KKNPP-CIPET Jointly Organizing Coaching Class Study Material

Central Institute of Petrochemicals Engineering and Technology (CIPET)

Centre for Skilling and Technical Support (CSTS)
&
Kudankulam Nuclear Power Project (KKNPP)

MECHANICAL ENGINEERING SYLLABUS

Engineering Mechanics and Strength of Materials:
Equilibrium of Forces, Law of motion, Friction, Centroid & moment of Inertia -
Concepts of stress and strain, Elastic limit and elasticConstants, Bending
moments and shear force diagram, Stress in composite bars, Torsion of
circularShafts, Bucking of columns – Euler’s and Rankin’s theories, Thin walled
pressure vessels

Machine Design: Design for static and dynamic loading; failure theories; fatigue
strength and the S-N diagram; principles of the design of machine elements
such as bolted, riveted and welded joints; shafts, gears, rolling and sliding
contact bearings, brakes and clutches, spring

Fluid Mechanics & Machinery

Properties & Classification of Fluid: ideal & real fluids, Newton’s law of viscosity,
Newtonian andNon-Newtonian fluids, compressible and incompressible fluids.
Fluid Statics: Pressure at a point.Measurement of Fluid Pressure: Manometers,
U-tube, Inclined tube. Fluid Kinematics: Stream line, laminar & turbulent flow,
external & internal flow, continuity Equation.Dynamics of ideal fluids: Bernoulli’s
equation, Total head; Velocity head; Pressure head; Applicationof Bernoulli’s
equitation. Measurement of Flow rate Basic Principles: Venturimeter, Pilot tube,
Orifice meter. Hydraulic Turbines: Classifications, Principles. Centrifugal Pumps:
Classifications, Principles, Performance.

Thermal /Power Plant Engineering

Concepts and terminology-Energy and Work Transfer-First Law of
thermodynamics - Second Law of Thermodynamics - Working substances -Ideal
gases and real gases- Vapor Power Cycles - Gas Power cycles -Fuels and
Combustion - Heat Transfer- Refrigeration cycles -Power Plant
Engineering/Introduction-Steam Power Plant- Nuclear Power Plant- Diesel engine
power plant-Hydel Power Plant.

Metrology
Introduction to measurement-Linear measurement -Angular measurement-
Limits fits and tolerances – Transducers- Strain measurement -Measurement
of Pressure Temperature measurement.

Production Engineering
Classification of Steels : mild steal & alloy steel, Heat treatment of steel,
Welding – Arc Welding, Gas Welding, Resistance Welding, Special Welding
Techniques i.e. TIG, MIG, etc. (Brazing &Soldering), Welding Defects & Testing;
NDT, Foundry & Casting – methods, defects, different Casting processes,
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Forging, Extrusion, etc, Metal cutting principles, cutting tools, Basic Principles
ofmachining with (i) Lathe (ii) Milling (iii) Drilling (iv) Shaping (v) Grinding,
Machines, tools &Surface finish, lapping Manufacturing processes.

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CONTENT

S.NO DESCRIPTION PAGE NO

1 ENGINEERING MECHANICS 3

2 STRENGTH OF MATERIALS 20

3 MACHINE DESIGN 35

4 FLUID MECHANICS & MACHINERY 57

5 HYDRAULIC MACHINES 74

6 THERMODYNAMICS 84

7 NUCLEAR POWER PLANTS 109

8 ENGINEERING MATERIALS 124

9 METROLOGY &MEASUREMENT 140

10 PRODUCTION ENGINEERING 156

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Engineering Mechanics Multiple Choice Questions

1. A body of mass ‘m’ moving with a constant velocity ‘v’ strikes another body of
same mass moving with same velocity but in opposite direction. The common
velocity of both the bodies after collision is
A.v B.2v C.4v D.8v

2. The bellow figure shows the three coplanar forces P, Q and R acting at a point O. If

these forces are in equilibrium, then

A.P/sin β = Q/sin α = R/sin ɣ B.P/sin α = Q/sin β =
R/sin ɣ C.P/sin ɣ = Q/sin α = R/sin βD.P/sin α = Q/sin ɣ =
R/sin β

3. The centre of percussion of the homogeneous rod of length ‘L’ suspended at the
top will be
A.L/2 B.L/3 C.3L/4 D.2L/3

4. The angle of inclination of the plane at which the body begins to move down the
plane, is called
A. Angle of friction B. Angle of repose C. Angle of projection
D. None of these

5. Pick up wrong statement about friction force for dry surfaces. Friction force is
A. Proportional to normal load between the
surfaces B. Dependent on the materials of
contact surface C. Proportional to velocity of
sliding
D. Independent of the area of contact surfaces

6. The term ‘Centroid’ is

A. The same as centre of gravity
B. The point of suspension
C. The point of application of the resultant of all the forces tending to cause a
body to rotate about a certain axis
D.None of the above

7. The C.G. of a plane lamina will not be at its geometrical centre in the case of a
A. Right angled triangle B. Equilateral
triangle C. Square D. Circle

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8. If the masses of both the bodies, as shown in the below figure, are reduced to 50
percent, then tension in the string will be

A. Same B.Half C.Double D.None of these

9. The moment of inertia of a thin rod of mass ‘m’ and length ‘l’, about an axis
through its centre of gravity and perpendicular to its length is
A.ml2/4 B.ml2/6 C.ml2/8 D.ml2/12
10. Forces are called coplanar when all of them acting on body lie in
A. One point B.One plane C.Different planes D.Perpendicular planes.

11. A rubber ball is dropped from a height of 2 m. If there is no loss of velocity after
rebounding, the ball will rise to a height of
A.1 m B.2 m C.3 m D.4 m

12. A weight of 1000 N can be lifted by an effort of 80 N. If the velocity ratio is 20, the
machine is
A. Reversible B.Non-reversible C.Ideal D.None of these

13. Centre of gravity of a solid cone lies on the axis at the height
A. One fourth of the total height above base
B. One third of the total height above base
C. One-half of the total height above base
D.Three eighth of the total height above the base

14. The periodic time (T) is given by (where, ω = Angular velocity of particle in rad/s.)
A. ω/2π B.2π/ω C.2π × ω D.π/ω

15. The resultant of two forces P and Q (such that P > Q) acting along the same
straight line, but in opposite direction, is given by
A.P + Q B.P – Q C.P / Q D.Q / P

16. When two elastic bodies collide with each other,

A. The two bodies will momentarily come to rest after collision
B. The two bodies tend to compress and deform at the surface of contact
C. The two bodies begin to regain their original shape
D.All of the above

17. The coefficient of friction depends upon

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A. Nature of surfaces B.Area of
contact C.Shape of the surfaces D.All of the
above

18. The angular velocity (in rad/s) of a body rotating at N revolutions per minute is
A.πN/60 B.πN/180 C.2πN/60 D.2πN/180

19. A block of mass m1, placed on an inclined smooth plane is connected by a light
string passing over a smooth pulley to mass m2, which moves vertically downwards
as shown in the below figure. The tension in the string is

A.m1/m2 B.m1. g. sin α C.m1.m2/m1+ m2 D.m1.m2.g(1 + sin α)/(m1 + m2)

20. In determining stresses in frames by methods of sections, the frame is divided

into two parts by an imaginary section drawn in such a way as not to cut more than
A. Two members with unknown forces of the frame
B. Three members with unknown forces of the frame
C. Four members with unknown forces of the frame
D.Three members with known forces of the frame

21. A machine having an efficiency greater than 50%, is known as

A. Reversible machine B.Non-reversible machine
C.Neither reversible nor non-reversible machine D.Ideal machine

22. The algebraic sum of moments of the forces forming couple about any point
in their plane is
A. Equal to the moment of the couple B.Constant
C.Both of above are correct D.Both of above are wrong

23. In the lever of third order, load ‘W’, effort ‘P’ and fulcrum ‘F’ are oriented
as follows
A.W between P and F B.F between W and P
C.P between W and F D.W, P and F all on one side

24. Which of the following statement is correct?

A. The algebraic sum of the forces, constituting the couple is zero
B. The algebraic sum of the forces, constituting the couple, about any point is the
same
C.A couple cannot be balanced by a single force but can be balanced only by a
couple of opposite sense
D.All of the above

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25.A heavy ladder resting on floor and against a vertical wall may not be in
equilibrium, if
A. The floor is smooth, the wall is rough
B. The floor is rough, the wall is smooth
C. The floor and wall both are smooth surfaces
D.The floor and wall both are rough surfaces

26. The skidding away of the vehicle on a level circular path can be avoided if the
force of friction between the wheels and the ground is the centrifugal
force.
A. Less than B.Greater than C.Equal to D.None of these

27. Coulomb friction is the friction between

A. Bodies having relative motion B.Two dry
surfaces C.Two lubricated surfaces D.Solids and
liquids

28. The time of flight (t) of a projectile on an upward inclined plane is(where u =
Velocity of projection, α = Angle of projection, and β = Inclination of the plane with
the horizontal.)
A.t = g cos β/2u sin (α – β) B.t = 2u sin (α – β)/g cos β
C.t = g cos β/2u sin (α + β) D.t = 2u sin (α + β)/g cos β

29. Which of the following is the example of lever of first order?

A. Arm of man B.Pair of scissors
C.Pair of clinical tongs D.All of the above

30. Three forces acting on a rigid body are represented in magnitude, direction and
line of action by the three sides of a triangle taken in order. The forces are equivalent
to a couple whose moment is equal to
A. Area of the triangle B.Twice the area of the
triangle C.Half the area of the triangle D.None of these

31. The Cartesian equation of trajectory is (where u = Velocity of projection, α = Angle

of projection, and x, y = Co-ordinates of any point on the trajectory after t seconds.)
A.y = (gx²/2u² cos²α) + x. tanα B.y = (gx²/2u² cos²α) – x. tanα
C.y = x. tanα – (gx²/2u² cos²α) D.y = x. tanα + (gx²/2u² cos²α)

32. The units of moment of inertia of an area are

A. kg-m² B.m⁴ C.kg/m² D.m³

33. The slope on the road surface generally provided on the curves is known as
A. Angle of frictionB.Angle of repose C.Angle of banking D.None of these

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34. A force acting on a body may
A. Change its motion B.Balance the other forces acting
on it C.Retard its motion D.All of the above

35. The centre of gravity of an isosceles triangle with base (p) and sides (q) from its
base is
A.[√(4p² – q²)]/6 B.(4p² – q²)/6 C.(p² – q²)/4 D.(p² + q²)/4

36. On a ladder resting on smooth ground and leaning against vertical wall, the force
of friction will be
A. Towards the wall at its upper end B.Away from the wall at its
upper end C.Upwards at its upper end D.Downwards at its upper
end

37. The velocity of a body on reaching the ground from a height h, is

A.2.√(gh) B.√(gh) C.√(2gh) D.2g.√h

38. A framed structure, as shown in the below figure, is a

A. Perfect frame B.Deficient frame

C.Redundant frame D.None of the above

39. Lami’s theorem states that

A. Three forces acting at a point will be in equilibrium
B. Three forces acting at a point can be represented by a triangle, each side
being proportional to force
C. If three forces acting upon a particle are represented in magnitude and
direction by the sides of a triangle, taken in order, they will be in equilibrium
D.If three forces acting at a point are in equilibrium, each force is proportional
to the sine of the angle between the other two

40. The ratio of static friction to dynamic friction is always

A. Equal to one B.Less than one C.Greater than one D.None of these

41. Which is the correct statement about law of polygon of forces?

A. If any number of forces acting at a point can be represented by the sides
of a polygon taken in order, then the forces are in equilibrium
B. If any number of forces acting at a point can be represented in
direction and magnitude by the sides of a polygon, then the forces are in
equilibrium
C. If a polygon representing forces acting at a point is closed then
forces are in equilibrium

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D.If any number of forces acting at a point can be represented in
direction and magnitude by the sides of a polygon taken in order, then the
forces are in equilibrium

42. Moment of inertia of a triangular section of baseB.and height (h) about an axis
through its base, is
A.bh3/4 B.bh3/8 C.bh3/12 D.bh3/36
43. Coefficient of friction is the
a. Angle between normal reaction and the resultant of normal reaction and the
limiting
friction
b. Ratio of limiting friction and normal reaction
c. The friction force acting when the body is just about to move
d. The friction force acting when the body is in motion
44. The forces, which meet at one point and their lines of action also lie on the same
plane, are known as
A. Coplanar concurrent forces B.Coplanar non-concurrent forces
C.Non-coplanar concurrent forces D.Non-coplanar non-concurrent
forces

45. A flywheel on a motor goes from rest to 1000 rpm in 6 sec. The number of
revolutions made is nearly equal to
A.25 B.50 C.100 D.250

46. A ladder is resting on a smooth ground and leaning against a rough vertical wall.
The force of friction will act
A. Towards the wall at its upper end B.Away from the wall at its
upper end C.Downward at its upper end D.Upward at its upper
end

47. Pick up the incorrect statement from the following:

A. The C.G. of a circle is at its centre
B. The C.G. of a triangle is at the intersection of its medians
C. The C.G. of a rectangle is at the intersection of its diagonals
D.The C.G. of a semicircle is at a distance of r/2 from the centre
48. The range of projectile (R) on an upward inclined plane is
A.g. cos² β/2u². sin (α + β). cos α B.2u². sin (α + β). cos α/g. cos² β
C.g. cos² β/2u². sin (α – β). cos α D.2u². sin (α – β). cos α/g. cos² β
49. If three forces acting in one plane upon a rigid body, keep it in equilibrium, then
they must either
A. Meet in a point B.Be all parallel
C.At least two of them must meet D.All the above are correct

50. In order to double the period of simple pendulum, the length of the string
should be
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A. Halved B.Doubled C.Quadrupled D.None of these

51. The angle which an inclined plane makes with the horizontal when a body placed
on it is about to move down is known as angle of
A. Friction B.Limiting friction C.Repose D.Kinematic friction

52. The energy possessed by a body, for doing work by virtue of its position, is called
A. Potential energy B.Kinetic energy C.Electrical energy
D.Chemical energy

53. The centre of gravity of a uniform lamina lies at

A. The centre of heavy portion B.The bottom
surface C.The midpoint of its axis D.All of
the above

54. The three forces of 100 N, 200 N and 300 N have their lines of action parallel to
each other but act in the opposite directions. These forces are known as
A. Coplanar concurrent forces B.Coplanar non-concurrent
forces C.Like parallel forces D.Unlike parallel forces

55. Angle of friction is the

A. Angle between normal reaction and the resultant of normal reaction and
the limiting friction
B. Ratio of limiting friction and normal reaction
C. The ratio of minimum friction force to the friction force acting when the
body is just about to move
D.The ratio of minimum friction force to friction force acting when
the body is in motion

56. Moment of inertia of a hollow circular section, as shown in the below figure about
an axis perpendicular to the section, is than that about X-X axis.

A. Two times B.Same C.Half D.None of these

57. The frequency of oscillation of a compound pendulum is (where kG = Radius of

gyration about the centroidal axis, and h = Distance between the point of suspension
and C.G. of the body.)
A.2π. √(gh/kG² + h²) B.2π. √(kG² + h²/gh)
C.1/2π. √(gh/kG² + h²) D.1/2π. √(kG² + h²/gh)

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58. The necessary condition for forces to be in equilibrium is that these should be
A. Coplanar B.Meet at one point C.BothA.andB.above D.All be equal
59. Two forces are acting at an angle of 120°. The bigger force is 40 N and the
resultant is perpendicular to the smaller one. The smaller force is
A.20 N B.40 N C.120 N D.None of these

60. In actual machines

A. Mechanical advantage is greater than
velocity ratio B.Mechanical advantage is equal
to velocity ratio C.Mechanical advantage is
less than velocity ratio D.Mechanical
advantage is unity

61. Coefficient of friction depends upon

A. Area of contact only B.Nature of surface only
C.BothA.and (B) D.None of these

62. Moment of inertia of a hollow rectangular section as shown in the below figure
about X-X axis, is

A.(BD³/12) – (bd³/12) B.(DB³/12) – (db³/12)

C.(BD³/36) – (bd³/36) D.(DB³/36) – (db³/36)

63. Which of the following is a vector quantity?

A. Energy B.Mass C.Momentum D.Angle

64. The maximum velocity of a particle moving with simple harmonic motion is
A. ω B.ωr C.ω2r D.ω/r

65. The product of either force of couple with the arm of the couple is called
A. Resultant couple B.Moment of the forces
C.Resulting couple D.Moment of the couple

66. The moment of a force

A. Is the turning effect produced by a force, on the body, on which it acts
B. Is equal to the product of force acting on the body and the
perpendicular distance of a point and the line of action of the force

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C. Is equal to twice the area of the triangle, whose base is the line
representing the force and whose vertex is the point, about which the
moment is taken
D.All of the above

67. A heavy string attached at two ends at same horizontal level and when central dip
is very small approaches the following curve
A.Circular arc B.Parabola C.Hyperbola D.Elliptical

68. The centre of gravity a T-section 100 mm × 150 mm × 50 mm from its bottom is
A.50 mm B.75 mm C.87.5 mm D.125 mm

69. Kinetic friction is the

A. Tangent of angle between normal reaction and the resultant of normal
reaction and the limiting friction
B. Ratio of limiting friction and normal reaction
C. The friction force acting when the body is just about to move
D.The friction force acting when the body is in motion

70. According to Newton’s first law of motion,

A. Everybody continues in its state of rest or of uniform motion, in a
straight line, unless it is acted upon by some external force
B. The rate of change of momentum is directly proportional to the
impressed force, and takes place in the same direction, in which the force acts
C. To every action, there is always an equal and opposite reaction
D. None of the above

71. Which of the following is not a vector quantity?

A. Weight B.Velocity C.Acceleration D.Force

72. The mechanical advantage of a lifting machine is the ratio

of A.Distance moved by effort to the distance moved
by load B.Load lifted to the effort applied
.Output to the
input D.All of the
above

73. From a circular plate of diameter 6 cm is cut out a circle whose diameter is a
radius of the plate. Find the e.g. of the remainder from the centre of circular plate
A.0.5 cm B.1.0 cm C.1.5 cm D.2.5 cm

74. In ideal machines, mechanical advantage is velocity ratio.

A. Equal to B.Less than C.Greater than D.None of these

75. Frictional force encountered after commencement of motion is called

A.Limiting friction B.Kinematic friction
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C.Frictional resistance D.Dynamic friction

76. The centre of gravity of a right circular solid cone is at a distance of from its b
measured along the vertical axis.(where h = Height of a right circular solid cone.)
A.h/2 B.h/3 C.h/4 D.h/6

77. A particle inside a hollow sphere of radius r, having coefficient of friction µ can
rest up to height of
A.r/2 B.r/A C.r/3 D.0.134 r

78. Which of the following statement is incorrect?

A.A force acting in the opposite direction to the motion of the body is called
force of friction B.The ratio of the limiting friction to the normal reaction is
called coefficient of friction
C.A machine whose efficiency is 100% is known as an ideal machine
D.The velocity ratio of a machine is the ratio of load lifted to the effort applied

79. A sample of metal weighs 219 gms in air, 180 gms in water, 120 gms in an
unknown fluid. Then which is correct statement about density of metal
A. Density of metal can’t be determined B.Metal is twice as dense as
water C.Metal will float in water D.Metal is twice as dense as unknown
fluid

80. The centre of percussion is below the centre of gravity of the body and is at a
distance equal to
A. h/kG B.h2/kG C.kG2/h D.h × kG

81. A cable with a uniformly distributed load per horizontal meter run will take the
following shape
A. Straight line B.Parabola C.Hyperbola D.Elliptical

