance Of Bastion Hosts In
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Network
Security, 4: What is the network perimeter? | Cloudflare, 5: What is a WAF? | Web Application Firewall explained, 6: [What is single sign-on (SSO)? - Definition
from WhatIs.com]
NEW QUESTION 48
Which of the following has been implemented when a host-based firewall on a legacy Linux system allows connections from only specific internal IP addresses?
A. Compensating control
B. Network segmentation
C. Transfer of risk
D. SNMP traps
Answer: A
Explanation:
A compensating control is a security measure that is implemented to mitigate the risk of a vulnerability or a weakness that cannot be resolved by the primary
control. A compensating control does not prevent or eliminate the vulnerability or weakness, but it can reduce the likelihood or impact of an attack. A host-based
firewall on a legacy Linux system that allows connections from only specific internal IP addresses is an example of a compensating control, as it can limit the
exposure of the system to potential threats from external or unauthorized sources. A host-based firewall is a software application that monitors and filters the
incoming and outgoing network traffic on a single host, based on a set of rules or policies. A legacy Linux system is an older version of the Linux operating system
that may not be compatible with the latest security updates or patches, and may have known vulnerabilities or weaknesses that could be exploited by attackers.
References = Security Controls – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 5.1, Security Controls – CompTIA Security+ SY0-501 – 5.7, CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with
over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 5, page 240. CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 5.1,
page 18.
NEW QUESTION 49
Which of the following involves an attempt to take advantage of database misconfigurations?
A. Buffer overflow
B. SQL injection
C. VM escape
D. Memory injection
Answer: B
Explanation:
SQL injection is a type of attack that exploits a database misconfiguration or a flaw in the application code that interacts with the database. An attacker can inject
malicious SQL statements into the user input fields or the URL parameters that are sent to the database server. These statements can then execute unauthorized
commands, such as reading, modifying, deleting, or creating data, or even taking over the database server. SQL injection can compromise the confidentiality,
integrity, and availability of the data and the system. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 215 1
NEW QUESTION 52
A technician wants to improve the situational and environmental awareness of existing users as they transition from remote to in-office work. Which of the following
is the best option?
A. Send out periodic security reminders.
B. Update the content of new hire documentation.
C. Modify the content of recurring trainin
D. D Implement a phishing campaign
Answer: C
Explanation:
Recurring training is a type of security awareness training that is conducted periodically to refresh and update the knowledge and skills of the users. Recurring
training can help improve the situational and environmental awareness of existing users as they transition from remote to in-office work, as it can cover the latest
threats, best practices, and policies that are relevant to their work environment. Modifying the content of recurring training can ensure that the users are aware of
the current security landscape and the expectations of their roles. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam
SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 5, page 232. CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) Certification Exam Objectives, Domain 5.1, page 18.
NEW QUESTION 54
A company requires hard drives to be securely wiped before sending decommissioned systems to recycling. Which of the following best describes this policy?
A. Enumeration
B. Sanitization
C. Destruction
D. Inventory
Answer: B
Explanation:
Sanitization is the process of removing sensitive data from a storage device or a system before it is disposed of or reused. Sanitization can be done by using
software tools or hardware devices that overwrite the data with random patterns or zeros, making it unrecoverable. Sanitization is different from destruction, which
is the physical damage of the storage device to render it unusable. Sanitization is also different from enumeration, which is the identification of network resources
or devices, and inventory, which is the tracking of assets and their locations. The policy of securely wiping hard drives before sending decommissioned systems to
recycling is an example of sanitization, as it ensures that no confidential data can be retrieved from the recycled devices. References = Secure Data Destruction –
SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 2.7, video at 1:00; CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 387.
NEW QUESTION 59
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A newly appointed board member with cybersecurity knowledge wants the board of directors to receive a quarterly report detailing the number of incidents that
impacted the organization. The systems administrator is creating a way to present the data to the board of directors. Which of the following should the systems
administrator use?