82. When a body falls freely under gravitational force, it possesses weight.
A. No B.Minimum C.Maximum D.None of these

83. A body moves, from rest with a constant acceleration of 5 m per sec. The
distance covered in 5 sec is most nearly
A.38 m B.62.5 m C.96 m D.124 m

84. When the lift is moving upwards with some acceleration, the pressure exerted by
a man is to its acceleration.
A.Directly proportional B.Inversely proportionalC.Cube rootD.None of these

85. Limiting force of friction is the

A. Tangent of angle between normal reaction and the resultant of normal
reaction and limiting friction
B. Ratio of limiting friction and normal reaction
C. The friction force acting when the body is just about to move
D.The friction force acting when the body is in motion

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86. A spherical body is symmetrical about its perpendicular axis. According to
Routh’s rule, the moment of inertia of a body about an axis passing through its
centre of gravity is (where, M = Mass of the body, and S = Sum of the squares of the
two semi-axes.)
A.MS/3 B.MS/4 C.MS/5 D.None of these

87. The resultant of the following three couples 20 kg force, 0.5 m arm, +ve sense 30
kg force, 1 m arm, -ve sense 40 kg force, 0.25 m arm, +ve sense having arm of 0.5 m
will be
A.20 kg, -ve sense B.20 kg, + ve sense
C.10 kg, + ve sense D.10 kg, -ve sense

88. In a framed structure, as shown in the below figure, the force in the member BC is

A.W/√3 (compression) B.W/√3

(tension) C.2W/√3 (compression)
D.2W/√3
(tension)

89. For any system of coplanar forces, the condition of equilibrium is that the
A.Algebraic sum of the horizontal components of all the forces
should be zero B.Algebraic sum of the vertical components of all
the forces should be zero C.Algebraic sum of moments of all the
forces about any point should be zero D.All of the above
90. D’ Alembert’s principle is used for
A. Reducing the problem of kinetics to equivalent statics
problem B.Determining stresses in the truss
C.Stability of floating
bodies D.Designing safe
structures

91. Two bodies of masses m1 and m2 are hung from the ends of a rope, passing over
a frictionless pulley as shown in the figure below. The acceleration of the string will
be

A.g (m1 – m2)/(m1 + m2) B.2g (m1 – m2)/(m1 + m2)

C.g (m1 + m2)/(m1 – m2) D.2g (m1 + m2)/(m1 – m2)
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92. The velocity ratio of a differential wheel and axle with ‘D’ as the diameter of effort
wheel and d1 and d2 as the diameters of larger and smaller axles respectively, is
A.D/(d₁ + d₂) B.D/(d₁ – d₂) C.2D/(d₁ + d₂) D.2D/(d₁ – d₂)

93. Which of the following is not the unit of power?

A. kW (kilowatt) B.hp (horse power) C.kcal/sec D.kcal/kg sec

94. Non-coplanar non-concurrent forces are those forces which

A. Meet at one point, but their lines of action do not lie on the same plane
B. Do not meet at one point and their lines of action do not lie on the same plane
C. Do not meet at one point but their lines of action lie on the same plane
D.None of the above

95. The unit of force in S.I. units is

A. kilogram B.Newton C.Watt D.Dyne

96. A number of forces acting at a point will be in equilibrium, if

A.All the forces are equally inclined B.Sum of all the forces is zero
C.Sum of resolved parts in the vertical direction is zero (i.e. ∑V = 0) D.None of
these

97. The weight of a body is due to

A. Gravitational pull exerted by the
earth B.Forces experienced by body in
atmosphere
C.Force of attraction experienced by particles
D.Gravitational force of attraction towards the centre of the earth

98. The efficiency of a lifting machine is the ratio of

A.Output to the input B.Work done by the machine to the work done on the
machine C.Mechanical advantage to the velocity ratio D.All of the above

99. According to principle of moments

A. If a system of coplanar forces is in equilibrium, then their algebraic sum is
zero
B. If a system of coplanar forces is in equilibrium, then the algebraic
sum of their moments about any point in their plane is zero
C. The algebraic sum of the moments of any two forces about any point
is equal to moment of the resultant about the same point
D. Positive and negative couples can be balanced

100. Moment of inertia of a triangular section of baseB.and height (h) about an axis
passing through its vertex and parallel to the base, is than that passing
through its C.G. and parallel to the base.
A.Nine times B.Six times C.Four times D.Two times

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101. A trolley wire weighs 1.2 kg per meter length. The ends of the wire are attached
to two poles 20 meters apart. If the horizontal tension is 1500 kg find the dip in the
middle of the span
A.2.5 cm B.3.0 cm C.4.0 cm D.5.0 cm

102. The algebraic sum of the resolved parts of a number of forces in a given
direction is equal to the resolved part of their resultant in the same direction. This is
known as
A. Principle of independence of forces B.Principle of resolution of
forces C.Principle of transmissibility of forces D.None of these

103. A particle moves along a straight line such that distance (x) traversed in ‘t’
seconds is given by x = t² (t – 4), the acceleration of the particle will be given by the
equation
A.6t² – 8t B.3t² + 2t C.6f – 8 D.6f – 4

104. The minimum force required to slide a body of weight ‘W’ on a rough horizontal
plane is
A.W sinθ B.W cosθ C.W tanθ D.None of these

105. The maximum frictional force which comes into play when a body just begins to
slide over another surface is called
A.Limiting friction B.Sliding friction C.Rolling friction D.Kinematic friction

106. The motion of a particle round a fixed axis is

A. Translatory B.Rotary C.Circular D.Translatory as well as rotary

107. The C.G. of a right circular solid cone of height h lies at the following distance
from the base
A.h/2 B.J/3 C.h/6 D.h/4
108. Which of the following statement is correct?
A. The kinetic energy of a body during impact remains constant
B. The kinetic energy of a body before impact is equal to the kinetic
energy of a body after impact
C. The kinetic energy of a body before impact is less than the kinetic
energy of a body after impact
D.The kinetic energy of a body before impact is more than the kinetic
energy of a body after impact

109. A pair of smith’s tongs is an example of the lever of

A. Zeroth order B.First order C.Second order D.Third order

110. Moment of inertia of a circular section about its diameterD.is

A.πd3/16 B.πd3/32 C.πd4/32 D.πd4/64

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111. The forces, which meet at one point, but their lines of action do not lie in a plane,
are called
A. Coplanar non-concurrent forces B.Non-coplanar concurrent
forces C.Non-coplanar non-concurrent forces D.Intersecting forces

112. The resultant of two forces P and Q acting at an angle θ

is A.√(P² + Q² + 2PQ sinθ) B.√(P² + Q² + 2PQ
cosθ) C.√(P² + Q² – 2PQ cosθ) D.√(P² + Q² – 2PQ
tanθ)

113. Center of percussion is

A. The point of C.G.
B. The point of metacenter
C. The point of application of the resultant of all the forces tending to
cause a body to rotate about a certain axis
D.Point of suspension

114. The static friction

A. Bears a constant ratio to the normal reaction between the two surfaces
B. Is independent of the area of contact, between the two surfaces
C. Always acts in a direction, opposite to that in which the body tends to move
D.All of the above

115. Least force required to draw a body up the inclined plane is W sin (plane
inclination + friction angle) applied in the direction
A. Along the plane B.Horizontally
C.Vertically D.At an angle equal to the angle of friction to the inclined
plane

116. The law of motion involved in the recoil of gun is

A. Newton’s first law of motion B.Newton’s second law of
motion C.Newton’s third law of motion D.None of these

117. A circular hole of 50 mm diameter is cut out from a circular disc of 100 mm
diameter as shown in the below figure. The center of gravity of the section will lie

A. In the shaded area B.In the hole C.At ‘O’ D.None of these

118. A semicircular disc rests on a horizontal surface with its top flat surface
horizontal and circular portion touching down. The coefficient of friction between
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semi circular disc and horizontal surface is µ. This disc is to be pulled by a horizontal
force applied at one edge and it always remains horizontal. When the disc is about to
start moving, its top horizontal force will
A. Remain horizontal B.Slant up towards direction
of pull C.Slant down towards direction of pull D.None of the above

119. Which of the following statement is correct?

A. The periodic time of a particle moving with simple harmonic motion
is the time taken by a particle for one complete oscillation
B. The periodic time of a particle moving with simple harmonic
motion is directly proportional to its angular velocity
C. The velocity of the particle moving with simple harmonic motion is
zero at the mean position
D.The acceleration of the particle moving with simple harmonic motion
is maximum at the mean position

120. In ideal machines

A. Mechanical advantage is greater than
velocity ratio B.Mechanical advantage is equal
to velocity ratio C.Mechanical advantage is
less than velocity ratio D.Mechanical
advantage is unity

121. The forces, whose lines of action are parallel to each other and act in the same
directions, are known as
A. Coplanar concurrent forces B.Coplanar non-concurrent
forces C.Like parallel forces D.Unlike parallel forces

122. Two non-collinear parallel equal forces acting in opposite direction

A. Balance each other B.Constitute a moment
C.Constitute a couple D.Constitute a moment of couple

123. If the body falls freely under gravity, then the gravitational acceleration is taken
as
A.+8.9 m/s2 B.-8.9 m/s2 C.+9.8 m/s2 D.-9.8 m/s2

124. The center of gravity of a triangle lies at the point of

A. Concurrence of the medians B.Intersection of its
altitudes C.Intersection of bisector of angles D.Intersection of
diagonals

125. One joule means that

A. Work is done by a force of 1 N when it displaces a body through 1 m
B. Work is done by a force of 1 kg when it displaces a body through 1 m
C. Work is done by a force of 1 dyne when it displaces a body through 1 cm
D.Work is done by a force of 1 g when it displaces a body through 1 cm

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126. On the ladder resting on the ground and leaning against a smooth vertical wall,
the force of friction will be
A. Downwards at its upper end B.Upwards at its upper
end C.Perpendicular to the wall at its upper endD.Zero at its upper end

127. Which of the following are vector quantities?

A. Angular displacement B.Angular velocity
C.Angular acceleration D.All of these

128. Which of the following is the locus of a point that moves in such a manner that
its distance from a fixed point is equal to its distance from a fixed line multiplied by a
constant greater than one
A. Ellipse B.Hyperbola C.Parabola D.Circle

129. In a framed structure, as shown in the below figure, the forces in the members
AB and BC are respectively

A. √3. W (tensile) and 2W (compressive) B.2W (tensile) and √3. W

(compressive) C.2√3. W (tensile) and 2√3. W (compressive) D.None
of the above

130. When a body of mass ‘m’ attains a velocity ‘v’ from rest in time ‘t’, then the
kinetic energy of translation is
A. mv2 B.mgv2 C.0.5 mv2 D.0.5 mgv2

131. The M.I. of hollow circular section about a central axis perpendicular to section
as compared to its M.I. about horizontal axis is
A. Same B.Double C.Half D.Four times

132. The maximum efficiency of a lifting machine is

A.1/m B.V.R./m C.m/V.R. D.1/(m × V.R.)

133. When trying to turn a key into a lock, following is applied

A. Coplanar force B.Non-coplanar forces C.Moment D.Couple

134. Moment of inertia of a triangular section of baseB.and height (h) about an axis
passing through its C.G. and parallel to the base, is
A.bh3/4 B.bh3/8 C.bh3/12 D.bh3/36
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135. If a number of forces act simultaneously on a particle, it is possible

A. Not a replace them by a single force B.To replace them by a single
force C.To replace them by a single force through C.G. D.To replace them
by a couple

136. If two bodies having masses m1 and m2 (m1>m2) have equal kinetic energies,
the momentum of body having mass m1 is the momentum of body having
mass m2.
A. Equal to B.Less than C.Greater than D.None of these
137. Two coplanar couples having equal and opposite moments
A. Balance each other B.Produce a couple and an unbalanced
force C.Are equivalent D.Cannot balance each other
138. The center of gravity of a trapezium with parallel sides ‘a’ and ‘b’ lies at a
distance of ‘y’ from the base ‘b’, as shown in the below figure. The value of ‘y’ is

A.h [(2a + b)/(a + b)] B.(h/2) [(2a + b)/(a + b)]

C.(h/3) [(2a + b)/(a + b)] D.(h/3) [(a + b)/(2a + b)]

139. Non-coplanar concurrent forces are those forces which

A. Meet at one point, but their lines of action do not lie on the same plane
B. Do not meet at one point and their lines of action do not lie on the same plane
C. Meet at one point and their lines of action also lie on the same plane
D.Do not meet at one point, but their lines of action lie on the same plane

140. In the equation of virtual work, following force is neglected

A. Reaction of any smooth surface with which the body is in contact
B. Reaction of a rough surface of a body which rolls on it without slipping
C. Reaction at a point or an axis, fixed in space, around which a body is constrained to
turn
D.All of the above

141. The velocity of a particle moving with simple harmonic motion is at

the mean position.
A. Zero B.Minimum C.Maximum D.None of these

142. If rain is falling in the opposite direction of the movement of a pedestrian, he has
to hold his umbrella
A. More inclined when moving B.Less inclined when moving
C.More inclined when standing D.Less inclined when standing
143. The linear velocity of a body rotating at ω rad/s along a circular path of radius r
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is given by
A. ω/r B.ω.r C.ω2/r D.ω2.r

144. The C.G. of a solid hemisphere lies on the central radius 3r

A. At distance — from the plane base 3r B.At distance — from the
plane base 3r C.At distance — from the plane base 3r D.At
distance — from the plane base

145. The velocity ratio of a simple wheel and axle with D and d as the diameters of
effort wheel and load axle, is
A.D + d B.D – d C.D × d D.D / d
146. According to law of triangle of forces
A. Three forces acting at a point will be in equilibrium
B. Three forces acting at a point can be represented by a triangle, each
side being proportional to force

C. If three forces acting upon a particle are represented in magnitude and

direction by the sides of a triangle, taken in order, they will be in equilibrium
D.If three forces acting at a point are in equilibrium, each force is
proportional to the sine of the angle between the other two

147. The loss of kinetic energy during inelastic impact, is given by (where m1 = Mass
of the first body,m2 = Mass of the second body, and u1 and u2 = Velocities of the first
and second bodies respectively.)
A.[m₁ m₂/2(m₁ + m₂)] (u₁ – u₂)² B.[2(m₁ + m₂)/m₁ m₂] (u₁ – u₂)²
C.[m₁ m₂/2(m₁ + m₂)] (u₁² – u₂²) D.[2(m₁ + m₂)/m₁ m₂] (u₁² – u₂²)

148. If a suspended body is struck at the center of percussion, then the pressure on
die axis passing through the point of suspension will be
A. Maximum B.Minimum C.Zero D.Infinity

149. A couple produces

A. Translatory motion B.Rotational
motion C.Combined translatory and rotational motion D.None
of the above

150. The resolved part of the resultant of two forces inclined at an angle ‘θ’ in a given
direction is equal to
A. The algebraic sum of the resolved parts of the forces in the given direction
B. The sum of the resolved parts of the forces in the given direction
C. The difference of the forces multiplied by the cosine of θ
D.The sum of the forces multiplied by the sine of θ

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ENGINEERING MECHANICS - ANSWER KEY

Q.NO ANS Q.NO ANS Q.NO ANS Q.NO ANS Q.NO ANS
1 B 31 C 61 B 91 A 121 C
2 B 32 B 62 A 92 D 122 C
3 D 33 C 63 C 93 D 123 C
4 A 34 D 64 B 94 B 124 A
5 C 35 A 65 D 95 B 125 A
6 A 36 C 66 D 96 C 126 D
7 A 37 C 67 B 97 D 127 D
8 B 38 A 68 C 98 D 128 B
9 D 39 D 69 D 99 B 129 A
10 B 40 C 70 A 100 A 130 C
11 B 41 D 71 A 101 C 131 B
12 A 42 C 72 B 102 B 132 D
13 A 43 B 73 A 103 C 133 D
14 B 44 A 74 A 104 C 134 D
15 B 45 B 75 D 105 A 135 B
16 D 46 D 76 C 106 C 136 C
17 A 47 D 77 D 107 D 137 D
18 C 48 D 78 D 108 D 138 C
19 D 49 D 79 A 109 C 139 A
20 B 50 C 80 C 110 D 140 D
21 A 51 C 81 B 111 B 141 C
22 A 52 A 82 A 112 B 142 D
23 A 53 C 83 B 113 C 143 B
24 D 54 D 84 A 114 D 144 D
25 C 55 A 85 C 115 D 145 D
26 B 56 A 86 C 116 C 146 C
27 A 57 C 87 A 117 A 147 A
28 B 58 C 88 D 118 C 148 C
29 D 59 A 89 D 119 A 149 B

30 B 60 C 90 A 120 B 150 A

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Strength of Materials Multiple choice Questions

1. A material obeys hook’s law up to

(A) Plastic limit (B) Elastic limit (C) Yield point(D) Limit of proportionality

2. The torque transmitted by a solid shaft of diameter (D) is (where τ = Maximum

allowable shear stress)
(A) π /4 × τ × D³ (B) π /16 × τ × D³ (C) π /32 × τ × D³ (D) π
/64 × τ × D³

3. The torque transmitted by a hollow shaft of outer diameter (d₁) and inner diameter
(d2) is (where, τ = Maximum allowable shear stress)
(A) π /4 × τ × (d₁⁴ – d⁴₂)/ d₁ (B) π /16 × τ × (d₁⁴ – d⁴₂)/ d₁
(C) π /32 × τ × (d₁⁴ – d⁴₂)/ d₁ (D) π /64 × τ × (d₁⁴ – d⁴₂)/ d₁

4. If Th is the torque resisting capacity of a hollow shaft and Ts is that of a solid

shaft, of the same material, length and weight. Then,
(A) Th > Ts (B) Th < Ts (C) Th = Ts (D) None of these

5. A cube subjected to three mutually perpendicular stress of equal intensity p

expenses a volumetric strain
(A) 3p/ E × (2/m – 1) (B) 3p/ E × (2 – m)
(C) 3p/ E × (1 – 2/m) (D) E/ 3p × (2/m – 1)

6. The strain energy stored in a solid circular shaft subjected to shear stress (τ), is:
(Where, G = Modulus of rigidity for the shaft material)
(A) τ²/ 2G × Volume of shaft (B) τ/ 2G × Volume of shaft
(C) τ²/ 4G × Volume of shaft (D) τ/ 4G × Volume of shaft

7. The strain energy stored in a solid circular shaft in torsion, subjected to

shear stress(τ),is: (Where, G = Modulus of rigidity for the shaft material)
(A) τ²/ 2G × Volume of shaft (B) τ/ 2G × Volume of shaft
(C) τ²/ 4G × Volume of shaft (D) τ/ 4G × Volume of shaft

8. The stress induced in a body, when suddenly loaded, is the stress

induced when the same load is applied gradually.
(A) Equal to (B) One-half (C) Twice (D) Four times

9. If Kh is the torque resisting capacity of a hollow shaft and Ks is that of a solid

shaft, of the same material, length and weight. Then,
(A) Kh > Ks (B) Kh < Ks (C) Kh = Ks (D) None of these

10. After reaching the yielding stage while testing a mild steel specimen, strain
(A) Becomes constant (B) Starts decreasing
(C) Increases without any increase in load (D) None of the above
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11. Principal planes are planes having

(A) Maximum shear stress (B) No shear stress
(C) Minimum shear stress (D) None of the above

12. If the slenderness ratio for a column is 100, then it is said to be a column.
(A) Long (B) Medium (C) Short (D) None of these

13. A body is subjected to a tensile stress of 1200 MPa on one plane and another
tensile stress of 600 MPa on a plane at right angles to the former. It is also subjected
to a shear stress of 400 MPa on the same planes. The maximum normal stress will be
(A) 400 MPa (B) 500 MPa (C) 900 MPa (D) 1400 MPa

14. Young’s modulus of a wire is defined as the stress which will increase the length
of wire compared to its original length by
(A) Half (B) Same amount (C) Double (D) One-fourth

15. True stress strain-curve for materials is plotted between

(A) Load/original cross-sectional area and change in length/original length
(B) Load/ instantaneous cross-sectional area and loge (original area/ instantaneous
area)
(C) Load/ instantaneous cross-sectional area and change in length/ original length
(D) Load/ instantaneous area and instantaneous area/original area

16. A hollow shaft of same cross-section area as compared to a solid shaft transmit
(A) Same torque (B) Less torque (C) More torque (D) Unpredictable

17. A steel bar of 5 mm is heated from 25°C to 45°C and it is free to expand. The bar
will induce
(A) No stress (B) Shear stress (C) Tensile stress (D) Compressive stress

18. Two shafts ‘A’ and ‘B’ transmit the same power. The speed of shaft ‘A’ is 250
r.p.m. and that of shaft ‘B’ is 300 r.p.m.
(A) The shaft ‘B’ has the greater diameter(B) The shaft ‘A’ has the greater
diameter
(C) Both are of same diameter (D) None of these

19. The intensity of stress which causes unit strain is called

(A) Unit mass (B) Modulus of rigidity
(C) Bulk modulus (D) Modulus of Elasticity

20. A thick cylindrical shell having ro and ri as outer and inner radii, is subjected to
an internal pressure (p). The maximum tangential stress at the inner surface of the
shell is
(A) (ro² – ri²)/ 2p ri² (B) 2p ri²/ (ro² – ri²)
(C) p (ro² + ri²)/ (ro² – ri²) (D) p (ro² – ri²)/ (ro² + ri²)

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21. A vertical column has two moments of inertia (i.e. Ixx and Iyy ). The column will
tend to buckle in the direction of the
(A) Axis of load (B) Perpendicular to the axis of load
(C) Maximum moment of inertia (D) Minimum moment of inertia
22. Strain energy is the
(A) Energy stored in a body when strained within elastic limits
(B) Energy stored in a body when strained up to the breaking of a specimen
(C) Maximum strain energy which can be stored in a body
(D) Proof resilience per unit volume of a material
23. The neutral axis of the cross-section a beam is that axis at which the bending
stress is
(A) Zero (B) Minimum (C) Maximum (D) Infinity

24. A composite bar made up of steel and copper bars of equal lengths are heated
through 100°C. The stresses developed shall be
(A) Tensile in both the material (B) Tensile in steel and compressive in copper
(C) Compressive in steel and tensile in copper (D) Compressive in both the materials

25. Euler’s formula holds good only for

(A) Short columns (B) Long columns
(C) Both short and long columns (D) Weak columns

26. The bending moment at a point on a beam is the algebraic of all the
moments on either side of the point.
(A) Sum (B) Difference (C) Multiplication (D) None of the above

27. The maximum diameter of the hole that can be punched from a plate of maximum
shear stress 1/4th of its maximum crushing stress of punch, is equal to (where t =
Thickness of the plate)
(A) t (B) 2t (C) 4t (D) 8t

28. within elastic limit, stress is

(A) Inversely proportional to strain (B) Directly proportional to strain
(C) Square root of strain (D) Equal to strain

29. Two closely coiled helical springs ‘A’ and ‘B’ are equal in all respects but the
number of turns of spring ‘A’ is half that of spring ‘B’ The ratio of deflections in
spring ‘A’ to spring ‘B’ is
(A) 1/8 (B) ¼ (C) ½ (D) 2

30. The deformation per unit length is called

(A) Tensile stress (B) Compressive stress (C) Shear stress (D) Strain

31. The shape of cantilever for uniformly distributed load will be

(A) Straight line (B) Parabolic (C) Elliptical (D) Cubic

32. For a simply supported beam of length ‘l’, when a concentrated load W is applied
in the center of the beam, the maximum deflection is
(A) 5WL³/ 384EI (B) WL³/384EI (C) WL³/ 348EI (D) WL³/ 48EI

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33. The point of contra flexure is a point where

(A) Shear force changes sign (B) Shear force is maximum
(C) Bending moment changes sign (D) Bending moment is maximum

34. The maximum stress produced in a bar of tapering section is at

(A) Smaller end (B) Larger end (C) Middle (D) Anywhere

35. The ultimate tensile stress of mild steel compared to ultimate compressive
stress is
(A) Same (B) More (C) Less (D) Unpredictable

36. The energy stored in a body when strained within elastic limit is known as
(A) Resilience (B) Proof resilience(C) Strain energy(D) Impact energy

37. Modular ratio of two materials is the ratio of

(A) Strains (B) Stress and strain
(C) Shear stress and shear strain (D) Moduli and elasticity

38. In compression test, the fracture in cast iron specimen would occur along
(A) The axis of load (B) An oblique plane
(C) At right angles to the axis of specimen (D) Would not occur

39. A coil is cut into two halves, the stiffness of cut coil will be
(A) Double (B) Half (C) Same (D) None of these

40. The bending stress in a beam is section modulus.

(A) Inversely proportional to two times (B) Directly proportional to
(C) Inversely proportional to (D) None of these

41. When shear force at a point is zero, then bending moment is at that point.
(A) Zero (B) Minimum (C) Maximum (D) Infinity

42. Elasticity of Mild Steel specimen is defined by

(A) Hooke’s law (B) Yield point (C) Plastic flow (D) Proof stress

43. When a bar is cooled to -5°C, it will develop

(A) No stress (B) Shear stress (C) Tensile stress (D) Compressive stress

44. If the radius of wire stretched by a load is doubled, then its Young’s modulus will
be
(A) Doubled (B) Halved (C) Becomes four times (D) None of the above

45. In order to know whether a column is long or short, we must know its
(A) Ultimate shear stress of the column (B) Factor of safety
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(C) Torque resisting capacity (D) Slenderness ratio

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46. A masonry dam may fail due to

(A) Tension in the masonry of the dam and its base (B) Overturning of the
dam
(C) Crushing of masonry at the base of the dam (D) Any one of the above

47. Impact strength of a material is an index of its

(A) Toughness (B) Tensile strength
(C) Capability of being cold worked (D) Hardness

48. In order to prevent crushing of masonry at the base of the dam, the maximum
stress should be the permissible stress of the soil.
(A) Equal to (B) Less than (C) More than (D) None of these

49. Volumetric strain for a rectangular specimen of length ‘l’, breadth ‘b’ and
thickness ‘t’ subjected to a pull of ‘P’ is given by
(A) e (1 – 2m) (B) e (1 – 2/m) (C) e (m – 2) (D) e (2/m – 1)

50. When a body is subjected to two equal and opposite pushes, as a result of which
the body tends to reduce its length, then
(A) The stress and strain induced is compressive
(B) The stress and strain induced is tensile
(C) Both A and B is correct (D) None of these

51. A thin cylindrical shell of diameter (d) and thickness (t) is subjected to an internal
pressure (p). The ratio of longitudinal strain to volumetric strain is
(A) (m – 1)/ (2m – 1) (B) (2m – 1)/ (m – 1)
(C) (m – 2)/ (3m – 4) (D) (m – 2)/ (5m – 4)

52. Modulus of rigidity is defined as the ratio of

(A) Longitudinal stress to longitudinal strain
(B) Volumetric stress to volumetric strain
(C) Lateral stress to Lateral strain
(D) Shear stress to shear strain

53. In the torsion equation T/J = τ/r = Gθ/ L, the term J/R is called
(A) Shear modulus (B) Section modulus(C) Polar modulus(D) None of these

54. Strain re-setters are used to

(A) Measure shear strain (B) Measure linear strain
(C) Measure volumetric strain (D) Relieve strain

55. When a rectangular beam is loaded transversely, the maximum compressive

stress is developed on the
(A) Top layer (B) Bottom layer (C) Neutral axis (D) Every cross-section

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56. In a uniform bar, supported at one end in position, the maximum stress under self
weight of bar shall occur at the
(A) Middle of bar(B) Supported end(C) Bottom end(D) None of these

57. When both ends of a column are fixed, the effective length is
(A) Its own length (B) Twice its length(C) Half its length (D) 1/√2 × its length

58. A composite shaft consisting of two stepped portions having spring constants K₁
and K₂ is held between two rigid supports at the ends. Its equivalent spring constant
is
(A) K₁ K₂ (B) (K₁ + K₂)/ 2 (C) (K₁ + K₂)/ K₁ K₂ (D) K₁ K₂/ (K₁ + K₂)

59. Slenderness of a column is zero when

(A) Ends are firmly fixed(B)Column is supported on all sides throughout the
length
(C) Length is equal to radius of gyration (D) Length is twice the radius of
gyration

60. Resilience is the

(A) Energy stored in a body when strained within elastic limits
(B) Energy stored in a body when strained up to the breaking of the
specimen maximum strain
(C) Energy which can be stored in a body
(D) None of the above

61. When a closely-coiled helical spring of mean diameter(D) is subjected to an axial

load (W), the deflection of the spring(δ) is given by (where d= Diameter of spring wire,
n = No. of turns of the spring, and C = Modulus of rigidity for the spring material)
(A) WD3n/Cd⁴ (B) 2WD3n/Cd⁴ (C) 4WD3n/Cd⁴ (D) 8WD3n/Cd⁴

62. Percentage reduction of area in performing tensile test on cast iron may be of the
order of
(A) 50% (B) 25% (C) 0% (D) 15%

63. For the beam shown in the below figure, the shear force diagram between A and
B is

(A) A horizontal line (B) A vertical line (C) An inclined line(D) A parabolic curve

64. When a body is subjected to a direct tensile stress (σx) in one plane accompanied

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by a simple shear stress (τxy), the maximum normal stress is
(A) (σx/2) + (1/2) × √(σx² + 4 τ²xy) (B) (σx/2) – (1/2) × √(σx² + 4 τ²xy)
(C) (σx/2) + (1/2) × √(σx² – 4 τ²xy) (D) (1/2) × √(σx² + 4 τ²xy)

65. The materials which exhibit the same elastic properties in all directions are called
(A) Homogeneous (B) Inelastic (C) Isotropic (D) Isentropic
66. Modulus of rigidity may be defined as the ratio of
(A) Linear stress to lateral strain (B) Lateral strain to linear strain
(C) Linear stress to linear strain (D) Shear stress to shear strain

67. The ratio of lateral strain to the linear strain within elastic limit is known as
(A) Young’s modulus (B) Bulk modulus
(C) Modulus of rigidity (D) Poisson’s ratio

68. In the below figure, the plastic range occurs

(A) Before point A (B) Beyond point A

(C) Between points A and D (D) Between points D and E

69. Shear modulus is the ratio of

(A) Linear stress to linear strain (B) Linear stress to lateral strain
(C) Volumetric strain to linear strain (D) Shear stress to shear strain

70. The ratio of elongation in a prismatic bar due to its own weight (W) as compared
to another similar bar carrying an additional weight (W) will be
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 1 : 3 (C) 1 : 4 (D) 1 : 2.5

71. The weakest section of a diamond riveting is the section which passes through
(A) The first row (B) The second row
(C) The central row (D) One rivet hole of the end row

72. The shear force diagram for a simply supported beam carrying a uniformly
distributed load of w per unit length, consists of
(A) One right angled triangle (B) Two right angled triangles
(C) One equilateral triangle (D) Two equilateral triangles

73. Hooke’s law holds good up to

(A) Yield point(B) Limit of proportionality (C) Breaking point (D) Elastic limit

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74. Which of the following statement is correct?
(A) The stress is the pressure per unit area
(B) The strain is expressed in mm
(C) Hook’s law holds good up to the breaking point
(D) Stress is directly proportional to strain within elastic limit

75. The property of a material which allows it to be drawn into a smaller section is
called
(A) Plasticity (B) Ductility (C) Elasticity (D) Malleability

76. The percentage reduction in area of a cast iron specimen during tensile test
would be of the order of
(A) More than 50% (B) 25-50% (C) 10-25% (D) Negligible
77. The deformation of a bar under its own weight is the deformation, if
the same body is subjected to a direct load equal to weight of the body.
(A) Equal to (B) Half (C) Double (D) Quadruple

78. The ratio of maximum shear stress developed in a rectangular beam and a
circular beam of the same cross-sectional area is
(A) 2/3 (B) ¾ (C) 1 (D) 9/8

79. Formula based on IS codes is based on

(A) Straight line formula (B) Euler’s formula
(C) Rankine’s formula (D) Secant formula

80. Resilience of a material is considered when it is subjected to

(A) Frequent heat treatment (B) Fatigue (C) Creep (D) Shock loading

81. The buckling load for a given column depends upon

(A) Area of cross-section of the column
(B) Length and least radius of gyration of the column
(C) Modulus of elasticity for the material of the column
(D) All of the above
82. The shear force at the center of a simply supported beam with a gradually varying
load from zero at both ends to w per meter at the center, is
(A) Zero (B) wl/4 (C) wl/2 (D) wl²/2

83. A riveted joint in which the number otrivets decrease from innermost to outer
most rows is called
(A) Chain riveted joint (B) Diamond riveted joint
(C) Crisscross riveted joint (D) Zigzag riveted joint

84. A closely-coiled helical spring is cut into two halves. The stiffness of the resulting
spring will be
(A) Same (B) Double (C) Half (D) One-fourth

85. The torsional rigidity of a shaft is expressed by the

(A) Maximum torque it can transmit
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(B) Number of cycles it undergoes before failure
(C) Elastic limit up to which it resists torsion, shear and bending stresses
(D) Torque required to produce a twist of one radian per unit length of shaft

86. The limit of eccentricity for no tensile conditions for a column of circular section
of diameter (d) is
(A) d/4 (B) d/8 (C) d/12 (D) d/16
87. The property of a material by virtue of which a body returns to its original, shape
after removal of the load is called
(A) Plasticity (B) Elasticity (C) Ductility (D) Malleability

88. The state of stress at a point in a loaded member is shown in the below figure.
The magnitude of maximum shear stress is

(A) 10 MPa (B) 30 MPa (C) 50 MPa (D) 100 MPa

89. For a beam, as shown in the below figure, the deflection at C is (where E =
Young’s modulus for the beam material, and I = Moment of inertia of the beam
section.)

(A) Wl3/48 EI (B) Wa²b²/3EIl (C) [Wa/(a√3) x EIl] x (l² – a²)3/2 (D) 5Wl3/384
EI

90. A concentrated load is one which

(A) Acts at a point on a beam
(B) Spreads non-uniformly over the whole length of a beam
(C) Spreads uniformly over the whole length of a beam
(D) Varies uniformly over the whole length of a beam

91. The stress necessary to initiate yielding is

(A) Considerably greater than that necessary to continue it
(B) Considerably lesser than that necessary to continue it
(C) Greater than that necessary to stop it

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(D) Lesser than that necessary to stop it

92. A lap joint is always in shear.

(A) Single (B) Double (C) Both A and B (D) None of these

93. When it is indicated that a member is elastic, it means that when force is applied,
it will
(A) Not deform (B) Be safest (C) Stretch (D) Not stretch

94. For a beam, as shown in the below figure, when the load W is applied in the
center of the beam, the maximum deflection is

(A) Wl3 / 48EI (B) 5Wl3 / 384EI (C) Wl3 / 392EI (D) Wl3 / 384EI

95. The relation between Young’s modulus (E), shear modulus (C) and bulk modulus
(K) is given by
(A) E = 3K.C/(3K + C) (B) E = 6K.C/(3K + C)
(C) E = 9K.C/(3K + C) (D) E = 12K.C/(3K + C)

96. The distance between the centers of the rivets in adjacent rows of zigzag riveted
joint is known as
(A) Pitch (B) Back pitch (C) Diagonal pitch (D) Diametric pitch

97. In the below figure, the stress corresponding to point ‘D’ is

(A) Yield point stress (B) Breaking stress

(C) Ultimate stress (D) Elastic limit

98. A body is subjected to a direct tensile stress of 300 MPa in one plane
accompanied by a simple shear stress of 200 MPa. The maximum shear stress will be
(A) -100 MPa (B) 250 MPa (C) 300 MPa (D) 400 MPa
99. A cylindrical section having no joint is known as

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(A) Joint less section (B) Homogeneous section
(C) Perfect section (D) Seamless section

100. A beam which is fixed at one end and free at the other is called
(A) Simply supported beam (B) Fixed beam
(C) Overhanging beam (D) Cantilever beam

101. The neutral axis of a transverse section of a beam passes through the centre of
gravity of the section and is
(A) In the vertical plane (B) In the horizontal plane
(C) In the same plane in which the beam bends
(D) At right angle to the plane in which the beam bends

102. The value of Poisson’s ratio for steel is between

(A) 0.01 to 0.1 (B) 0.23 to 0.27 (C) 0.25 to 0.33 (D) 0.4 to 0.6

103. The columns whose slenderness ratio is less than 80, are known as
(A) Short columns (B) Long columns (C) Weak columns (D) Medium columns

104. The stress developed in a material at breaking point in extension is called

(A) Breaking stress (B) Fracture stress (C) Yield point stress(D) Ultimate tensile stress

105. For riveting, the size of hole drilled in plates is shank diameter of
rivet.
(A) Equal to (B) Less than (C) Greater than (D) None of these

106. Proof resilience per material is known as

(A) Resilience(B) Proof resilience(C) Modulus of resilience (D) Toughness

107. The capacity of a strained body for doing work on the removal of the straining
force, is called
(A) Strain energy (B) Resilience (C) Proof resilience (D) Impact energy

108. In a tensile test on mild steel specimen, the breaking stress as compared to
ultimate tensile stress is
(A) More (B) Less (C) Same (D) More/less depending on composition

109. A column of length (l) with both ends fixed may be considered as equivalent to a
column of length with both ends hinged.
(A) l/8 (B) l/4 (C) l/2 (D) l

110. If the depth is kept constant for a beam of uniform strength, then its width will
vary in proportional to
(A) Bending moment (i.e. M) (B) Bending moment² (i.e. M²)
(C) Bending moment³ (i.e. M³) (D) Bending moment⁴ (i.e. M⁴)

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111. In a tensile test, near the elastic limit zone, the

(A) Tensile strain increases more quickly
(B) Tensile strain decreases more quickly
(C) Tensile strain increases in proportion to the stress
(D) Tensile strain decreases in proportion to the stress

112. The pull required to crush the rivet per pitch length is
(A) p.t.σt (B) d.t.σc (C) π/4 × d² × σt (D) π/4 × d² × σc

113. The total strain energy stored in a body is termed as

(A) Resilience(B) Proof resilience (C) Modulus of resilience(D) Toughness

114. The extension of a circular bar tapering uniformly from diameter d ₁ at one end to
diameter d₂ at the other end and subjected to an axial pull of ‘P’ is given by
(A) δl = 4PE/ πl² (B) δl = 4πld²/PE (C) δl = 4Pl/πEd₁d₂ (D) δl = 4PlE/ πd₁d₂

115. The maximum bending moment for the beam shown in the below figure, is

(A) wl²/3√3 (B) wl²/6√3 (C) wl²/9√3 (D) wl²/12√3

116. Efficiency of a riveted joint is the ratio of its strength (max. load it can resist
without failure) to the strength of the unpunched plate in
(A) Tension (B) Compression (C) Bearing (D) Any one of the above

117. The pull required to tear off the plate per pitch length is (where p = Pitch of
rivets, t = Thickness of plates, and σt, τ and σc = Permissible tensile, shearing and
crushing stresses respectively)
(A) (p – 2d) t × σc (B) (p – d) t × τ (C) (p – d) t × σt (D)
(2p – d) t × σt

118. In a belt drive, the pulley diameter is doubled, the belt tension and pulley width
remaining same. The changes required in key will be
(A) Increase key length (B) Increase key depth
(C) Increase key width (D) Double all the dimensions