A. Packet captures
B. Vulnerability scans
C. Metadata
D. Dashboard
Answer: D
Explanation:
A dashboard is a graphical user interface that provides a visual representation of key performance indicators, metrics, and trends related to security events and
incidents. A dashboard can help the board of directors to understand the number and impact of incidents that affected the organization in a given period, as well as
the status and effectiveness of the security controls and processes. A dashboard can also allow the board of directors to drill down into specific details or filter the
data by various criteria12.
A packet capture is a method of capturing and analyzing the network traffic that passes through a device or a network segment. A packet capture can provide
detailed information about the source, destination, protocol, and content of each packet, but it is not a suitable way to present a summary of incidents to the board
of directors13.
A vulnerability scan is a process of identifying and assessing the weaknesses and exposures in a system or a network that could be exploited by attackers. A
vulnerability scan can help the organization to prioritize and remediate the risks and improve the security posture, but it is not a relevant way to report the number
of incidents that occurred in a quarter14.
Metadata is data that describes other data, such as its format, origin, structure, or context. Metadata can provide useful information about the characteristics and
properties of data, but it is not a meaningful way to communicate the impact and frequency of incidents to the board of directors. References = 1: CompTIA
Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 3722: SIEM Dashboards – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 4.3, video by Professor Messer3: CompTIA Security+
SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 3464: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 362. : CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification
Study Guide, page 97.
NEW QUESTION 64
A security analyst scans a company's public network and discovers a host is running a remote desktop that can be used to access the production network. Which
of the following changes should the security analyst recommend?
A. Changing the remote desktop port to a non-standard number
B. Setting up a VPN and placing the jump server inside the firewall
C. Using a proxy for web connections from the remote desktop server
D. Connecting the remote server to the domain and increasing the password length
Answer: B
Explanation:
A VPN is a virtual private network that creates a secure tunnel between two or more devices over a public network. A VPN can encrypt and authenticate the data,
as well as hide the IP addresses and locations of the devices. A jump server is a server that acts as an intermediary between a user and a target server, such as a
production server. A jump server can provide an additional layer of security and access control, as well as logging and auditing capabilities. A firewall is a device or
software that filters and blocks unwanted network traffic based on predefined rules. A firewall can protect the internal network from external threats and limit the
exposure of sensitive services and ports. A security analyst should recommend setting up a VPN and placing the jump server inside the firewall to improve the
security of the remote desktop access to the production network. This way, the remote desktop service will not be exposed to the public network, and only
authorized users with VPN credentials can access the jump server and then the production
server. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 8: Secure Protocols and Services, page 382-383 1; Chapter 9: Network
Security, page 441-442 1
NEW QUESTION 69
A systems administrator receives the following alert from a file integrity monitoring tool: The hash of the cmd.exe file has changed.
The systems administrator checks the OS logs and notices that no patches were applied in the last two months. Which of the following most likely occurred?
A. The end user changed the file permissions.
B. A cryptographic collision was detected.
C. A snapshot of the file system was taken.
D. A rootkit was deployed.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A rootkit is a type of malware that modifies or replaces system files or processes to hide its presence and activity. A rootkit can change the hash of the cmd.exe
file, which is a command-line interpreter for Windows systems, to avoid detection by antivirus or file integrity monitoring tools. A rootkit can also grant the attacker
remote access and control over the infected system, as well as perform malicious actions such as stealing data, installing backdoors, or launching attacks on other
systems. A rootkit is one of the most difficult types of malware to remove, as it can persist even after rebooting or
reinstalling the OS. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide with over 500 Practice
Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 4, page 147. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 1.2, page 9.
NEW QUESTION 71
During a security incident, the security operations team identified sustained network traffic from a malicious IP address: 10.1.4.9. A security analyst is creating an
inbound firewall rule to block the IP address from accessing the organization’s network. Which of the following fulfills this request?