119. In the below figure, curve D represents .

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(A) Mild steel (B) Cast iron (C) Concrete (D) Bone of these

120. The bending moment of a cantilever beam of length ‘l’ and carrying a uniformly
distributed load of ‘w’ per unit length is at the fixed end.
(A) wl/4 (B) wl/2 (C) wl (D) wl²/2

121. Young’s modulus is defined as the ratio of

(A) Volumetric stress and volumetric strain
(B) Lateral stress and lateral strain
(C) Longitudinal stress and longitudinal strain
(D) Shear stress to shear strain
122. The layer at the center of gravity of the beam as shown in the below figure, will
be

(A) In tension (B) In compression

(C) Neither in tension nor in compression (D) None of these

123. When a body is subjected to a direct tensile stress (σx) in one plane
accompanied by a simple shear stress (τxy), the minimum normal stress is
(A) (σx/2) + (1/2) × √(σx² + 4 τ²xy) (B) (σx/2) – (1/2) × √(σx² + 4 τ²xy)
(C) (σx/2) + (1/2) × √(σx² – 4 τ²xy) (D) (1/2) × √(σx² + 4 τ²xy)

124. Tensile strength of a material is obtained by dividing the maximum load during
the test by the
(A) Area at the time of fracture (B) Original cross-sectional area
(C) Average of (A) and (B) (D) Minimum area after fracture

125. The section modulus of a circular section about an axis through its C.G., is
(A) πd²/4 (B) πd²/16 (C) πd3/16 (D) πd3/32

126. If a part is constrained to move and heated, it will develop

(A) Principal stress (B) Tensile stress (C) Compressive stress(D) Shear stress

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127. The moment of resistance of a balanced reinforced concrete beam is based on
the stresses in
(A) Steel only(B) Concrete only (C) Steel and concrete both(D) None of these

128. The property of a material by virtue of which it can be beaten or rolled into plates
is called
(A) Malleability (B) Ductility (C) Plasticity (D) Elasticity

129. In case of an under-reinforced beam, the depth of actual neutral axis is

that of the critical neutral axis.
(A) Same as (B) Less than (C) Greater than (D) None of these

130. The energy absorbed in a body, when it is strained within the elastic limits, is
known as
(A) Strain energy(B) Resilience(C) Proof resilience(D) Modulus of resilience

131. A simply supported beam with a gradually varying load from zero at ‘B’ and ‘w’
per unit length at ‘A’ is shown in the below figure. The shear force at ‘B’ is equal to

(A) wl/6 (B) wl/3 (C) wl (D) 2wl/3

132. A fletched beam is used to

(A) Change the shape of the beam
(B) Effect the saving in material
(C) Equalize the strength in tension and compression
(D) Increase the cross-section of the beam
133. Percentage reduction in area performing tensile test on cast iron may be of the
order of
(A) 50% (B) 25% (C) 20% (D) 30%

134. A beam is loaded as cantilever. If the load at the end is increased, the failure will
occur
(A) In the middle (B) At the tip below the load
(C) At the support (D) Anywhere

135. The assumption made in Euler’s column theory is that

(A) The failure of column occurs due to buckling alone
(B) The length of column is very large as compared to its cross-sectional
dimensions
(C) The column material obeys Hooke’s law

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(D) All of the above

136. If the rivets in adjacent rows are staggered and the outermost row has only one
rivets, the arrangement of the rivets is called
(A) Chain riveting(B) Zigzag riveting(C) Diamond riveting(D) Crisscross riveting

137. The point of contraflexure is a point where

(A) Shear force changes sign (B) Bending moment changes sign
(C) Shear force is maximum (D) Bending moment is maximum

138. The value of shear stress which is induced in the shaft due to the applied couple
varies
(A) From maximum at the center to zero at the circumference
(B) From zero at the center to maximum at the circumference
(C) From maximum at the center to minimum at the circumference
(D) From minimum at the center to maximum at the circumference

139. The extremities of any diameter on Mohr’s circle represent

(A) Principal stresses (B) Normal stresses on planes at 45°
(C) Shear stresses on planes at 45° (D) Normal and shear stresses on a plane

140. The materials having same elastic properties in all directions are called
(A) Ideal materials(B)Uniform materials (C)Isotropic materials(D)Piratical
materials

141. The ratio of the largest load in a test to the original cross-sectional area of the
test piece is called
(A) Elastic limit (B) Yield stress (C) Ultimate stress (D) Breaking stress

142. A column is said to be a short column, when

(A) Its length is very small
(B) Its cross-sectional area is small
(C) The ratio of its length to the least radius of gyration is less than 80
(D) The ratio of its length to the least radius of gyration is more than 80

143. The total elongation produced in a bar of uniform section hanging vertically
downwards due to its own weight is equal to that produced by a weight
(A) Of same magnitude as that of bar and applied at the lower end
(B) Half the weight of bar applied at lower end
(C) Half of the square of weight of bar applied at lower end
(D) One fourth of weight of bar applied at lower end

144. The lower layer of the beam as shown in the below figure, will be

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(A) In tension (B) In compression

(C) Neither in tension nor in compression (D) None of these

145. The tensile strength of the welded joint for double fillet is (where s = Leg or size
of the weld, l = Length of weld, and σt = Allowable tensile stress for weld metal)
(A) 0.5 s.l.σt (B) s.l.σt (C) √2 s.l.σt (D) 2.s.l.σt

146. If a material expands freely due to heating it will develop

(A) Thermal stresses (B) Tensile stress (C) Bending (D) No stress

147. When a body is subjected to biaxial stress i.e. direct stresses (σx) and (σy) in
two mutually perpendicular planes accompanied by a simple shear stress (τxy), then
maximum normal stress is
(A) (σx + σy)/2 + (1/2) × √[(σx – σy)² + 4 τ²xy]
(B) (σx + σy)/2 – (1/2) × √[(σx – σy)² + 4 τ²xy]
(C) (σx – σy)/2 + (1/2) × √[(σx + σy)² + 4 τ²xy]
(D) (σx – σy)/2 – (1/2) × √[(σx + σy)² + 4 τ²xy]

148. The stress at which extension of the material takes place more quickly as
compared to the increase in load is called
(A) Elastic point of the material (B) Plastic point of the material
(C) Breaking point of the material (D) Yielding point of the material

149. A cantilever beam is one which is

(A) Fixed at both ends (B) Fixed at one end and free at the other end
(C) Supported at its ends (D) Supported on more than two supports

150. In a prismatic member made of two materials so joined that they deform equally
under axial stress, the unit stresses in two materials are
(A) Equal
(B) Proportional to their respective moduli of elasticity
(C) Inversely proportional to their moduli of elasticity
(D) Average of the sum of moduli of elasticity

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STRENGTH OF MATERIALS - ANSWER KEY

Q.NO ANS Q.NO ANS Q.NO ANS Q.NO ANS Q.NO ANS
1 B 31 B 61 D 91 A 121 C
2 B 32 D 62 C 92 A 122 C
3 B 33 C 63 D 93 C 123 B
4 A 34 A 64 A 94 A 124 B
5 C 35 B 65 C 95 C 125 D
6 A 36 C 66 D 96 C 126 C
7 C 37 D 67 D 97 C 127 C
8 C 38 B 68 B 98 B 128 A
9 A 39 A 69 D 99 D 129 B
10 C 40 C 70 B 100 D 130 A
11 B 41 C 71 D 101 D 131 A
12 A 42 C 72 B 102 C 132 C
13 D 43 D 73 B 103 A 133 C
14 B 44 D 74 D 104 A 134 D
15 B 45 D 75 B 105 C 135 C
16 C 46 D 76 D 106 C 136 B
17 A 47 A 77 B 107 B 137 B
18 B 48 B 78 D 108 B 138 B
19 D 49 B 79 D 109 C 139 B
20 C 50 A 80 D 110 A 140 C
21 D 51 D 81 D 111 A 141 C
22 A 52 D 82 A 112 B 142 C
23 A 53 C 83 B 113 A 143 B
24 D 54 B 84 B 114 C 144 A
25 B 55 B 85 D 115 C 145 C
26 A 56 B 86 B 116 A 146 D
27 C 57 C 87 B 117 C 147 A
28 B 58 A 88 C 118 C 148 D
29 C 59 D 89 B 119 A 149 B
30 D 60 D 90 A 120 D 150 B

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Machine Design Multiple Choice Questions

1. The ratio of belt tensions (p1/p2) considering centrifugal force in flat belt is
given by
Where m = mass of belt per meter (kg/m)
v = belt velocity (m/s)
f = coefficient of friction
a = angle of wrap (radians)
A. (P1 – mv²)/ (P2 – mv²) = eᶠα
B. P1 / P2 = eᶠα
C. P1 / P2 = e–ᶠα
D. (P1 – mv²)/ (P2 – mv²) = e–ᶠα

2. The ultimate strength of steel in tension in comparison to shear is in the ratio of

A. 1: 1
B. 2:1
C. 3: 2
D. 2: 3

3. In radial cams, the follower moves

A. In a direction parallel to the cam axis
B. In a direction perpendicular to the cam axis
C. In any direction irrespective of cam axis
D. Along the cam axis

4. The permissible stress for carbon steel under static loading is generally taken as
A. 2000-3000 kg/m²
B. 3000-4000 kg/cm²
C. 4000-4500 kg/cm²
D. 7500-10,000 kg/cm²

5. The property of a material which enables it to resist fracture due to high impact
loads is known as
A. Elasticity
B. Endurance
C. Strength
D. Toughness

6. In replacing the V-belts, a complete set of new belts is used instead of replacing a
single damaged belt because
A. Belts are available in sets
B. Only one belt cannot be fitted with other used belts
C. The new belt will carry more than its share and result in short life
D. New and old belts will cause vibrations

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7. A hot short metal is

A. Brittle when cold
B. Brittle when hot
C. Brittle under all conditions
D. Ductile at high temperature

8. In case of pressure vessels having closed ends, the fluid pressure induces
A. Longitudinal stress
B. Shear stress
C. Circumferential stress
D. None of these

9. Guest’s theory of failure is applicable for following type of materials

A. Brittle
B. Ductile
C. Elastic
D. Plastic

10. A V-belt designated as B 4430 LP has

A. 4430 mm as diameter of small pulley
B. 4430 mm as nominal pitch length
C. 4430 mm as diameter of large pulley
D. 4430 mm as centre distance between pulleys

11. Rankine’s theory of failure is applicable for following type of materials

A. Brittle
B. Ductile
C. Elastic
D. Plastic

12. Screws used for power transmission should have

A. Very fine threads
B. High efficiency
C. Low efficiency
D. Strong teeth

13. The value of stress concentration factor depends upon

A. Material and geometry of the part
B. Geometry of the part
C. Material of the part
D. None of these

14. Tensile strength of a mild steel specimen can be roughly predicted from following
hardness test
A. Brinell
B. Rockwell
C. Vickers
D. None of the above

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15. Resilience of a material is important, when it is subjected to

A. Combined loading
B. Fatigue
C. Thermal stresses
D. Shock loading

16. The sleeve or muff coupling is designed as a

A. Dun cylinder
B. Hollow shaft
C. Solid shaft
D. Thick cylinder

17. In a flange coupling, the flanges are coupled together by means of

A. Bolts and nuts
B. Studs
C. Headless taper bolts
D. None of these

18. If a load W is applied instantaneously on a bar; Then the stress induced in bar will
A. Be independent of ratio of mass of load W to mass of bar (y)
B. Increase with increase in y
C. Decrease with decrease in y
D. Depend on other considerations

19. According to Indian standard specifications, 100 H6/g5 means that the
A. Basic size is 100 mm
B. Actual size is 100 mm
C. Difference between the actual size and basic size is 100 mm
D. None of the above

20. The power transmitted by the belt drive can be increased by

A. Increasing the initial tension in the belt
B. Dressing the belt to increase the coefficient of friction
C. Increasing wrap angle by using idler pulley
D. All of the above methods

21. Surface endurance limit of gear material is dependent upon its

A. Elastic strength
B. Yield strength
C. Brinell hardness number
D. Toughness

22. When bevel gears connect two shafts whose axes intersect at an angle greater
than a right angle and one of the bevel gears has a pitch angle of 90°, then they are
known as
A. Crown bevel gears
B. Angular bevel gears
C. Mitre gears

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D. Internal bevel gears

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23. Brittle coating technique is used for

A. Determining brittleness
B. Protecting metal against corrosion
C. Protecting metal against wear and tear
D. Experimental stress analysis

24. Stress concentration is caused due to

A. Variation in properties of material from point to point in a member
B. Pitting at points or areas at which loads on a member are applied
C. Abrupt change of section
D. All of the above

25. The endurance limit of a material with finished surface in comparison to rough
surface is
A. More
B. Less
C. Same
D. More or less depending on quantum of load

26. When screw threads are to be used in a situation where power is being
transmitted in one direction only, then the screw threads suitable for this will be
A. Knuckle threads
B. Square threads
C. Acme threads
D. Buttress threads

27. Slenderness ratio is the ratio of

A. Effective length of column to least radius of gyration of the column
B. Width of column to depth of column
C. Maximum size of column to minimum size of column
D. Effective length of column to width of column

28. Plastic flow in ductile materials

A. Increases the seriousness of static loading stress concentration
B. Lessens the seriousness of static loading stress concentration
C. Has no effect on it
D. Depends on other considerations

29. The size of a gear is usually specified by

A. Pressure angle
B. Pitch circle diameter
C. Circular pitch
D. Diametral pitch

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30. When the speed of belt increases,

A. The coefficient of friction between the belt and pulley decreases
B. The coefficient of friction between the belt and pulley increases
C. The power transmitted will decrease
D. The power transmitted will increase

31. The load cup of a screw jack is made separate from the head of the spindle to
A. Prevent the rotation of load being lifted
B. Enhance the load carrying capacity of the jack
C. Reduce the effort needed for lifting the working load
D. Reduce the value of frictional torque

32. The centrifugal tension in belts

A. Decreases the power transmitted
B. Increases the power transmitted
C. Increase the wrap angle
D. Increases the belt tension without increasing power transmission

33. Stress concentration in cyclic loading is more serious in

A. Ductile materials
B. Brittle materials
C. Equally serious in both cases
D. Depends on other factors

34. Endurance limit or fatigue limit is the maximum stress that a member can
withstand for an infinite number of load applications without failure when subjected
to
A. Dynamic loading
B. Static loading
C. Combined static and dynamic loading
D. Completely reversed loading

35. An Involute pinion and gear are in mesh. If both have the same size of addendum,
then there will be interference between the
A. Tip of the pinion and flank of gear
B. Tip of the gear and flank of pinion
C. Flanks of both gear and pinion
D. Tip of both gear and pinion

36. Pick up wrong statement. Fatigue strength can be increased by

A. Cold working
B. Shot peening
C. Grinding and lapping surface
D. Hot working

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37. Which of the following is not correct procedure to increase the fatigue limit?
A. Cold working
B. Shot peening
C. Surface decarburisation
D. Under stressing

38. Which of the following screw thread is used for power transmission in one
direction only?
A. Square threads
B. Multiple threads
C. Acme threads
D. Buttress threads

39. Coaxing is the procedure of increasing

A. Metal strength by cycling
B. Metal hardness by surface treatment
C. Metal resistance to corrosion by coating
D. Fatigue limit by over-stressing the metal by successively increasing loadings

40. Which of the following statement is correct for gears?

A. The pitch circle diameter is equal to the product of module and number of teeth
B. The addendum is less than dedendum
C. The pitch circle is always greater than the base circle
D. All of the above

41. The belt slip occurs due to

A. Heavy load
B. Loose belt
C. Driving pulley too small
D. Any one of the above

42. Which is correct statement? Stress concentration in static loading is

A. Very serious in brittle materials and less serious in ductile materials
B. Very serious in ductile materials and less serious in brittle materials
C. Equally serious in both types of materials
D. Seriousness would depend on other factors

43. The cracks in helical springs used in railway carriages usually start on the inner
side of the coil because of the fact that
A. It is subjected to a higher cyclic loading than the outer side
B. It is subjected to a higher stress than the outer side
C. It is more stretched than the outer side during the manufacturing process
D. It has a lower curvature than the outer side

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44. The notch angle of the Izod impact test specimen is

A. 10°
B. 20°
C. 30°
D. 45°

45. In Vickers hardness testing, the pyramid indentor apex is

A. 40°
B. 122°
C. 136°
D. 152°

46. The toughness of a material when it is heated

A. Does not change
B. Increases
C. Decreases
D. None of the Above

47. The number of slots in a 25 mm castle nut is

A. 8
B. 6
C. 4
D. 2

48. When bevel gears connect two shafts whose axes intersect at an angle greater
than a right angle and one of the bevel gears has a pitch angle of 90°, then they are
known as
A. Angular bevel gears
B. Mitre gears
C. Internal bevel gears
D. Crown bevel gears

49. The rolling contact bearings are known as

A. Thick lubricated bearings
B. Plastic bearings
C. Antifriction bearings
D. Thin lubricated bearings

50. Cold working

A. Increases the fatigue strength
B. Decreases the fatigue strength
C. Has no influence on fatigue strength
D. Alone has no influence on fatigue strength

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51. Yield point in fatigue loading as compared to static loading is

A. Same
B. Higher
C. Lower
D. Depends on other factors

52. The arms of the pulleys for flat belt drive have
A. Elliptical cross-section
B. Major axis in plane of rotation
C. Major axis twice the minor axis
D. All the three characteristics

53. Residual stress in materials

A. Acts when external load is applied
B. Becomes zero when external load is removed
C. Is independent of external loads
D. Is always harmful

54. In a marine flange coupling, the thickness of flange is taken as

A. d/2
B. d/3
C. 3d/4
D. d/4

55. The building up of worn and undersized parts, subjected to repeated loads by
electroplating is
A. Best method
B. Extremely hazardous
C. Has no effect as regards fatigue strength
D. Cheapest method

56. In nitrated parts, the origins of the fatigue cracks will occur at
A. Surface
B. Just below the surface
C. Within the core
D. None of the above

57. The objective of idler pulley in belt drive is to

A. Decrease the tendency of belt to slip
B. Increase the power transmission capacity
C. Increase the wrap angle and belt tension
D. All the above objectives

58. The constant factor in case of R10 series of preferred numbers is

A. 1.06
B. 1.12
C. 1.26
D. 1.58
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59. Which one of the following is a positive drive?