A. access-list inbound deny ig source 0.0.0.0/0 destination 10.1.4.9/32
B. access-list inbound deny ig source 10.1.4.9/32 destination 0.0.0.0/0
C. access-list inbound permit ig source 10.1.4.9/32 destination 0.0.0.0/0
D. access-list inbound permit ig source 0.0.0.0/0 destination 10.1.4.9/32
Answer: B
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Explanation:
A firewall rule is a set of criteria that determines whether to allow or deny a packet to pass through the firewall. A firewall rule consists of several elements, such
as the action, the protocol, the source address, the destination address, and the port number. The syntax of a firewall rule may vary depending on the type and
vendor of the firewall, but the basic logic is the same. In this question, the security analyst is creating an inbound firewall rule to block the IP address 10.1.4.9 from
accessing the organization’s network. This means that the action should be deny, the protocol should be any (or ig for IP), the source address should be
10.1.4.9/32 (which means a single IP address), the destination address should be 0.0.0.0/0 (which means any IP address), and the port number should be any.
Therefore, the correct firewall rule is:
access-list inbound deny ig source 10.1.4.9/32 destination 0.0.0.0/0
This rule will match any packet that has the source IP address of 10.1.4.9 and drop it. The other options are incorrect because they either have the wrong action,
the wrong source address, or the wrong destination address. For example, option A has the source and destination addresses reversed, which means that it will
block any packet that has the destination IP address of 10.1.4.9, which is not the intended goal. Option C has the wrong action, which is permit, which means that
it will allow the packet to pass through the firewall, which is also not the intended goal. Option D has the same problem as option A, with the source and destination
addresses reversed.
References = Firewall Rules – CompTIA Security+ SY0-401: 1.2, Firewalls – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 3.3, Firewalls – CompTIA Security+ SY0-501,
Understanding Firewall Rules – CompTIA Network+ N10-005: 5.5, Configuring Windows Firewall – CompTIA A+ 220-1102 – 1.6.
NEW QUESTION 72
A security analyst and the management team are reviewing the organizational performance of a recent phishing campaign. The user click-through rate exceeded
the acceptable risk threshold, and the management team wants to reduce the impact when a user clicks on a link in a phishing message. Which of the following
should the analyst do?
A. Place posters around the office to raise awareness of common phishing activities.
B. Implement email security filters to prevent phishing emails from being delivered
C. Update the EDR policies to block automatic execution of downloaded programs.
D. Create additional training for users to recognize the signs of phishing attempts.
Answer: C
Explanation:
An endpoint detection and response (EDR) system is a security tool that monitors and analyzes the activities and behaviors of endpoints, such as computers,
laptops, mobile devices, and servers. An EDR system can detect, prevent, and respond to various types of threats, such as malware, ransomware, phishing, and
advanced persistent threats (APTs). One of the features of an EDR system is to block the automatic execution of downloaded programs, which can prevent
malicious code from running on the endpoint when a user clicks on a link in a phishing message. This can reduce the impact of a phishing attack and protect the
endpoint from compromise. Updating the EDR policies to block automatic execution of downloaded programs is a technical control that can mitigate the risk of
phishing, regardless of the user’s awareness or behavior. Therefore, this is the best answer among the given options.
The other options are not as effective as updating the EDR policies, because they rely on administrative or physical controls that may not be sufficient to prevent or
stop a phishing attack. Placing posters around the office to raise awareness of common phishing activities is a physical control that can increase the user’s
knowledge of phishing, but it may not change their behavior or prevent them from clicking on a link in a phishing message. Implementing email security filters to
prevent phishing emails from being delivered is an administrative control that can reduce the exposure to phishing, but it may not be able to block all phishing
emails, especially if they are crafted to bypass the filters. Creating additional training for users to recognize the signs of phishing attempts is an administrative
control that can improve the user’s skills of phishing detection, but it may not guarantee that they will always be vigilant or cautious when receiving an email.
Therefore, these options are not the best answer for this question. References = Endpoint Detection and Response – CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 – 2.2, video at
5:30; CompTIA Security+ SY0- 701 Certification Study Guide, page 163.
NEW QUESTION 74
Which of the following is the most likely outcome if a large bank fails an internal PCI DSS compliance assessment?
A. Fines
B. Audit findings
C. Sanctions
D. Reputation damage
Answer: A
Explanation:
PCI DSS is the Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard, which is a set of security requirements for organizations that store, process, or transmit cardholder
data. PCI DSS aims to protect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of cardholder data and prevent fraud, identity theft, and data breaches. PCI DSS is
enforced by the payment card brands, such as Visa, Mastercard, American Express, Discover, and JCB, and applies to all entities involved in the payment card
ecosystem, such as merchants, acquirers, issuers, processors, service providers, and payment applications.
If a large bank fails an internal PCI DSS compliance assessment, the most likely outcome is that the bank will face fines from the payment card brands. An internal
PCI DSS compliance assessment is a self-assessment that the bank performs to evaluate its own compliance with the PCI DSS requirements. The bank must
submit the results of the internal assessment to the payment card brands or their designated agents, such as acquirers or qualified security assessors (QSAs). If
the internal assessment reveals that the bank is not compliant with the PCI DSS requirements, the payment card brands may impose fines on the bank as a
penalty for violating the PCI DSS contract. The amount and frequency of the fines may vary depending on the severity and duration of the non- compliance, the
number and type of cardholder data compromised, and the level of cooperation and remediation from the bank. The fines can range from thousands to millions of
dollars per month, and can increase over time if the non-compliance is not resolved.
The other options are not correct because they are not the most likely outcomes if a large bank fails an internal PCI DSS compliance assessment. B. Audit
findings. Audit findings are the results of an external PCI DSS compliance assessment that is performed by a QSA or an approved scanning vendor (ASV). An
external assessment is required for certain entities that handle a large volume of cardholder data or have a history of non-compliance. An external assessment
may also be triggered by a security incident or a request from the payment card brands. Audit findings may reveal the gaps and weaknesses in the bank’s security
controls and recommend corrective actions to achieve compliance. However, audit findings are not the outcome of an internal assessment, which is performed by
the bank itself. C. Sanctions. Sanctions are the measures that the payment card brands may take against the bank if the bank fails to pay the fines or comply with
the PCI DSS requirements. Sanctions may include increasing the fines, suspending or terminating the bank’s ability to accept or process payment cards, or
revoking the bank’s PCI DSS certification. Sanctions are not the immediate outcome of an internal assessment, but rather the possible
consequence of prolonged or repeated non-compliance. D. Reputation damage. Reputation damage is the loss of trust and credibility that the bank may suffer
from its customers, partners, regulators, and the public if the bank fails an internal PCI DSS compliance assessment. Reputation damage may affect the bank’s
brand image, customer loyalty, market share, and profitability. Reputation damage is not a direct outcome of an internal assessment, but rather a potential risk that
the bank may face if the non-compliance is exposed or exploited by malicious actors. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide (SY0-701), Chapter 8:
Governance, Risk, and Compliance, page 388. Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, Section 8.2: Compliance and Controls, video:
PCI DSS (5:12). PCI Security Standards Council, PCI DSS Quick Reference Guide, page 4. PCI Security Standards Council, PCI DSS FAQs, question 8. PCI
Security Standards Council, PCI DSS FAQs, question 9. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 10. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI
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DSS FAQs, question 11. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 12. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 13. [PCI
Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 14. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 15. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI
DSS FAQs, question 16. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 17. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 18. [PCI
Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 19. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 20. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI
DSS FAQs, question 21. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 22. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 23. [PCI
Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 24. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 25. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI
DSS FAQs, question 26. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 27. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 28. [PCI
Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 29. [PCI Security Standards Council], PCI DSS FAQs, question 30. [PCI Security Standards Council]
NEW QUESTION 78
An attacker posing as the Chief Executive Officer calls an employee and instructs the employee to buy gift cards. Which of the following techniques is the attacker
using?
A. Smishing
B. Disinformation
C. Impersonating
D. Whaling
Answer: D
Explanation:
Whaling is a type of phishing attack that targets high-profile individuals, such as executives, celebrities, or politicians. The attacker impersonates someone with
authority or influence and tries to trick the victim into performing an action, such as transferring money, revealing sensitive information, or clicking on a malicious
link. Whaling is also called CEO fraud or business email compromise2.
References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 3, page 97.
NEW QUESTION 83
Which of the following automation use cases would best enhance the security posture of an organization by rapidly updating permissions when employees leave a
company?