A. V-belt drive
B. Rope drive
C. Crossed flat belt drive
D. Chain drive

60. Which process will increase the fatigue duration of parts?

A. Finishing and polishing
B. Shot-peening
C. De-carburisation
D. Electroplating

61. In most machine members, the damping capacity of the material should be
A. Low
B. Zero
C. High
D. Could be anything

62. For unequal width of butt straps, the thicknesses of butt straps are
A. 0.75 t for narrow strap on the inside and 0.625 t for wide strap on the outside
B. 0.75 t for wide strap on the inside and 0.625 t for narrow strap on the outside
C. 0.75 t for both the straps on the inside and outside
D. 0.625 t for both the straps on the inside and outside

63. The ratio of endurance limit in shear to the endurance limit in flexure is
A. 0.33
B. 0.4
C. 0.5
D. 0.55

64. The backlash for spur gears depends upon

A. Module
B. Tooth profile
C. Both module and pitch line velocity
D. Pitch line velocity

65. A transmission shaft includes

A. Over head shaft
B. Counter shaft
C. Line shaft
D. All of these

66. The groove angle of pulleys for V-belt is

A. 340 to 360
B. 420 to 450
C. More than 400
D. 300 to 320
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67. In unilateral system of tolerance, the tolerance is allowed on

A. Both sides of the actual size
B. One side of the actual size
C. One side of the nominal size
D. Both sides of the nominal size

68. In order to avoid tearing of the plate at an edge, the distance from the centre line
of the rivet hole to the nearest edge of the plate should be equal to (where d =
Diameter of rivet hole)
A. d
B. 1.5 d
C. 2.5 d
D. 2 d

69. For steel, the ultimate strength in shear as compared to ultimate strength in
tension is
A. 1/2
B. 1/3
C. 1/4
D. 2/3

70. The endurance limit in shear of carbon steel can be obtained by multiplying the
endurance limit in flexure by a factor of
A. 0.45
B. 0.55
C. 0.65
D. 0.75

71. A locking device in which the bottom cylindrical portion is recessed to receive the
tip of the locking set screw, is called
A. Ring nut
B. Castle nut
C. Sawn nut
D. Jam nut

72. A taper key which fits half in the key way of the hub and half in the key way of
shaft, is known as
A. Angular bevel gears
B. Mitre gears
C. Crown Bevel gears
D. Internal bevel gears

73. At low temperatures (say 75°C) the notched bar impact value of steel
A. Increases markedly
B. Decreases markedly
C. Remain same
D. Depends on heat treatment carried out

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74. The taper on cotter varies from

A. 1 in 24 to 1 in 20
B. 1 in 15 to 1 in 10
C. 1 in 32 to 1 in 24
D. 1 in 48 to 1 in 24

75. A bolt
A. Has a head on one end and a nut fitted to the other
B. Has head at one end and other end fits into a tapped hole in the other part to be
joined
C. Has both the ends threaded
D. Is provided with pointed threads

76. If P1 and P2 are the tight and slack side tensions in the belt, then the initial
tension Pi (according to Barth) will be equal to (Where, Pc is centrifugal tension)
A. [(√P1 + √P2)/2]²
B. P1 + P2
C. ⅟2 × (P1 + P2)
D. [⅟2 × (P1 + P2)] + Pc

77. A stud
A. Has a head on one end and a nut fitted to the other
B. Has head at one end and other end fits into a tapped hole in the other part to be
joined
C. Has both the ends threaded
D. Has pointed threads

78. Shear stress theory is applicable for

A. Ductile materials
B. Brittle materials
C. Elastic materials
D. All of the above

79. When the shaft rotates in anticlockwise direction at slow speed in a bearing, it will
A. Have contact at the bottom most of the bearing
B. Move towards right of the bearing making no metal to metal contact
C. Move towards right of the bearing making the metal to metal contact
D. Move towards left of the bearing making metal to metal contact

80. A tap bolt

A. Has a head on one end and a nut fitted to the other
B. Has head at one end and other end fits into a tapped hole in the other part to be
joined
C. Has both the ends threaded
D. Has pointed threads

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81. For applications involving high stresses in one direction only the following type
of thread would be best suited
A. ISO metric thread
B. Acme thread
C. Square thread
D. Buttress thread

82. In a horizontal flat belt drive, it is customary to use

A. Bottom side of belt as slack side
B. Top side of belt as slack side
C. Idler pulley
D. None of the above

83. The included angle in unified of American National threads is

A. 60°
B. 55°
C. 47°
D. 29°

84. For a shaft diameter of 200 mm, the number of bolts in a marine flange coupling
should be
A. 8
B. 6
C. 4
D. 10

85. The function of a washer is to

A. Provide cushioning effect
B. Provide bearing area
C. Absorb shocks and vibrations
D. Provide smooth surface in place of rough surface

86. Cap screws are

A. Similar to small size tap bolts except that a greater variety of shapes of
heads are available
B. Slotted for a screw driver and generally used with a nut
C. Used to prevent relative motion between parts
D. Provided with detachable caps

87. If P1 and P2 are the tight and slack side tensions in the belt, then the initial
tension Pi (neglecting centrifugal tension) will be equal to (Where, Pc is centrifugal
tension)
A. P1 – P2
B. P1 + P2
C. ⅟2 × (P1 + P2)
D. [⅟2 × (P1 + P2)] + Pc

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88. An alien bolt is

A. Self locking bolt
B. Same as stud
C. Provided with hexagonal depression in head
D. Used in high speed components

89. The deflection of a cantilever beam under load W is 8. If its width is halved, then
the deflection under load W will be
A. 2/8
B. 8/2
C. 4/8
D. 8/4

90. Ball bearing type screws are found in following application

A. Screw jack
B. Aeroplane engines
C. Crane
D. Steering mechanism

91. Machine screws are

A. Similar to small size tap bolts except that a greater variety of shapes of
heads are available
B. Slotted for a screw driver and generally used with a nut
C. Used to prevent relative motion between two parts
D. Similar to stud

92. A machine part subjected to is called a strut.

A. An axial compressive force
B. A tangential force
C. An axial tensile force
D. Any one of these

93. Rivets are generally specified by

A. Thickness of plates to be riveted
B. Length of rivet
C. Diameter of head
D. Nominal diameter

94. The edges of a boiler plate are bevelled to an angle of

A. 30°
B. 45°
C. 60°
D. 80°

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95. The stress induced in the belt is,

A. Tensile stress
B. Compressive stress
C. Direct shear stress
D. Torsional shear stress

96. Which of the following is a permanent fastening?

A. Bolts
B. Keys
C. Cotters
D. Rivets

97. In order to avoid tearing of the plate at edge, the distance from the center line of
the rivet hole to the nearest edge of the plate in terms of dia. of rivet d should be
equal to
A. d
B. 1.25 d
C. 1.5 d
D. 1.75 d

98. The dedendum circle diameter is equal to (where φ = Pressure angle)

A. Pitch circle diameter × cosφ
B. Addendum circle diameter × cosφ
C. Clearance circle diameter × cosφ
D. Pitch circle diameter × sinφ

99. If the tearing efficiency of a riveted joint is 75%, then the ratio of diameter of rivet
to the pitch is equal to
A. 0.2
B. 0.25
C. 0.50
D. 0.6

100. Transverse fillet welded joints are designed for

A. Tensile strength
B. Compressive strength
C. Shear strength
D. Bending strength

101. A sliding bearing which can support steady loads without any relative motion
between the journal and the bearing, is called
A. Hydrostatic lubricated bearing
B. Hydrodynamic lubricated bearing
C. Boundary lubricated bearing
D. Zero film bearing
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102. Jam nut is a locking device in which

A. One smaller nut is tightened over main nut and main nut tightened against
smaller one by loosening, creating friction jamming
B. A slot is cut partly in middle of nut and then slot reduced by tightening a screw
C. A hard fibre or nylon cotter is recessed in the nut and becomes threaded
as the nut is screwed on the bolt causing a tight grip
D. Through slots are made at top and a cotter pin is passed through these and a
hole in the bolt, and cotter spitted and bent in reverse direction at other end

103. When the belt is transmitting maximum power, the belt speed should be
(Where, m = mass of belt per meter (kg/m) and Pmax = maximum permissible tension
in belt (N))
A. √(Pmax / 2m)
B. √(Pmax / 3m)
C. √(Pmax / m)
D. √(3m /Pmax)

104. The pitch of threads on a Jock nut in comparison to pitch of nut is

A. Same
B. Coarser
C. Finer
D. Very fine

105. Buttress threads are usually found on

A. Screw cutting lathes
B. Feed mechanisms
C. Spindles of bench vices
D. Railway carriage couplings

106. A tapered key which fits in a key-way in the hub and is flat on the shaft, is known
as
A. Woodruff key
B. Feather key
C. Flat saddle key
D. Gib head key

107. Fibrous fracture occurs in

A. Ductile material
B. Brittle material
C. Elastic material
D. Hard material

108. When the belt is transmitting maximum power,

A. The tension in tight side is twice the centrifugal tension
B. The tension in slack side is equal to the centrifugal tension
C. The tension in tight side is thrice the centrifugal tension
D. None of the above
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109. Turn buckle has

A. Right hand threads on bout ends
B. Left hand threads on both ends
C. Left hand threads on one end and right hand threads on other end
D. No threads

110. Eye bolts are used for

A. Foundation purposes
B. Absorbing shock and vibrations
C. Transmission of power
D. Lifting and transportation of machines and cubicles

111. The contact ratio is the ratio of

A. Length of arc of recess to the circular pitch
B. Length of path of contact to the circular pitch
C. Length of arc of contact to the circular pitch
D. Length of arc of approach to the circular pitch

112. Elastic nut is a locking device in which

A. One small nut is tightened over main nut and main nut tightened against
smaller one by loosening, creating friction jamming
B. A slot is cut partly in middle of nut and then slot reduced by tightening a screw
C. Hard fibre or nylon cotter is recessed in the nut and becomes threaded as
the nut is stewed on the bolt causing a tight grip
D. Through slots are made at top and a cotter pin is passed through these and a
hole in the bolt, and cotter pin splitted and bent in reverse direction at other
end

113. If d is the normal diameter of a bolt in mm, then the initial tension in kg in a bolt
used for making a fluid tight joint as for steam engine cover joint is calculated by the
relation
A. 124 d
B. 138 d
C. 151 d
D. 168 d

114. Which of the following statement is correct?

A. The stress concentration in static loading is more serious in ductile
materials and less serious in brittle materials
B. The stress concentration in static loading is more serious in brittle materials
and less serious in ductile materials
C. The toughness of a material increases when it is heated
D. The shear stress in a beam varies from zero at the neutral surface and
maximum at the outer fibres
115. If threads on a bolt are left hand, threads on nut will be
A. Right hand with same pitch
B. Left hand with same pitch
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C. Could be left or right hand
D. Right hand with fine pitch

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116. Taper usually provided on cotter is

A. 1 in 5
B. 1 in 10
C. 1 in 24
D. 1 in 40

117. The condition for maximum power transmission is that the maximum tension in
the flat belt should be equal to (Where, Pc =
tension in belt due to centrifugal force)
A. 3 Pc
B. Pc
C. Pc/3
D. 2 Pc

118. Applications in which stresses are encountered in one direction only uses
following type of threads
A. Metric
B. Buttress
C. Acme
D. Square

119. The draw of cotter need not exceed

A. 3 mm
B. 5 mm
C. 10 mm
D. 20 mm

120. A bench vice has following type of threads

A. Metric
B. Square
C. Buttress
D. Acme

121. The function of cutting oil when threading a pipe is to

A. Provide cooling action
B. Lubricate the dies
C. Help removes chips
D. All of the above

122. Which of the following statement is wrong?

A. The V-belt may be operated in either direction with tight side of the belt
at the top or bottom
B. The V-belt drive is used with large center distance
C. The power transmitted by V-belts is less than flat belts for the same
coefficient of friction, arc of contact and allowable tension in the belts
D. The ratio of driving tensions in V-belt drive is more than flat belt drives

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123. Tapered roller bearings can take

A. Axial load only
B. Both radial and axial loads and the ratio of these being greater than unity
C. Radial load only
D. Both radial and axial loads and the ratio of these being less than unity

124. Silver based solder is used for

A. Flaring
B. Brazing
C. Soft soldering
D. Fusion welding

125. For tight leakage joints, following type of thread is best suited
A. Metric
B. Buttress
C. Square
D. NPT (national pipe threads).

126. In a hydrodynamic lubricated bearing

A. There is a thick film of lubricant between the journal and the bearing
B. There is a thin film of lubricant between the journal and the bearing
C. The lubricant is forced between the journal and the bearing, by external pressure
D. There is no lubricant between the journal and the bearing

127. The power transmitted by belt drive depends upon

A. Belt velocity
B. Initial belt tension
C. Arc of contact
D. All of the above

128. In order to permit the thermal expansion/contraction of tubing, it should be

A. Crimped
B. Honed
C. Flared
D. Bent

129. A tube has the following advantage over pipe

A. Lighter and easier to handle
B. Greater shock absorption
C. Smoother inside walls
D. All of the above

130. The strap end of a connecting rod of steam engine is joined by

A. Gib of cotter joint
B. Sleeve and cotter joint
C. Spigot socket cotter joint
D. Knuckle joint
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131. When a bolt is subjected to shock loading, the resilience of the bolt should be
considered in order to prevent breakage at the
A. Thread
B. Middle
C. Shank
D. Head

132. The application of third type levers is found in

A. A pair of tongs
B. Hand wheel of a punching press
C. Lever of a loaded safety valve
D. Handle of a hand pump

133. A backing ring is used inside the pipe joint when making a
A. Butt weld
B. Fillet weld
C. Sleeve weld
D. Socket weld

134. The suitable material for belt in agricultural machinery is

A. Leather
B. Rubber
C. Cotton duck
D. Balata gum

135. The shear plane in case of bolts should

A. Be across threaded portion of shank
B. Be parallel to axis of bolt
C. Be normal to threaded portion of shank
D. Never be across the threaded portion

136. The edges of the plates for cylindrical vessels are usually bevelled to an angle of
80° for
A. Reducing stress concentration
B. Ease of manufacture
C. Safety
D. Fullering and caulking

137. The piston rod of a steam engine is usually connected to the cross-head by
means of
A. Bolted joint
B. Knuckle joint
C. Cotter joint
D. Universal joint

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138. The ratio of endurance limit in shear to the endurance limit in flexure is
A. 0.70
B. 0.25
C. 0.40
D. 0.55

139. Which of the following pipe joints would be suitable for pipes carrying steam?
A. Flanged
B. Threaded
C. Bell and spigot
D. Expansion

140. When the belt speed increases

A. Power transmitted increases
B. Power transmitted decreases
C. Power transmitted increases to a maximum value and then decreases
D. Power transmitted remains the same

141. Spring index is

A. Ratio of coil diameter to wire diameter
B. Load required to produce unit deflection
C. Its capability of storing energy
D. Indication of quality of spring

142. If a bearing is designated by the number 305, it means that the bearing is of
A. Medium series whose bore is 5 mm
B. Medium series whose bore is 25 mm
C. Light series whose bore is 25 mm
D. Light series whose bore is 5 mm

143. The shearing stresses in the inner face as compared to outer face of the wire in
a heavy close coiled spring is
A. Larger
B. Smaller
C. Equal
D. Larger/smaller depending on diameter of spring coil

144. The metal suitable for bearings subjected to heavy loads is

A. White metal
B. Silicon bronze
C. Monel metal
D. Phosphor bronze

145. Form coefficient of spring is

A. Ratio of coil diameter to wire diameter
B. Load required to produce unit deflection
C. Its capability of storing energy
D. Concerned with strength of wire of spring

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146. Spring stiffness is

A. Ratio of coil diameter to wire diameter
B. Load required to produce unit deflection
C. Its capability of storing energy
D. Its ability to absorb shocks

147. The creep in the belt is due to

A. Effect of temperature on belt
B. Material of belt
C. Unequal extensions in the belt due to tight and slack side tensions
D. Stresses beyond elastic limit of belt material

148. When two springs are in series (having stiffness K), the equivalent stiffness will
be
A. K
B. K/2
C. 2K
D. K/4

149. When a close coiled helical spring is compressed, its wire is subjected to
A. Tension
B. Shear
C. Compression
D. All of the above

150. A bolt of uniform strength can be developed by

A. Keeping the core diameter of threads equal to the diameter of unthreaded
portion of the bolt
B. Keeping the core diameter smaller than the diameter of the unthreaded portion
C. Keeping the nominal diameter of threads equal to the diameter of
unthreaded portion of the bolt
D. None of the above

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MACHINE DESIGN - ANSWER KEY

Q.NO ANS Q.NO ANS Q.NO ANS Q.NO ANS Q.NO ANS
1 A 31 A 61 C 91 B 121 D
2 C 32 D 62 B 92 A 122 B
3 B 33 A 63 D 93 D 123 B
4 C 34 D 64 C 94 D 124 B
5 D 35 B 65 D 95 A 125 D
6 C 36 D 66 A 96 D 126 A
7 B 37 C 67 C 97 C 127 D
8 A 38 D 68 B 98 A 128 D
9 B 39 D 69 D 99 B 129 D
10 B 40 D 70 D 100 A 130 A
11 A 41 D 71 A 101 A 131 A
12 B 42 A 72 B 102 A 132 A
13 D 43 A 73 B 103 B 133 A
14 A 44 D 74 D 104 A 134 B
15 D 45 C 75 A 105 D 135 D
16 B 46 C 76 A 106 C 136 D
17 A 47 A 77 C 107 A 137 C
18 A 48 D 78 A 108 A 138 D
19 A 49 C 79 D 109 C 139 D
20 D 50 A 80 B 110 D 140 C
21 C 51 C 81 D 111 C 141 A
22 A 52 D 82 B 112 C 142 B
23 D 53 C 83 A 113 D 143 A
24 D 54 B 84 A 114 B 144 A
25 A 55 A 85 B 115 B 145 C
26 D 56 D 86 A 116 C 146 B
27 A 57 D 87 C 117 A 147 C
28 B 58 C 88 C 118 B 148 B
29 B 59 D 89 C 119 A 149 A
30 C 60 D 90 D 120 D 150 A

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Fluid Mechanics Multiple Choice Questions

1. Euler’s dimensionless number relates the following

A. Inertial force and gravity
B. Viscous force and inertial force
C. Viscous force and buoyancy force
D. Pressure force and inertial force

2. When a body floating in a liquid, is displaced slightly, it oscillates about

A. C.G. of body
B. Center of pressure
C. Center of buoyancy
D. Metacentre

3. The pressure of the liquid flowing through the divergent portion of a Venturimeter
A. Remains constant
B. Increases
C. Decreases
D. Depends upon mass of liquid

4. When the Mach number is between the flow is called super-sonic flow.
A. 1 and 2.5
B. 2.5 and 4
C. 4 and 6
D. 1 and 6

5. When a body is placed over a liquid, it will sink down if

A. Gravitational force is equal to the up-thrust of the liquid
B. Gravitational force is less than the up-thrust of the liquid
C. Gravitational force is more than the up-thrust of the liquid
D. None of the above

6. The property by virtue of which a liquid opposes relative motion between

its different layers is called
A. Surface tension
B. Coefficient of viscosity
C. Viscosity
D. Osmosis

7. A weir is said to be narrow-crested weir, if the width of the crest of the weir is
half the height of water above the weir crest.
A. Equal to
B. Less than
C. More than
D. None of these
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8. In an immersed body, centre of pressure is

A. At the centre of gravity
B. Above the centre of gravity
C. Below be centre of gravity
D. Could be above or below e.g. depending on density of body and liquid

9. A vertically immersed surface is shown in the below figure. The distance of

its centre of pressure from the water surface is

A. (bd²/12) + x¯
B. (d²/12 x¯ ) + x¯
C. b²/12 + x¯
D. d²/12 + x¯
10. The torque required to overcome viscous resistance of a collar bearing is
(where R1 and R2 = External and internal radius of collar)
A. (μπ²N/60t) × (R₁ – R₂)
B. (μπ²N/60t) × (R₁² – R₂²)
C. μπ²N/60t) × (R₁³ – R₂³)
D. (μπ²N/60t) × (R₁⁴ – R₂⁴)

11. Steady flow occurs when

A. The direction and magnitude of the velocity at all points are identical
B. The velocity of successive fluid particles, at any point, is the same at
successive periods of time
C. The magnitude and direction of the velocity do not change from point to point in
the fluid
D. The fluid particles move in plane or parallel planes and the streamline
patterns are identical in each plane
12. A flow is called super-sonic if the
A. Velocity of flow is very high
B. Discharge is difficult to measure
C. Mach number is between 1 and 6
D. None of these

13. In a forced vortex, the velocity of flow everywhere within the fluid is
A. Maximum
B. Minimum
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C. Zero
D. Nonzero finite

14. The depth of centre of pressure (h) for a vertically immersed surface from the
liquid surface is given by (where IG = Moment of inertia of the immersed surface
about horizontal axis through its centre of gravity, A = Area of immersed surface,
and x = Depth of centre of gravity of the immersed surface from the liquid surface)
A. (IG/Ax¯ ) – x¯
B. (IG/x¯ ) – Ax¯
C. (Ax¯ /IG) + x¯
D. (IG/Ax¯ ) + x¯