A. Provisioning resources
B. Disabling access
C. Reviewing change approvals
D. Escalating permission requests
Answer: B
Explanation:
Disabling access is an automation use case that would best enhance the security posture of an organization by rapidly updating permissions when employees
leave a company. Disabling access is the process of revoking or suspending the access rights of a user account, such as login credentials, email, VPN, cloud
services, etc. Disabling access can prevent unauthorized or malicious use of the account by former employees or attackers who may have compromised the
account. Disabling access can also reduce the attack surface and the risk of data breaches or leaks. Disabling access can be automated by using scripts, tools, or
workflows that can trigger the action based on predefined events, such as employee termination, resignation, or transfer. Automation can ensure that the access is
disabled in a timely, consistent, and efficient manner, without relying on manual intervention or human error.
References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 5: Identity and Access Management, page 2131. CompTIA Security+
Certification Kit: Exam SY0-701, 7th Edition, Chapter 5: Identity and Access Management, page 2132.
NEW QUESTION 87
A security administrator would like to protect data on employees’ laptops. Which of the following encryption techniques should the security administrator use?
A. Partition
B. Asymmetric
C. Full disk
D. Database
Answer: C
Explanation:
Full disk encryption (FDE) is a technique that encrypts all the data on a hard drive, including the operating system, applications, and files. FDE protects the data
from unauthorized access in case the laptop is lost, stolen, or disposed of without proper sanitization. FDE requires the user to enter a password, a PIN, a smart
card, or a biometric factor to unlock the drive and boot the system. FDE can be implemented by using software solutions, such as BitLocker, FileVault, or
VeraCrypt, or by using hardware solutions, such as self-encrypting drives (SEDs) or Trusted Platform Modules (TPMs). FDE is a recommended encryption
technique for laptops and other mobile devices that store sensitive data.
Partition encryption is a technique that encrypts only a specific partition or volume on a hard drive, leaving the rest of the drive unencrypted. Partition encryption is
less secure than FDE, as it does not protect the entire drive and may leave traces of data on unencrypted areas. Partition encryption is also less convenient than
FDE, as it requires the user to mount and unmount the encrypted partition manually.
Asymmetric encryption is a technique that uses a pair of keys, one public and one private, to encrypt and decrypt data. Asymmetric encryption is mainly used for
securing communication, such as email, web, or VPN, rather than for encrypting data at rest. Asymmetric encryption is also slower and more computationally
intensive than symmetric encryption, which is the type of encryption used by FDE and partition encryption.
Database encryption is a technique that encrypts data stored in a database, such as tables, columns, rows, or cells. Database encryption can be done at the
application level, the database level, or the file system level. Database encryption is useful for protecting data from unauthorized access by database
administrators, hackers, or malware, but it does not protect the data from physical theft or loss of the device that hosts the database. References = Data Encryption
– CompTIA Security+ SY0-401: 4.4, CompTIA Security+Cheat Sheet and PDF | Zero To Mastery, CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Certification Course
- Cybr, Application Hardening – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 3.2.
NEW QUESTION 92
An enterprise is trying to limit outbound DNS traffic originating from its internal network. Outbound DNS requests will only be allowed from one device with the IP
address 10.50.10.25. Which of the following firewall ACLs will accomplish this goal?
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A. Access list outbound permit 0.0.0.0 0 0.0.0.0/0 port 53 Access list outbound deny 10.50.10.25 32 0.0.0.0/0 port 53
B. Access list outbound permit 0.0.0.0/0 10.50.10.25 32 port 53 Access list outbound deny 0.0.0.0 0 0.0.0.0/0 port 53
C. Access list outbound permit 0.0.0.0 0 0.0.0.0/0 port 53 Access list outbound deny 0.0.0.0/0 10.50.10.25 32 port 53
D. Access list outbound permit 10.50.10.25 32 0.0.0.0/0 port 53 Access list outbound deny 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0/0 port 53
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is D because it allows only the device with the IP address 10.50.10.25 to send outbound DNS requests on port 53, and denies all other
devices from doing so. The other options are incorrect because they either allow all devices to send outbound DNS requests (A and C), or they allow no devices to
send outbound DNS requests (B). References = You can learn more about firewall ACLs and DNS in the following resources:
? CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 4: Network Security1
? Professor Messer’s CompTIA SY0-701 Security+ Training Course, Section 3.2: Firewall Rules2
? TOTAL: CompTIA Security+ Cert (SY0-701) | Udemy, Section 6: Network Security, Lecture 28: Firewall Rules3
NEW QUESTION 96
A security administrator is deploying a DLP solution to prevent the exfiltration of sensitive customer data. Which of the following should the administrator do first?
A. Block access to cloud storage websites.
B. Create a rule to block outgoing email attachments.
C. Apply classifications to the data.
D. Remove all user permissions from shares on the file server.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Data classification is the process of assigning labels or tags to data based on its sensitivity, value, and risk. Data classification is the first step in a data loss
prevention (DLP) solution, as it helps to identify what data needs to be protected and how. By applying classifications to the data, the security administrator can
define appropriate policies and rules for the DLP solution to prevent the exfiltration of sensitive customer data. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam
SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 8: Data Protection, page 323. CompTIA Security+ Practice Tests: Exam SY0-701, 3rd Edition, Chapter 8: Data Protection, page
327.
NEW QUESTION 97
A technician needs to apply a high-priority patch to a production system. Which of the following steps should be taken first?
A. Air gap the system.
B. Move the system to a different network segment.
C. Create a change control request.
D. Apply the patch to the system.
Answer: C
Explanation:
= A change control request is a document that describes the proposed change to a system, the reason for the change, the expected impact, the approval process,
the testing plan, the implementation plan, the rollback plan, and the communication plan. A change control request is a best practice for applying any patch to a
production system, especially a high-priority one, as it ensures that the change is authorized, documented, tested, and communicated. A change control request
also minimizes the risk of unintended consequences, such as system downtime, data loss, or security breaches. References = CompTIA Security+ Study Guide
with over 500 Practice Test Questions: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, Chapter 6, page 235. CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 4.1, page 13.
NEW QUESTION 100
A systems administrator wants to prevent users from being able to access data based on their responsibilities. The administrator also wants to apply the required
access structure via a simplified format. Which of the following should the administrator apply to the site recovery resource group?
A. RBAC
B. ACL
C. SAML
D. GPO
Answer: A
Explanation:
RBAC stands for Role-Based Access Control, which is a method of restricting access to data and resources based on the roles or responsibilities of users. RBAC
simplifies the management of permissions by assigning roles to users and granting access rights to roles, rather than to individual users. RBAC can help enforce
the principle of least privilege and reduce the risk of unauthorized access or data leakage. The other options are not as suitable for the scenario as RBAC, as they
either do not prevent access based on responsibilities, or do not apply a simplified format. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th
Edition, page 133 1
NEW QUESTION 104
Which of the following is the best way to consistently determine on a daily basis whether security settings on servers have been modified?
A. Automation
B. Compliance checklist
C. Attestation
D. Manual audit
Answer: A
Explanation:
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Automation is the best way to consistently determine on a daily basis whether security settings on servers have been modified. Automation is the process of using
software, hardware, or other tools to perform tasks that would otherwise require human intervention or manual effort. Automation can help to improve the
efficiency, accuracy, and consistency of security operations, as well as reduce human errors and costs. Automation can be used to monitor, audit, and enforce
security settings on servers, such as firewall rules, encryption keys, access controls, patch levels, and configuration files. Automation can also alert security
personnel of any changes or anomalies that may indicate a security breach or compromise12.
The other options are not the best ways to consistently determine on a daily basis whether security settings on servers have been modified:
? Compliance checklist: This is a document that lists the security requirements, standards, or best practices that an organization must follow or adhere to. A
compliance checklist can help to ensure that the security settings on servers are aligned with the organizational policies and regulations, but it does not
automatically detect or report any changes or modifications that may occur on a daily basis3.
? Attestation: This is a process of verifying or confirming the validity or accuracy of a statement, claim, or fact. Attestation can be used to provide assurance or
evidence that the security settings on servers are correct and authorized, but it does not continuously monitor or audit any changes or modifications that may occur
on a daily basis4.