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15. Mach number is significant in

A. Supersonics, as with projectiles and jet propulsion
B. Full immersion or completely enclosed flow, as with pipes, aircraft wings, nozzles
etc.
C. Simultaneous motion through two fluids where there is a surface of
discontinuity, gravity force, and wave making effects, as with ship’s hulls
D. All of the above
16. A fluid which obeys the Newton’s law of viscosity is termed as
A. Real fluid
B. Ideal fluid
C. Newtonian fluid
D. Non-Newtonian fluid

17. In order that flow takes place between two points in a pipeline, the
differential pressure between these points must be more than
A. Frictional force
B. Viscosity
C. Surface friction
D. All of the above

18. The error in discharge (dQ/Q) to the error in measurement of head (dH/H) over
a triangular notch is given by
A. dQ/Q = 3/2 × (dH/H)
B. dQ/Q = 2 × (dH/H)
C. dQ/Q = 5/2 × (dH/H)
D. dQ/Q = 3 × (dH/H)

19. For similarity, in addition to models being geometrically similar to prototype,

the following in both cases should also be equal
A. Ratio of inertial force to force due to viscosity
B. Ratio of inertial force to force due to gravitation
C. Ratio of inertial force to force due to surface tension
D. All the four ratios of inertial force to force due to viscosity, gravitation,
surface tension, and elasticity
20. The value of coefficient of velocity for a sharp edged orifice with the
head of water.
A. Decreases
B. Increases
C. Remain same
D. None of these

21. If cohesion between molecules of a fluid is greater than adhesion between

fluid and glass, then the free level of fluid in a dipped glass tube will be
A. Higher than the surface of liquid
B. The same as the surface of liquid

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C. Lower than the surface of liquid
D. Unpredictable

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22. The ratio of the inertia force to the is called Euler’s number.
A. Pressure force
B. Elastic force
C. Surface tension force
D. Viscous force

23. A one dimensional flow is one which

A. Is uniform flow
B. Is steady uniform flow
C. Takes place in straight lines
D. Involves zero transverse component of flow

24. According to Manning’s formula, the discharge through an open channel

is (where M = Manning’s constant)
A. A × M × m1/2 × i2/3
B. A × M × m2/3 × i1/2
C. A1/2 × M2/3 × m × i
D. A2/3 × M1/3 × m × i

25. Dimensions of surface tension are

A. ML°T⁻²
B. ML°T
C. ML r²
D. ML²T²

26. An opening in the side of a tank or vessel such that the liquid surface with
the tank is below the top edge of the opening, is called
A. Weir
B. Notch
C. Orifice
D. None of these

27. The property of fluid by virtue of which it offers resistance to shear is called
A. Surface tension
B. Adhesion
C. Adhesion
D. Viscosity

28. Coefficient of velocity is defined as the ratio of

A. Actual velocity of jet at vena contracta to the theoretical velocity
B. Area of jet at vena contracta to the area of orifice
C. Actual discharge through an orifice to the theoretical discharge
D. None of the above

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29. A liquid compressed in cylinder has a volume of 0.04 m3 at 50 kg/cm² and

a volume of 0.039 m3 at 150 kg/cm². The bulk modulus of elasticity of liquid is
A. 400 kg/cm²
B. 4000 kg/cm²
C. 40 × 10⁵ kg/cm²
D. 40 × 10⁶ kg/cm²

30. The mass of 2.5 m3 of a certain liquid is 2 tonnes. Its mass density is
A. 200 kg/m3
B. 400 kg/m3
C. 600 kg/m3
D. 800 kg/m3

31. A fluid in equilibrium can’t sustain

A. Tensile stress
B. Compressive stress
C. Shear stress
D. Bending stress

32. When a plate is immersed in a liquid parallel to the flow, it will be subjected to
a pressure that if the same plate is immersed perpendicular to the flow.
A. Less than
B. More than
C. Equal to
D. None of these

33. An object having 10 kg mass weighs 9.81 kg on a spring balance. The value of
‘g’ at this place is
A. 10 m/sec²
B. 9.81 m/sec²
C. 9.75 m/sec²
D. 9 m/sec

34. A flow is called hyper-sonic, if the Mach number is

A. Less than unity
B. Unity
C. Between 1 and 6
D. None of these

35. Liquids
A. Cannot be compressed
B. Occupy definite volume
C. Are not affected by change in pressure and temperature
D. None of the above

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36. When a cylindrical vessel containing liquid is resolved, the surface of the
liquid takes the shape of
A. A triangle
B. A paraboloid
C. An ellipse
D. None of these

37. Fluid is a substance that

A. Cannot be subjected to shear forces
B. Always expands until it fills any container
C. Has the same shear stress at a point regardless of its motion
D. Cannot remain at rest under action of any shear force

38. The force exerted by a moving fluid on an immersed body is directly

proportional to the rate of change of momentum due to the presence of the body.
This statement is called
A. Newton’s law of motion
B. Newton’s law of cooling
C. Newton’s law of viscosity
D. Newton’s law of resistance

39. The property of a fluid which enables it to resist tensile stress is known as
A. Compressibility
B. Surface tension
C. Cohesion
D. Adhesion

40. The loss of pressure head in case of laminar flow is proportional to

A. Velocity
B. (Velocity)2
C. (Velocity)3
D. (Velocity)4

41. The surface tension of mercury at normal temperature compared to that of

water is
A. More
B. Less
C. Same
D. More or less depending on size of glass tube

42. An air vessel is provided at the summit in a siphon to

A. Avoid interruption in the flow
B. Increase discharge
C. Increase velocity
D. Maintain pressure difference
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43. The unit of viscosity is

A. Meters² per sec
B. kg-sec/meter
C. Newton-sec per meter²
D. Newton-sec per meter

44. Select the correct statement

A. Weber’s number is the ratio of inertia force to elastic force
B. Weber’s number is the ratio of gravity force to surface tension force
C. Weber’s number is the ratio of viscous force to pressure force
D. Weber’s number is the ratio of inertia force to surface tension force

45. Choose the wrong statement. Alcohol is used in manometer, because

A. Its vapour pressure is low
B. It provides suitable meniscus for the inclined tube
C. Its density is less
D. It provides longer length for a given pressure difference

46. When a tank containing liquid moves with an acceleration in the

horizontal direction, then the free surface of the liquid
A. Remains horizontal
B. Becomes curved
C. Falls on the front end
D. Falls on the back end

47. A pressure of 25 m of head of water is equal to

A. 25 kN/ m²
B. 245 kN/ m²
C. 2500 kN/m²
D. 2.5 kN/ m²

48. The hammer blow in pipes occurs when

A. There is excessive leakage in the pipe
B. The pipe bursts under high pressure of fluid
C. The flow of fluid through the pipe is suddenly brought to rest by closing of the valve
D. The flow of fluid through the pipe is gradually brought to rest by closing of the valve

49. The resultant upward pressure of the fluid on an immersed body is called
A. Up-thrust
B. Buoyancy
C. Center of pressure
D. All the above are correct

50. When the water level on the downstream side of a weir is above the top surface
of a weir, the weir is known as
A. Narrow-crested weir
B. Broad-crested weir
C. Ogee weir

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D. Submerged weir

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51. If the surface of liquid is convex, men

A. Cohesion pressure is negligible
B. Cohesion pressure is decreased
C. Cohesion pressure is increased
D. There is no cohesion pressure

52. The increase in pressure at the outer edge of a drum of radius (r) completely
filled up with liquid of density (ρ) and rotating at (ω) rad/s is
A. ρ ω2 r2
B. 2ρ ω2 r2
C. ρ ω2 r2/2
D. ρ ω2 r2/4

53. The atmospheric pressure with rise in altitude decreases

A. Linearly
B. First slowly and then steeply
C. First steeply and then gradually
D. Unpredictable

54. The torque required to overcome viscous resistance of a footstep bearing is

(where μ = Viscosity of the oil, N = Speed of the shaft, R = Radius of the shaft, and t
= Thickness of the oil film)
A. μπ²NR/60t
B. μπ²NR²/60t
C. μπ²NR³/60t
D. μπ²NR⁴/60t

55. Dynamic viscosity of most of the gases with rise in temperature

A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Remain unaffected
D. Unpredictable

56. According to Bernoulli’s equation

A. Z + p/w + v²/2g = constant
B. Z + p/w – v²/2g = constant
C. Z – p/w + v²/2g = constant
D. Z – p/w – v²/2g = constant

57. Center of buoyancy is the

A. Centroid of the displaced volume of fluid
B. Center of pressure of displaced volume
C. Does not exist
D. None of the above

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58. The loss of head due to viscosity for laminar flow in pipes is (where d =
Diameter of pipe, l = Length of pipe, v = Velocity of the liquid in the pipe, μ =
Viscosity of the liquid, and w = Specific weight of the flowing liquid)
A. 4μvl/wd²
B. 8μvl/wd²
C. 16μvl/wd²
D. 32μvl/wd²

59. For a body floating in a liquid the normal pressure exerted by the liquid acts at
A. Bottom surface of the body
B. C.G. of the body
C. Metacenter
D. All points on the surface of the body

60. Newton’s law of viscosity is a relationship between

A. Pressure, velocity and temperature
B. Shear stress and rate of shear strain
C. Shear stress and velocity
D. Rate of shear strain and temperature

61. Differential manometer is used to measure

A. Pressure in pipes, channels etc.
B. Atmospheric pressure
C. Very low pressure
D. Difference of pressure between two points

62. When a body is immersed wholly or partially in a liquid, it is lifted up by a

force equal to the weight of liquid displaced by the body. This statement is called
A. Pascal’s law
B. Archimedes’s principle
C. Principle of flotation
D. Bernoulli’s theorem

63. Non uniform flow occurs when

A. The direction and magnitude of the velocity at all points are identical
B. The velocity of successive fluid particles, at any point, is the same at
successive periods of time
C. Velocity, depth, pressure, etc. change from point to point in the fluid flow
D. The fluid particles move in plane or parallel planes and the streamline
patterns are identical in each plane

64. When a tube of smaller diameter is dipped in water, the water rises in the
tube with an upward surface.
A. Concave
B. Convex
C. Plane
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D. None of these

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65. A piece of metal of specific gravity 7 floats in mercury of specific gravity

13.6. What fraction of its volume is under mercury?
A. 0.5
B. 0.4
C. 0.515
D. 0.5

66. A flow through an expanding tube at constant rate is called

A. Steady uniform flow
B. Steady non-uniform flow
C. Unsteady uniform flow
D. Unsteady non-uniform flow

67. Reynolds number is significant in

A. Supersonics, as with projectile and jet propulsion
B. Full immersion or completely enclosed flow, as with pipes, aircraft wings, nozzles
etc.
C. Simultaneous motion through two fluids where there is a surface of
discontinuity, gravity forces, and wave making effect, as with ship’s hulls
D. All of the above

68. The loss of head due to friction in a pipe of uniform diameter in which a
viscous flow is taking place, is (where RN = Reynold number)
A. 1/RN
B. 4/RN
C. 16/RN
D. 64/RN

69. Practical fluids

A. Are viscous
B. Possess surface tension
C. Are compressible
D. Possess all the above properties

70. A compound pipe of diameter d1, d2 and d3 having lengths l1, l2 and l3 is to
be replaced by an equivalent pipe of uniform diameter d and of the same length (l)
as that of the compound pipe. The size of the equivalent pipe is given by
A. l/d² = (l₁/d₁²) + (l₂/d₂²) + (l₃/d₃²)
B. l/d³ = (l₁/d₁³) + (l₂/d₂³) + (l₃/d₃³)
C. l/d⁴ = (l₁/d₁⁴) + (l₂/d₂⁴) + (l₃/d₃⁴)
D. l/d⁵ = (l₁/d₁⁵) + (l₂/d₂⁵) + (l₃/d₃⁵)

71. The tendency of a liquid surface to contract is due to the following property
A. Cohesion
B. Adhesion
C. Viscosity
D. Surface tension
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72. The Newton’s law of resistance is based on the assumption that the
A. Planes of the body are completely smooth
B. Space around the body is completely filled with the fluid
C. Fluid particles do not exert any influence on one another
D. All of the above

73. For manometer, a better liquid combination is one having

A. Higher surface tension
B. Lower surface tension
C. Surface tension is no criterion
D. High density and viscosity

74. The flow in a pipe is neither laminar nor turbulent when Reynold number is
A. Less than 2000
B. Between 2000 and 2800
C. More than 2800
D. None of these

75. The point in the immersed body through which the resultant pressure of the
liquid may be taken to act is known as
A. Meta center
B. Center of pressure
C. Center of buoyancy
D. Center of gravity

76. Stoke is the unit of

A. Kinematic viscosity in C. G. S. units
B. Kinematic viscosity in M. K. S. units
C. Dynamic viscosity in M. K. S. units
D. Dynamic viscosity in S. I. units

77. The vapour pressure over the concave surface is

A. Less man the vapour pressure over the plane surface
B. Equal to the vapour pressure over the plane surface
C. Greater than the vapour pressure over the plane surface
D. Zero

78. The velocity at which the flow changes from laminar flow to turbulent flow
is called
A. Critical velocity
B. Velocity of approach
C. Sub-sonic velocity
D. Super-sonic velocity

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79. Mercury is often used in barometer because

A. It is the best liquid
B. The height of barometer will be less
C. Its vapour pressure is so low that it may be neglected
D. BothB. andC.

80. A vertical wall is subjected to a pressure due to one kind of liquid, on one of
its sides. Which of the following statement is correct?
A. The pressure on the wall at the liquid level is minimum
B. The pressure on the bottom of the wall is maximum
C. The pressure on the wall at the liquid level is zero, and on the bottom
of the wall is maximum
D. The pressure on the bottom of the wall is zero

81. Center of pressure compared to e.g. is

A. Above it
B. Below it
C. At same point
D. Above or below depending on area of body

82. The center of gravity of the volume of the liquid displaced by an immersed
body is called
A. Center of gravity
B. Center of pressure
C. Metacenter
D. Center of buoyancy

83. A tank of uniform cross-sectional areaA. containing liquid upto height (H1) has
an orifice of cross-sectional areaA. at its bottom. The time required to bring the
liquid level from H1 to H2 will be
A. 2A × √H₁/Cd × a × √(2g)
B. 2A × √H₂/Cd × a × √(2g)
C. 2A × (√H₁ – √H₂)/Cd × a × √(2g)
D. 2A × (√H3/2 – √H3/2)/Cd × a × √(2g)

84. Gradually varied flow is

A. Steady uniform
B. Non-steady non-uniform
C. Non-steady uniform
D. Steady non-uniform

85. The viscosity of water at 20°C is

A. One stoke
B. One centistoke
C. One poise
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D. One centipoise

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86. The velocity of jet of water traveling out of opening in a tank filled with water
is proportional to
A. Head of water (h)
B. h²
C. V/T
D. h/2

87. According to Darcy’s formula, the loss of head due to friction in the pipe is
(where f = Darcy’s coefficient, l = Length of pipe, v = Velocity of liquid in pipe, and d =
Diameter of pipe)
A. flv²/2gd
B. flv²/gd
C. 3flv²/2gd
D. 4flv²/2gd

88. According to Bernoulli’s equation for steady ideal fluid flow

A. Principle of conservation of mass holds
B. Velocity and pressure are inversely proportional
C. Total energy is constant throughout
D. The energy is constant along a streamline but may vary across streamlines

89. The discharge through a convergent mouthpiece is the discharge

through an internal mouthpiece of the same diameter and head of water.
A. Equal to
B. One-half
C. Three fourth
D. Double

90. Bernoulli equation deals with the law of conservation of

A. Mass
B. Momentum
C. Energy
D. Work

91. The depth of center of pressure of an immersed surface, inclined at an angle

‘θ’ with the liquid surface lies at a distance equal to the center of gravity.
A. IG sin²θ/Ax¯ bellow
B. IG sin²θ/Ax¯ above
C. IG sinθ/Ax¯ bellow
D. IG sinθ/Ax¯ above
92. Principle of similitude forms the basis of
A. Comparing two identical equipments
B. Designing models so that the result can be converted to prototypes
C. Comparing similarity between design and actual equipment
D. Hydraulic designs
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93. The rise of liquid along the walls of a revolving cylinder about the initial level is
the depression of the liquid at the axis of rotation.
A. Same as
B. Less than
C. More than
D. None of these
94. Hot wire anemometer is used to measure
A. Pressure in gases
B. Liquid discharge
C. Pressure in liquids
D. Gas velocities
95. Venturimeter is used to
A. Measure the velocity of a flowing liquid
B. Measure the pressure of a flowing liquid
C. Measure the discharge of liquid flowing in a pipe
D. Measure the pressure difference of liquid flowing between two points in a pipe line
96. The two important forces for a floating body are
A. Buoyancy, gravity
B. Buoyancy, pressure
C. Buoyancy, inertial
D. Inertial, gravity
97. The kinematic viscosity of an oil (in stokes) whose specific gravity is 0.95
and viscosity 0.011 poise, is
A. 0.0116 stoke
B. 0.116 stoke
C. 0.0611 stoke
D. 0.611 stoke
98. According to the principle of buoyancy a body totally or partially immersed in
a fluid will be lifted up by a force equal to
A. The weight of the body
B. More than the weight of the body
C. Less than the weight of the body
D. Weight of the fluid displaced by the body
99. The pressure measured with the help of a pressure gauge is called
A. Atmospheric pressure
B. Gauge pressure
C. Absolute pressure
D. Mean pressure
100. The total pressure force on a plane area is equal to the area multiplied by
the intensity of pressure at the Centroid, if
A. The area is horizontal
B. The area is vertical
C. The area is inclined
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D. All of the above

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FLUID MECHANICS – ANSWER KEY

Q.NO ANS Q.NO ANS Q.NO ANS Q.NO ANS

1 D 26 B 51 C 76 A
2 D 27 D 52 C 77 A
3 C 28 A 53 B 78 A
4 D 29 B 54 D 79 D
5 C 30 D 55 A 80 C
6 C 31 C 56 A 81 B
7 B 32 A 57 A 82 D
8 C 33 A 58 D 83 C
9 B 34 D 59 D 84 D
10 D 35 D 60 B 85 D
11 B 36 B 61 D 86 C
12 C 37 D 62 B 87 D
13 D 38 D 63 C 88 D
14 D 39 C 64 A 89 D
15 A 40 A 65 C 90 C
16 C 41 A 66 B 91 A
17 D 42 A 67 B 92 B
18 C 43 B 68 C 93 A
19 D 44 D 69 D 94 D
20 B 45 A 70 D 95 C
21 C 46 C 71 D 96 A
22 A 47 B 72 D 97 A
23 D 48 C 73 A 98 D
24 B 49 B 74 B 99 B
25 A 50 D 75 B 100 D

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Q.NO ANS Q.NO ANS

101 B 126 A

102 B 127 C

103 A 128 D

104 D 129 C

105 B 130 D

106 B 131 B

107 D 132 B

108 C 133 D

109 A 134 D

110 D 135 B

111 B 136 A

112 D 137 C

113 A 138 B

114 D 139 A

115 A 140 C

116 D 141 C

117 D 142 A

118 C 143 D

119 D 144 C

120 A 145 C

121 A 146 C

122 C 147 D

123 A 148 D

124 A 149 C

125 A 150 B

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Hydraulic Machines Questions

1. Reciprocating pumps are no more to be seen in industrial applications

(in comparison to centrifugal pumps) because of
A. high initial and maintenance cost
B. lower discharge
C. lower speed of operation
D. necessity of air vessel
E. all of the above.

2. In a centrifugal pump casing, the flow of water leaving the impeller, is

A. rectilinear flow
B. radial flow
C. free vortex motion
D. forced vortex
E. none of the above.

3. Head developed by a centrifugal pump depends on

A. impeller diameter
B. speed
C. fluid density
D. type of casing
E. A. and B. above.

4. For starting an axial flow pump, its delivery valve should be

A. closed
B. open
C. depends on starting condition and flow desired
D. could be either open or closed
E. partly open and partly closed.

5. The efficiency of a centrifugal pump is maximum when its blades are

A. straight
B. bent forward
C. bent backward
D. bent forward first and then backward
E. bent backward first and then forward.

6. In a centrifugal pump casing, the flow of water leaving the

A. radial
B. radial
C. centrifugal
D. rectilinear
E. vortex.

7. Centrifugal pump is started with its delivery valve

A. kept fully closed
B. kept fully open
C. irrespective of any position
D. kept 50% open
E. none of the above.

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8. Axial flow pump is started with its delivery valve

A. kept fully closed
B. kept fully open
C. irrespective of any position
D. kept 50% open
E. none of the above.
9. When a piping system is made up primarily of vertical lift and very little
pipe friction, the pump characteristics should be
A. horizontal
B. nearly horizontal
C. steep
D. first rise and then fall
E. none of the above.

10. One horsepower is equal to

A. 102 watts
B. 75 watts
C. 550 watts
D. 735 watts
E. 33000 watts.
11. Multistage centrifugal pumps are used to obtain
A. high discharge
B. high head
C. pumping of viscous fluids
D. high head and high discharge
E. high efficiency.

12. When a piping system is made up primarily of friction head and very little
of vertical lift, then pump characteristics should be
A. horizontal
B. nearly horizontal
C. steep
D. first rise and then fall
E. none of the above.

13. In a single casing, multistage pump running at constant speed, the capacity
rating is to be slightly lowered. It can be done by
A. designing new impeller
B. trimming the impeller size to the required size by machining
C. not possible
D. some other alterations in the impeller
E. none of the above.

14. If a pump is handling water and is discharging a certain flow Q at a constant

total dynamic head requiring a definite B.H.P., the same pump when handling a
liquid of specific gravity 0.75 and viscosity nearly same as of water would discharge
A. same quantity of liquid
B. 0.75 Q
C. Q/0.75
E. none of the
above.
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D. 1.5 Q

E. none of the
above.
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15. The horse power required in above case will be

A. same
B. 0.75 B.H.P.
C. B.H.P./0.75
D. 1.5 B.H.P.
E. none of the above.
16. Low specific speed of a pump implies it is
A. centrifugal pump
B. mixed flow pump
C. axial flow pump
D. any one of the above
E. none of the above.
17. The optimum value of vane exit angle for a centrifugal pump impeller is
A. 10-15°
B. 20-25°
C. 30-40°
D. 50-60°
E. 80-90°.
18. In a centrifugal pump, the liquid enters the pump
A. at the top
B. at the bottom
C. at the center
D. from sides
E. none of the above.
19. For small discharge at high pressure, following pump is preferred
A. centrifugal
B. axial flow
C. mixed flow
D. propeller
E. reciprocating.
20. In centrifugal pumps, maximum efficiency is obtained when the blades are
A. straight
B. bent forward
C. bent backward
D. radial
E. given aerofoil section.
21. Motion of a liquid in a volute casing of a centrifugal pump is an example of
A. rotational flow
B. radial
C. forced spiral vortex flow
D. forced cylindrical vortex flow
E. spiral vortex flow.
22. For very high discharge at low pressure such as for flood control and
irrigation applications, following type of pump is preferred
A. centrifugal
B. axial flow
C. reciprocating
E. none of the
above.
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D. mixed flow

E. none of the
above.
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23. Medium specific speed of a pump implies it is

A. centrifugal pump
B. mixed flow pump
C. axial flow pump
D. any one of the above
E. none of the above.

24. High specific speed of a pump implies it is

A. centrifugal pump
B. mixed flow pump
C. axial flow pump
D. any one of the above
E. none of the above.

25. Indicator diagram of a reciprocating pump is a graph between

A. flow vs swept volume
B. pressure in cylinder vs swept volume
C. flow vs speed
D. pressure vs speed
E. swept volume vs speed.

26. Low specific speed of turbine implies it is

A. propeller turbine
B. Francis turbine
C. impulse turbine
D. any one of the above
E. none of the above.

27. Any change in load is adjusted by adjusting following parameter on turbine

A. net head
B. absolute velocity
C. blade velocity
D. flow
E. relative velocity of flow at inlet.

28. Runaway speed of a hydraulic turbine is

A. full load speed
B. the speed at which turbine runner will be damaged
C. the speed if the turbine runner is allowed to revolve freely without load
and with the wicket gates wide open
D. the speed corresponding to maximum overload permissible
E. none of the above.

29. The maximum number of jets generally employed in impulse turbine without
jet interference is
A. 4
B. 6
C. 8
D. 12
E. 16.

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30. Medium specific speea of turbine implies it is

A. propeller turbine
B. Francis turbine
C. impulse turbine
D. any one of the above
E. none of the above.

Hydraulic Machines Multiple Choice Questions and Answers pdf :-

31. High specific speed of turbine implies it is
A. propeller turbine
B. Francis turbine
C. impulse turbine
D. any one of the above
E. none of the above.

32. The specific speed of turbine is defined as the speed of a unit

A. of such a size that it delivers unit dis-charge at unit head
B. of such a size that it delivers unit dis-charge at unit power
C. of such a size that it requires unit power per unit head
D. of such a size that it produces unit horse power with unit head
E. none of the above.

33. Puck up the wrong statement about centrifugal pump

A. discharge a diameter
B. head a speed2
C. head a diameter
D. Power a speed3
E. none of the above is wrong.

34. A turbine pump is basically a centrifugal pump equipped additionally with

A. adjustable blades
B. backward curved blades
C. vaned diffusion casing
D. inlet guide blades
E. totally submerged operation facility.

35. Casting of a centrifugal pump is designed so as to minimize

A. friction loss
B. cavitation
C. static head
D. loss of kinetic energy
E. starting time.

36. In reaction turbine, draft tube is used

A. to transport water downstream without eddies
B. to convert the kinetic energy to flow energy by a gradual expansion of the
flow cross- section
C. for safety of turbine
D. to increase flow rate
E. none of the above.

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37. Guide angle as per the aerofoil theory of Kaplan turbine blade design is
defined as the angle between
A. lift and resultant force
B. drag and resultant force
C. lift and tangential force
D. lift and drag
E. resultant force and tangential force.

38. Francis turbine is best suited for

A. medium head application from 24 to 180 m
B. low head installation up to 30 m
C. high head installation above 180 m
D. all types of heads
E. none of the above.

39. The flow rate in gear pump

A. increases with increase in pressure
B. decreases with increase in pressure
C. more or less remains constant with in-crease in pressure
D. unpredictable
E. none of the above.

40. Impulse turbine is generally fitted

A. at the level of tail race
B. little above the tail race
C. slightly below the tail race
D. about 2.5 m above the tail race to avoid cavitation
E. about 2.5 m below the tail race to avoid cavitation.

41. Francis, Kaplan and propeller turbines fall under the category of
A. Impulse turbines
B. Reaction turbines
C. Axial flow turbines
D. Mixed flow turbines
E. Reaction-cum-impulse turbines.

42. Reaction turbines are used for

A. low head
B. high head
C. high head and low discharge
D. high head and high discharge
E. low head and high discharge.

43. The discharge through a reaction turbine with increase in unit speed
A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains unaffected
D. first increases and then decreases
E. first decreases and then increases.

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44. The angle of taper on draft tube is

A. greater than 15°
B. greater than 8°
C. greater than 5°
D. less than 8°
E. less than 3°.

45. Specific speed for reaction turbines ranges from

A. 0 to 4.5
B. 10 to 100
C. 80 to 200
D. 250 to 300
E. none of the above.

46. In axial flow fans and turbines, fluid enters and leaves as follows
A. radially, axially
B. axially, radially
C. axially, axially
D. radially, radially
E. combination of axial and radial.

47. Which place in hydraulic turbine is most susceptible for cavitation

A. inlet of draft rube
B. blade inlet
C. guide blade
D. penstock
E. draft tube exit.

48. Air vessels in reciprocating pump are used to

A. smoothen flow
B. reduce acceleration to minimum
C. increase pump efficiency
D. save pump from cavitation
E. increase pump head.

49. Saving of work done and power by fitting an air vessel to single
acting reciprocating pump is of the order of
A. 39.2%
B. 49.2%
C. 68.8%
D. 84.8%
E. 91.6%.

50. Saving of work done and power by fitting an air vessel to double
acting reciprocating pump is of the order of
A. 39.2%
B. 49.2%
C. 68.8%
D. 84.8%
E. 91.6%.

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51. According to fan laws, for fans having constant wheel diameter, the air or
gas capacity varies
A. directly as fan speed
B. square of fan speed
C. cube of fan speed
D. square root of fan speed
E. none of the above.

52. According to fan laws, for fans having constant wheel diameter, the
pressure varies
A. directly as fan speed
B. square of fan speed
C. cube of fan speed
D. square root of fan speed
E. none of the above.

53. According to fan laws, for the fans having constant wheel diameters, the
power demand varies
A. directly as fan speed
B. square of fan speed
C. cube of fan speed
D. square root of fan speed
E. none of the above.

54. According to fan laws, at constant speed and capacity, the pressure and
power vary
A. directly as the air or gas density
B. inversely as square root of density
C. inversely as density
D. as square of density
E. as square root of density.

55. According to fan laws, at constant pressure, the speed capacity and power vary
A. directly as the air or gas density
B. inversely as square root of density
C. inversely as density
D. as square of density
E. as square root of density.
56. According to fan laws, at constant weight of air or gas, the speed, capacity
and pressure vary
A. directly as the air or gas density
B. inversely as square root of density
C. inversely as density
D. as square of density
E. as square root of density.
57. Pressure intensifier increases the pressure in proportion to
A. ratio of diameters
B. square of ratio of diameters
C. inverse ratio of diameters
D. square of inverse ratio of diameters
E. fourth power of ratio of diameters.
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58. A hydraulic accumulator normally consists of

A. two cylinders, two rams and a storage device
B. a cylinder and a ram
C. two co-axial rams and two cylinders
D. a cylinder, a piston, storage tank and control valve
E. special type of pump with storage device and a pressure regulator.

59. A hydraulic intensifier normally consists of

A. two cylinders, two rams and a storage device
B. a cylinder and a ram
C. two co-axial rams and two cylinders
D. a cylinder, a piston, storage tank and control valve
E. special type of pump with storage device and a pressure regulator.

60. Hydraulic accumulator is used for

A. accumulating oil
B. supplying large quantities of oil for very short duration
C. generally high pressures to operate hydraulic machines
D. supplying energy when main supply fails
E. accumulating hydraulic energy.

61. Maximum impulse will be developed in hydraulic ram when

A. waste valve closes suddenly
B. supply pipe is long
C. supply pipe is short
D. ram chamber is large
E. supply pipe has critical diameter,

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HYDRAULIC MACHINES – ANSWER KEY

Q.NO ANS Q.NO ANS Q.NO ANS

A B D
1 25 49
C C A
2 26 50
B D A
3 27 51
B C B
4 28 52
C B C
5 29 53
E B A
6 30 54
A A B
7 31 55
B D C
8 32 56
C A B
9 33 57
D C B
10 34 58
B D C
11 35 59
B B
12 36 60 D
B A
13 37 61 A
A A
14 38
B C
15 39
A B
16 40
B B
17 41
C E
18 42
E B
19 43
C D
20 44
E B
21 45
B C
22 46
B A
23 47
C B
24 48

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Thermodynamics Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which of the following variables controls the physical properties of a perfect gas
A. pressure
B. temperature
C. volume
D. all of the above
E. atomic mass.
2. Which of the following laws is applicable for the behavior of a perfect gas
A. Boyle’s law
B. Charles’law
C. Gay-Lussac law
D. all of the above
E. Joule’s law.
3. The unit of temperature in S.I. units is
A. Centigrade
B. Celsius
C. Fahrenheit
D. Kelvin
E. Rankine.
4. The unit of mass in S.I. units is
A. kilogram
B. gram
C. tonne
D. quintal
E. newton.
5. The unit of time in S.I. units is
A. second
B. minute
C. hour
D. day
E. year.
6. The unit of length in S.I. units is
A. meter
B. centimeter
C. kilometer
D. millimeter.
7. The unit of energy in S.I. units is
A. watt
B. joule
C. joule/s
D. joule/m
E. joule m.
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8. According to Gay-Lussac law for a perfect gas, the absolute pressure of

given mass varies directly as
A. temperature
B. absolute
C. absolute temperature, if volume is kept constant
D. volume, if temperature is kept constant
E. remains constant,if volume and temperature are kept constant.

9. An ideal gas as compared to a real gas at very high pressure occupies

A. more volume
B. less volume
C. same volume
D. unpredictable behaviour
E. no such correlation.

10. General gas equation is

A. PV=nRT
B. PV=mRT
D. PV = C
C. PV=KiRT
E. Cp-Cv = Wj

11. According to Dalton’s law, the total pres sure of the mixture of gases is equal to
A. greater of the partial pressures of all
B. average of the partial pressures of all
C. sum of the partial pressures of all
D. sum of the partial pressures of all divided by average molecular weight
E. atmospheric pressure.

12. Which of the following can be regarded as gas so that gas laws could
be applicable, within the commonly encountered temperature limits.
A. 02, N2, steam, C02
B. Oz, N2, water vapour
C. S02, NH3, C02, moisture
D. 02, N2, H2, air
E. steam vapours, H2, C02.

13. The unit of pressure in S.I. units is

A. kg/cm2
B. mm of water column
C. pascal
D. dynes per square cm
E. bars

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14. A closed system is one in which

A. mass does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do so
B. mass crosses the boundary but not the energy
C. neither mass nor energy crosses the boundaries of the system
D. both energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system
E. thermodynamic reactions take place.

15. Temperature of a gas is produced due to

A. its heating value
B. kinetic energy of molecules
C. repulsion of molecules
D. attraction of molecules
E. surface tension of molecules.

16. According to kinetic theory of gases, the absolute zero temperature is

attained when
A. volume of the gas is zero
B. pressure of the gas is zero
C. kinetic energy of the molecules is zero
D. specific heat of gas is zero
E. mass is zero.

17. Kinetic theory of gases assumes that the collisions between the molecules are
A. perfectly elastic
B. perfectly inelastic
C. partly elastic
D. partly inelastic
E. partly elastic and partly inelastic.

18. The pressure’of a gas in terms of its mean kinetic energy per unit volume E
is equal to
A. E/3
B. E/2
C. 3E/4
D.2E/3
E.
5E/4.

19. Kinetic energy of the molecules in terms of absolute temperature (T)

is proportional to
A. T
B. j
C. J2
D. Vr
E. 1/Vr.
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20. Superheated vapour behaves

A. exactly as gas
B. as steam
C. as ordinary vapour
D. approximately as a gas
E. as average of gas and vapour.

21. Absolute zero pressure will occur

A. at sea level
B. at the center of the earth
C. when molecular momentum of the system becomes zero
D. under vacuum conditions
E. at a temperature of – 273 °K

22. No liquid can exist as liquid at

A. – 273 °K
B. vacuum
C. zero pressure
D. centre of earth
E. in space.

23. The unit of power in S.I. units is

A. newton
B. pascal
C. erg
D. watt
E. joule.

24. The condition of perfect vacuum, i.e., absolute zero pressure can be attained at
A. a temperature of – 273.16°C
B. a temperature of 0°C
C. a temperature of 273 °K
D. a negative pressure and 0°C temperature
E. can’t be attained.

25. Intensive property of a system is one whose value

A. depends on the mass of the system, like volume
B. does not depend on the mass of the system, like temperature, pressure, etc.
C. is not dependent on the path followed but on the state
D. is dependent on the path followed and not on the state
E. remains constant.

26. Specific heat of air at constant pressure is equal to

A. 0.17
B. 0.21
C. 0.24
D. 1.0
E. 1.41
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27. Characteristic gas constant of a gas is equal to

A. C/Cv
B. Cv/Cp
C. Cp – Cv
D. Cp + Cv
E. Cp x Cv

28. The behaviour of gases can be fully determined by

A. 1 law
B. 2 laws
C. 3 laws
D. 4 laws

29. The ratio of two specific heats of air is equal to

A. 0.17
B. 0.24
C. 0.1
D. 1.41
E. 2.71.

30. Boyle’s law i.e. pV = constant is applicable to gases under

A. all ranges of pressures
B. only small range of pressures
C. high range of pressures
D. steady change of pressures
E. atmospheric conditions.

31. Which law states that the internal energy of a gas is a function of temperature
A. Charles’ law
B. Joule’s law
C. Regnault’s law
D. Boyle’s law
E. there is no such law.

32. The same volume of all gases would represent their

A. densities
B. specific weights
C. molecular weights
D. gas characteristic constants
E. specific gravities.

33. Which law states that the specific heat of a gas remains constant at
all temperatures and pressures
A. Charles’ Law
B. Joule’s Law
C. Regnault’s Law
D. Boyle’s Law
E. there is no such law.
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34. An open system is one in which

A. mass does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do so
B. neither mass nor energy crosses the boundaries of the system
C. both energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system
D. mass crosses the boundary but not the energy
E. thermodynamic reactions do not occur.

35. According to which law, all perfect gases change in volume by l/273th of their
original volume at 0°C for every 1°C change in temperature when pressure
remains constant
A. Joule’s law
B. Boyle’s law
C. Regnault’s law
D. Gay-Lussac law
E. Charles’ law.

36. Gases have

A. only one value of specific heat
B. two values of specific heat
C. three values of specific heat
D. no value of specific heat
E. under some conditions one value and sometimes two values of specific heat.

37. According to Avogadro’s Hypothesis

A. the molecular weights of all the perfect gases occupy the same volume
under same conditions of pressure and temperature
B. the sum of partial pressure of mixture of two gases is sum of the two
C. product of the gas constant and the molecular weight of an ideal gas is constant
D. gases have two values of specific heat
E. all systems can be regarded as closed systems.

38. Extensive property of a system is one whose value

A. depends on the mass of the system like volume
B. does not depend on the mass of the system, like temperature, pressure, etc.
C. is not dependent on the path followed but on the state
D. is dependent on the path followed and not on the state
E. is always constant.

39. Work done in a free expansion process is

A. + ve
B. -ve
C. zero
D. maximum
E. minimum.

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40. The statement that molecular weights of all gases occupy the same volume
is known as
A. Avogadro’s hypothesis
B. Dalton’s law
C. Gas law
D. Law of thermodynamics
E. Joule’s law.

41. To convert volumetric analysis to gravimetric analysis, the relative volume

of each constituent of the flue gases is
A. divided by its molecular weight
B. multiplied by its molecular weight
C. multiplied by its density
D. multiplied by its specific weight
E. divided by its specific weight.

42. If a gas is heated against a pressure, keeping the volume constant, then
work done will be equal to
A. + v
B. – ve
C. zero
D. pressure x volume
E. any where between zero and infinity.

43. An isolated system is one in which

A. mass does not cross boundaries of the system, though energy may do so
B. neither mass nor energy crosses the boundaries of the system
C. both energy and mass cross the boundaries of the system
D. mass crosses the boundary but not the energy
E. thermodynamic reactions do not occur.

44. Properties of substances like pressure, temperature and density,

in thermodynamic coordinates are
A. path functions
B. point functions
C. cyclic functions
D. real functions
E. thermodynamic functions.