? Manual audit: This is a process of examining or reviewing the security settings on servers by human inspectors or auditors. A manual audit can help to identify
and correct any security issues or discrepancies on servers, but it is time-consuming, labor-intensive, and prone to human errors. A manual audit may not be
feasible or practical to perform on a daily basis.
References = 1: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 1022: Automation and Scripting – CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 – 5.1, video by
Professor Messer3: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 974: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 98. :
CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 99.
NEW QUESTION 107
An IT manager informs the entire help desk staff that only the IT manager and the help desk lead will have access to the administrator console of the help desk
software. Which of the following security techniques is the IT manager setting up?
A. Hardening
B. Employee monitoring
C. Configuration enforcement
D. Least privilege
Answer: D
Explanation:
The principle of least privilege is a security concept that limits access to resources to the minimum level needed for a user, a program, or a device to perform a
legitimate function. It is a cybersecurity best practice that protects high-value data and assets from compromise or insider threat. Least privilege can be applied to
different abstraction layers of a computing environment, such as processes, systems, or connected devices. However, it is rarely implemented in practice.
In this scenario, the IT manager is setting up the principle of least privilege by restricting access to the administrator console of the help desk software to only two
authorized users: the IT manager and the help desk lead. This way, the IT manager can prevent unauthorized or accidental changes to the software configuration,
data, or functionality by other help desk staff. The other help desk staff will only have access to the normal user interface of the software, which is sufficient for
them to perform their job functions.
The other options are not correct. Hardening is the process of securing a system by reducing its surface of vulnerability, such as by removing unnecessary
software, changing default passwords, or disabling unnecessary services. Employee monitoring is the surveillance of workers’ activity, such as by tracking web
browsing, application use, keystrokes, or screenshots. Configuration enforcement is the process of ensuring that a system adheres to a predefined set of security
settings, such as by applying a patch, a policy, or a template.
References = https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Principle_of_least_privilege https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Principle_of_least_privilege
NEW QUESTION 108
Which of the following vulnerabilities is associated with installing software outside of a manufacturer’s approved software repository?
A. Jailbreaking
B. Memory injection
C. Resource reuse
D. Side loading
Answer: D
Explanation:
Side loading is the process of installing software outside of a manufacturer’s approved software repository. This can expose the device to potential vulnerabilities,
such as malware, spyware, or unauthorized access. Side loading can also bypass security controls and policies that are enforced by the manufacturer or the
organization. Side loading is often done by users who want to access applications or features that are not available or allowed on their devices. References =
Sideloading - CompTIA Security + Video Training | Interface Technical Training, Security+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications, Load Balancers –
CompTIA Security+ SY0-501 – 2.1, CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Certification Study Guide.
NEW QUESTION 112
Several employees received a fraudulent text message from someone claiming to be the Chief Executive Officer (CEO). The message stated:
“I’m in an airport right now with no access to email. I need you to buy gift cards for employee recognition awards. Please send the gift cards to following email
address.”
Which of the following are the best responses to this situation? (Choose two).
A. Cancel current employee recognition gift cards.
B. Add a smishing exercise to the annual company training.
C. Issue a general email warning to the company.
D. Have the CEO change phone numbers.
E. Conduct a forensic investigation on the CEO's phone.
F. Implement mobile device management.
Answer: BC
Explanation:
This situation is an example of smishing, which is a type of phishing that uses text messages (SMS) to entice individuals into providing personal or sensitive
information to cybercriminals. The best responses to this situation are to add a smishing exercise to the annual company training and to issue a general email
warning to the company. A smishing exercise can help raise awareness and educate employees on how to recognize and avoid smishing attacks. An email
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warning can alert employees to the fraudulent text message and remind them to verify the identity and legitimacy of any requests for information or money.
References = What Is Phishing | Cybersecurity | CompTIA, Phishing – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 1.1 - Professor Messer IT Certification Training Courses
NEW QUESTION 114
An organization is struggling with scaling issues on its VPN concentrator and internet circuit due to remote work. The organization is looking for a software solution
that will allow it to reduce traffic on the VPN and internet circuit, while still providing encrypted tunnel access to the data center and monitoring of remote employee
internet traffic. Which of the following will help achieve these objectives?
A. Deploying a SASE solution to remote employees
B. Building a load-balanced VPN solution with redundant internet
C. Purchasing a low-cost SD-WAN solution for VPN traffic
D. Using a cloud provider to create additional VPN concentrators
Answer: A
Explanation:
SASE stands for Secure Access Service Edge. It is a cloud-based service that combines network and security functions into a single integrated solution. SASE
can help reduce traffic on the VPN and internet circuit by providing secure and optimized access to the data center and cloud applications for remote employees.
SASE can also monitor and enforce security policies on the remote employee internet traffic, regardless of their location or device. SASE can offer benefits such
as lower costs, improved performance, scalability, and flexibility compared to traditional VPN solutions. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam
SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 457-458 1
NEW QUESTION 118
The management team notices that new accounts that are set up manually do not always have correct access or permissions.
Which of the following automation techniques should a systems administrator use to streamline account creation?
A. Guard rail script
B. Ticketing workflow
C. Escalation script
D. User provisioning script
Answer: D
Explanation:
A user provisioning script is an automation technique that uses a predefined set of instructions or commands to create, modify, or delete user accounts and assign
appropriate access or permissions. A user provisioning script can help to streamline account creation by reducing manual errors, ensuring consistency and
compliance, and saving time and resources12.
The other options are not automation techniques that can streamline account creation:
? Guard rail script: This is a script that monitors and enforces the security policies and rules on a system or a network. A guard rail script can help to prevent
unauthorized or malicious actions, such as changing security settings, accessing restricted resources, or installing unwanted software3.
? Ticketing workflow: This is a process that tracks and manages the requests, issues, or incidents that are reported by users or customers. A ticketing workflow
can help to improve the communication, collaboration, and resolution of problems, but it does not automate the account creation process4.
? Escalation script: This is a script that triggers an alert or a notification when a certain condition or threshold is met or exceeded. An escalation script can help to
inform the relevant parties or authorities of a critical situation, such as a security breach, a performance degradation, or a service outage.
References = 1: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 1022: User Provisioning – CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 – 5.1, video by Professor
Messer3: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 1034: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 104. : CompTIA
Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 105.
NEW QUESTION 123
A user is attempting to patch a critical system, but the patch fails to transfer. Which of the following access controls is most likely inhibiting the transfer?
A. Attribute-based
B. Time of day
C. Role-based
D. Least privilege
Answer: D
Explanation:
The least privilege principle states that users and processes should only have the minimum level of access required to perform their tasks. This helps to prevent
unauthorized or unnecessary actions that could compromise security. In this case, the patch transfer might be failing because the user or process does not have
the appropriate permissions to access the critical system or the network resources needed for the transfer. Applying the least privilege principle can help to avoid
this issue by granting the user or process the necessary access rights for the patching activity. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th
Edition, page 931
NEW QUESTION 125
HOTSPOT
Select the appropriate attack and remediation from each drop-down list to label the corresponding attack with its remediation.
INSTRUCTIONS
Not all attacks and remediation actions will be used.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.
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A. Mastered
B. Not Mastered
Answer: A
Explanation:
Web serverBotnet Enable DDoS protectionUser RAT Implement a host-based IPS Database server Worm Change the default application passwordExecutive
KeyloggerDisable vulnerable servicesApplication Backdoor Implement 2FA using push notification
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A screenshot of a computer program
Description automatically generated with low confidence
NEW QUESTION 128
An analyst is evaluating the implementation of Zero Trust principles within the data plane. Which of the following would be most relevant for the analyst to
evaluate?
A. Secured zones
B. Subject role
C. Adaptive identity
D. Threat scope reduction
Answer: A
Explanation:
Secured zones are a key component of the Zero Trust data plane, which is the layer where data is stored, processed, and transmitted. Secured zones are logical
or physical segments of the network that isolate data and resources based on their sensitivity and risk. Secured zones enforce granular policies and controls to
prevent unauthorized access and lateral movement within the network1.
References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Kit: Exam SY0-701, 7th Edition, Chapter 5, page 255.
NEW QUESTION 131
......
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