45. Which of the following quantities is not the property of the system
A. pressure
B. temperature
C. specific volume
D. heat
E. density.
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46. According to Avogadro’s law, for a given pressure and temperature,

each molecule of a gas
A. occupies volume proportional to its molecular weight
B. occupies volume proportional to its specific weight
C. occupies volume inversely proportional to its molecular weight
D. occupies volume inversely proportional to its specific weight
E. occupies same volume.
47. Mixture of ice and water form a
A. closed system
B. open system
C. isolated system
D. heterogeneous system
E. thermodynamic system.
48. Which of the following is the property of a system
A. pressure and temperature
B. internal energy
C. volume and density
D. enthalpy and entropy
E. all of the above.
49. On weight basis, air contains following parts of oxygen
A. 21
B. 23
C. 25
D. 73
E. 79.
50. Which of the following is not the intensive property
A. pressure
B. temperature
C. density
D. heat
E. specific volume.
51. Which of the following items is not a path function
A. heat
B. work
C. kinetic energy
D. vdp
E. thermal conductivity.
52. Work done in an adiabatic process between a given pair of end states depends on
A. the end states only
B. particular adiabatic process
C. the value of index n
D. the value of heattransferred
E. mass of the system.
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53. Heat and work are

A. point functions
B. system properties
C. path functions
D. intensive properties
E. extensive properties.

54. Which of the following parameters is constant for a mole for most of the gases
at a given temperature and pressure
A. enthalpy
B. volume
C. mass
D. entropy
E. specific volume.

55. The value of n = 1 in the polytropic process indicates it to be

A. reversible process
B. isothermal process
C. adiabatic process
D. irreversible process
E. free expansion process.

56. Solids and liquids have

A. one value of specific heat (ft) two values of specific heat
C. three values of specific heat
D. no value of specific heat
E. one value under some conditions and two values under other conditions.

57. A perfect gas at 27°C is heated at constant pressure till its volume is double.
The final temperature is
A. 54°C
B. 327°C
C. 108°C
D. 654°C
E. 600°C

58. Curve A in Fig. 1.1 compared to curves B and C shows the following type
of expansion
A. pV”=C
B. isothermal
C. adiabatic
D. free expansion
E. throttlig

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59. If value of n is infinitely large in a polytropic process pV” = C, then the process
is known as constant
A. volume
B. pressure
C. temperature
D. enthalpy
E. entropy.

60. The index of compression n tends to reach ratio of specific heats y when
A. flow is uniform and steady
B. process is isentropic
C. process is isothermal
D. process is isentropic and specific heat does not change with temperature
E. process is isentropic and specific heat changes with temperature.

61. Change in enthalpy of a system is the heat supplied at

A. constant pressure
B. constant temperature
C. constant volume
D. constant entropy
E. N.T.P. condition.

62. The term N.T.P. stands for

A. nominal temperature and pressure
B. natural temperature and pressure
C. normal temperature and pressure
D. normal thermodynamic practice
E. normal thermodynamic pressure.

63. A heat exchange process in which the product of pressure and volume
remains constant is known as
A. heat exchange process
B. throttling process
C. isentropic process
D. adiabatic process
E. hyperbolic process.

64. In an isothermal process, the internal energy of gas molecules

A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains constant
D. may increase/decrease depending on the properties of gas
E. shows unpredictable behaviour.

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65. Zeroth law of thermodynamics

A. deals with conversion of mass and energy
B. deals with reversibility and irreversibility of process
C. states that if two systems are both in equilibrium with a third system, they
are in thermal equilibrium with each other
D. deals with heat engines
E. does not exist.

66. If a certain amount of dry ice is mixed with same amount of water at 80°C, the
final temperature of mixture will be
A. 80°C
B. 0°C
C. 40°C
D. 20°C
E. 60°C.

67. The basis for measuring thermodynamic property of temperature is given by

A. zeroth law of thermodynamics
B. first law of thermodynamics
C. second law of thermodynamics
D. third law of thermodynamics
E. Avogadro’s hypothesis.

68. One watt is equal to

A. 1 Nm/s
B. 1 N/mt
C. 1 Nm/hr
D. 1 kNm/hr
E. 1 kNm/mt.

69. Work done is zero for the following process

A. constant volume
B. free expansion
C. throttling
D. all Of the above
E. none of the above.

70. For which of the following substances, the gas laws can be used with
minimum error
A. dry steam
B. wet steam
C. saturated steam
D. superheated steam
E. steam at atmospheric pressure.

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71. In a non-flow reversible process for which p = (- 3V+ 15) x 105N/m2,V

changes from 1 m to 2 m3. The work done will be about
A. 100 xlOO5 joules
B. lxlO5 joules
C. 10 xlO5 joules
D. 10 xlO5 kilo joules
E. 10xl04kiojoules.

72. The value of the product of molecular weight and the gas characteristic
constant for all the gases in M.K.S. unit is
A. 29.27 kgfm/mol°K
B. 8314kgfm/mol°K
C. 848kgfm/mol°K
D. 427kgfm/mol°K
E. 735 kgfm/mol°K.

73. On volume basis, air contains following parts of oxygen

A. 21
B. 23
C. 25
D. 77
E. 79.

74. Universal gas constant is defined as equal to product of the molecular weight
of the gas and
A. specific heat at constant pressure
B. specific heat at constant volume
C. ratio of two specific heats
D. gas constant
E. unity.

75. The value of the product of molecular weight and the gas characteristic
constant for all the gases in S.I. units is
A. 29.27 J/kmol°K
B. 83.14J/kmol°K
C. 848J/kmol°K
D. All J/kmol °K
E. 735 J/kmol °K.

76. For which of the following substances, the internal energy and enthalpy are
the functions of temperature only
A. any gas
B. saturated steam
C. water
D. perfect gas
E. superheated steam.

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77. In a free expansion process

A. work done is zero
B. heat transfer is zero
C. both A. and B. above
D. work done is zero but heat increases
E. work done is zero but heat decreases.

78. If a gas vapour is allowed to expand through a very minute aperture, then such
a process is known as
A. free expansion
B. hyperbolic expansion
C. adiabatic expansion
D. parabolic expansion
E. throttling.

79. The specific heat of air increases with increase in

A. temperature
B. pressure
C. both pressure and temperature
D. variation of its constituents
E. air flow

80. If a fluid expands suddenly into vacuum through an orifice of large

dimension, then such a process is called
A. free expansion
B. hyperbolic expansion
C. adiabatic expansion
D. parabolic expansion
E. throttling.

81. Which of the following processes are thermodynamically reversible

A. throttling
B. free expansion
C. constant volume and constant pressure
D. hyperbolic and pV = C
E. isothermal and adiabatic.

82. Which of the following processes is irreversible process

A. isothermal
B. adiabatic
C. throttling
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.

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83. In order that a cycle be reversible, following must be satisfied

A. free expansion or friction resisted expansion/compression process
should not be encountered
B. when heat is being absorbed, temperature of hot source and working
sub¬stance should be same
C. when beat is being rejected, temperature of cold source and working sub-
stance should be same
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.
84. For a thermodynamic process to be reversible, the temperature
difference between hot body and working substance should be
A. zero
B. minimum
D. maximum
D. infinity
E. there is no such criterion.
85. Minimum work in compressor is possible when the value of adiabatic index n
is equal to
A. 0.75
B. 1
C. 1.27
D. 1.35
E. 2.
86. Molecular volume of any perfect gas at 600 x 103 N/m2 and 27°C will be
A. 4.17m3/kgmol
B. 400 m3/kg mol
C. 0.15 m3/kg mol
D. 41.7 m3/kg mol
E. 417m3/kgmol.
87. A gas is compressed in a cylinder by a movable piston to a volume one-half
its original volume. During the process 300 kJ heat left the gas and internal
energy remained same. The work done on gas in Nm will be
A. 300 Nm
B. 300,000 Nm
C. 30 Nm
D. 3000 Nm
E. 30,000 Nm.

88. The more effective way of increasing efficiency of Carnot engine is to

A. increase higher temperature
B. decrease higher temperature
C. increase lower temperature
D. decrease lower temperature
E. keep lower temperature constant.
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89. Entropy change depends on

A. heat transfer
B. mass transfer
C. change of temperature
D. thermodynamic state
E. change of pressure and volume.

90. For reversible adiabatic process, change in entropy is

A. maximum
B. minimum
C. zero
D. unpredictable
E. negative.

91. Isochoric process is one in which

A. free expansion takes place
B. very little mechanical work is done by the system
C. no mechanical work is done by the system
D. all parameters remain constant
E. mass and energy transfer do not take place.

92. According to first law of thermodynamics

A. work done by a system is equal to heat transferred by the system
B. total internal energy of a system during a process remains constant
C. internal energy, enthalpy and entropy during a process remain constant
D. total energy of a system remains constant
E. entropy of a system remains constant.

93. Energy can neither be created nor destroyed but can be converted from one
form to other is inferred from
A. zeroth low of thermodynamic
B. first law of thermodynamics
C. second law to thermodynamics
D. basic law of thermodynamics
E. claussius statement.

94. First law of thermodynamics furnishes the relationship between

A. heat and work
B. heat, work and properties of the system
C. various properties of the system
D. various thermodynamic processes
E. heat and internal energy.

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95. Change in enthalpy in a closed system is equal to heat transferred if

the reversible process takes place at constant
A. pressure
B. temperature
C. volume
D. internal energy
E. entropy.

96. In an isothermal process, the internal energy

A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains constant
D. first increases and then decreases
E. first decreases and then increases.

97. Change in internal energy in a closed system is equal to heat transferred if

the reversible process takes place at constant
A. pressure
B. temperature
C. volume
D. internal energy
E. entropy.

98. According to first law of thermodynamics

A. mass and energy are mutually convertible
B. Carnot engine is most efficient
C. heat and work are mutually convertible
D. mass and light are mutually convertible
E. heat flows from hot substance to cold substance.

99. Total heat of a substance is also known as

A. internal energy
B. entropy
C. thermal capacity
D. enthalpy
E. thermal conductance.

100. First law of thermodynamics

A. enables to determine change in internal energy of the system
B. does not help to predict whether the system will or not undergo a change
C. does not enable to determine change in entropy
D. provides relationship between heat, work and internal energy
E. all of the above.

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101. Addition of heat at constant pressure to a gas results in

A. raising its temperature
B. raising its pressure
C. raising its volume
D. raising its temperature and doing external work
E. doing external work.

102. Carnot cycle has maximum efficiency for

A. reversible engine
B. irreversible engine
C. new engine
D. petrol engine
E. diesel engine.

103. Measurement of temperature is based on

A. thermodynamic properties
B. zeroth law of thermodynamics
C. first law of thermodynamics
D. second law of thermodynamics
E. joule’s law.

104. Carnot cycle efficiency depends upon

A. properties of the medium/substance used
B. condition of engine
C. working condition
D. temperature range of operation
E. effectiveness of insulating material around the engine.

105. Carnot cycle efficiency is maximum when

A. initial temperature is 0°K
B. final temperature is 0°K
C. difference between initial and final temperature is 0°K
D. final temperature is 0°C
E. initial temperature is minimum possible.

106. An engine operates between temperatures of 900°Kandr2 and another

engine between T2 and 400°K For both to do equal work, value of T2 will be
A. 650°K
B. 600°K
C. 625°K
D. 700°K
E. 750°K.

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107. If heat be exchanged in a reversible manner, which of the following property

of the working substance will change accordingly
A. temperature
B. enthalpy
C. internal energy
D. entropy
E. all of the above.

108. If a system after undergoing a series of processes, returns to the initial

state then
A. process is thermodynamically in equilibrium
B. process is executed in closed system cycle
C. its entropy will change due to irreversibility
D. sum of heat and work transfer will be zero
E. no work will be done by the system.

109. Which of the following represents the perpetual motion of the first kind
A. engine with 100% thermal efficiency
B. a fully reversible engine
C. transfer of heat energy from low temperature source to high temperature source
D. a machine that continuously creates its own energy
E. production of energy by temperature differential in sea water at different levels.

110. An actual engine is to be designed having same efficiency as the Carnot

cycle. Such a proposition is
A. feasible
B. impossible
C. possible
D. possible, but with lot of sophistications
E. desirable.

111. Which of the following gives the Mechanical efficiency of the engine?
A. IP/BP
B.1/(BP*IP
) C.
(BP*IP)
D. BP/IP
E.1/(IP*BP
)

112. A manufacturer claims to have a heat engine capable of developing 20 h.p.

by receiving heat input of 400 kcal/mt and working between the temperature limits
of 227° C and 27° C. His claim is
A. justified
B. not possible
C. may be possible with lot of sophistications

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D. cost will be very high
E. theroretically possible.

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113. In a Carnot cycle, heat is transferred at

A. constant pressure
B. constant volume
C. constant temperature
D. constant enthaply
E. any one of the above.

114. A diathermic wall is one which

A. prevents thermal interaction
B. permits thermal interaction
C. encourages thermal interaction
D. discourages thermal interaction
E. does not exist.

115. An adiabatic wall is one which

A. prevents thermal interaction
B. permits thermal interaction
C. encourages thermal interaction
D. discourages thermal interaction
E. dos not exist.

116. The door of a running refrigerator inside a room was left open. Which of
the following statements is correct?
A. The room will be cooled to the temperature inside the refrigerator.
B. The room will be cooled very slightly.
C. The room will be gradually warmed up.
D. The temperature of the air in room will remain unaffected.
E. any one of above is possible depending on the capacity.

117. Compressed air coming out from a punctured football

A. becomes hotter
B. becomes cooler1
C. remains at the same temperature
D. may become hotter or cooler depend-ing upon the humidity of the surround¬ing air
E. attains atmospheric temperature.

118. Water contained in a beaker can be made to boil by passing steam through it
A. at atmospheric pressure
B. at a pressure below the firuosphejric pressure
C. at a pressure greater than atmospheric pressure
D. any pressure
E. not possible.

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119. During throttling process

A. heat exchange does not take place
B. no work is done by expanding steam
C. there is no change of internal energy of steam
D. all of the above
E. entropy decreases.

120. The energy of molecular motion appears as

A. heat
B. potential energy
C. surface tension
D. friction
E. increase in pressure.

121. A sudden fall in the barometer reading is a sign of approaching

A. fine weather
B. rains
C. storm
D. cold wave
E. hot wave.

122. The unit’of universal gas constant is

A. watts/°K
B. dynes/°C
C. ergscm/
°K D.erg/°K
E. none of the above.

123. Calorie is a measure of

A. specific heat
B. quantity of heat
C. thermal
capacity
D.entropy
E. work.
124. I kgf/cm2 is equal to
A. 760 mm Hg
B. zero mm Hg
C. 735.6 mm Hg
D. 1 mm Hg
E. lOOmmHg.

125. Barometric pressure is equal to

A. 760 mm Hg
B. zero mm Hg
C. 735.6 mm Hg
D. 1 mm Hg
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E. 100mm Hg.

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126. One barometric pressure or 1 atmospheric pressure is equal to

A. 1 kgf/cnr2
B. 1.033 kgf/cm2
C. 0 kgf/cm2
D. 1.0197 kgf/cm2
E. 100 kgf/cm2.

127. The first law of thermodynamics is the law of

A. conservation of mass
B. conservation of energy
C. conservation of momentum
D. conservation of heat
E. conservation of temperature.

128. A perpetual motion machine is

A. a thermodynamic machine
B. a non-thermodynamic machine
C. a hypothetical machine
D. a hypothetical machine whose opera-tion would violate the laws of thermodynamics
E. an inefficient machine.

129. Kelvin Planck’s law deals with

A. conservation of heat
B. conservation of work
C. conversion of heat into work
D. conversion fo work into heat
E. conservation of mass.

130. According to Clausis statement of second law of thermodynamics

A. heat can’t be transferred from low temperature source to high temperature source
B. heat can be transferred for low temperature to high temperature
source by using refrigeration cycle.
C. heat can be transferred from low temperature to high temperature
source if COP of process is more than unity
D. heat can’t be transferred from low temperature to high temperature
source without the aid of external energy
E. all of the above.

131. Thermal power plant works on

A. Carnot cycle
B. Joule cycle
D. Rankine cycle
D. Otto cycle
E. Brayton cycle.

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132. Which of the following is an irreversible cycle

A. carnot
B. Stirling
C. ericsson
D. all of the above
E. none of the above.

133. Otto cycle consists of following four processes

A. two isothermals and two isentropics
B. two isentropics and two constant volumes
C. two isentropics, one constant volume and one constant pressure
D. two isentropics and two constant pres-sures
E. none of the above.

134. The efficiency of a Carnot engine depends on

A. working substance
B. design of engine
C. size of engine
D. type of fuel fired
E. temperatures of source and sink.

135. For same compression ratio and for same heat added
A. Otto cycle is more efficient than Diesel cycle
B. Diesel cycle is more efficient than Otto cycle
C. efficiency depends on other factors
D. both Otto and Diesel cycles are equally efficient
E. none of the above.

136. The efficiency of Carnot cycle is maximum for

A. gas engine
B. well lubricated engine
C. petrol engine
D. steam engine
E. reversible engine.

137. Carnot cycle is

A. a reversible cycle (ft) an irreversible cycle
C. a semi-reversible cycle
D. a quasi static cycle
E. an adiabatic irreversible cycle.

138. Diesel cycle consists of following four processes

A. two isothermals and two isentropics
B. two isentropics, and two constant volumes.
C. two isentropics, one constant volume and one constant pressure
D. two isentropics and two constant pressures
E. none of the above.
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139. If both Stirling and Carnot cycles operate within the same temperature
limits, then efficiency of Stirling cycle as compared to Carnot cycle
A. more
B. less
C. equal
D. depends on other factors
E. none of the above.

140. Stirling and Ericsson cycles are

A. reversible cycles
B. irreversible cycles
C. quasi-static cycles
D. semi-reversible cycles
E. adiabatic irreversible cycles.

141. A cycle consisting of two adiabatics and two constant pressure processes
is known as
A. Otto cycle
B. Ericsson cycle
C. Joule cycle
D. Stirling cycle
E. Atkinson cycle.

142. Reversed joule cycle is called

A. Carnot cycle
B. Rankine cycle
C. Brayton cycle
D. Bell Coleman cycle
E. Dual cycle.

143. Brayton cycle consists’ of following four processes

A. two isothermals and two isentropics
B. two isentropics and two constant volumes
C. two isentropics, one constant volume and one constant pressure
D. two isentropics and two constant pres-sures
E. none of the above.

144. Which of the following cycles is not a reversible cycle

A. Carnot
B. Ericsson
C. Stirling
D. Joule
E. none of the above.

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145. The cycle in which heat is supplied at constant volume and rejected at
constant pressure is known as
A. Dual combustion cycle
B. Diesel cycle
C. Atkinson cycle
D. Rankine cycle
E. Stirling cycle.

146. The efficiency of Diesei cycle with decrease in cut off

A. increases
B. decreases
C. remains unaffected
D. first increases and then decreases
E. first decreases and then increases.

147. Which of the following cycles has maximum efficiency

A. Rankine
B. Stirling
C. Carnot
D. Brayton
E. Joule.

148. The ideal efficiency of a Brayton cycle without regeneration with increase
ni pressure ratio will
A. increase
B. decrease
C. remain unchanged
D. increase/decrease depending on application
E. unpredictable.

149. The ideal efficiency of a Brayton cycle with regeneration, with increase
in pressure ratio will
A. increase
B. decrease
C. remain unchanged
D. increase/decrease depending on ap-plication
E. unpredictable. ”

150. The following cycle is used for air craft refrigeration

A. Brayton cycle
B. Joule cycle
C. Carnot cycle
D. Bell-Coleman cycle
E. Reversed-Brayton cycle.

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THERMODYNAMICS – ANSWER KEY

1 d 41 b 81 a 121 c
2 d 42 c 82 e 122 d
3 d 43 b 83 c 123 b
4 a 44 b 84 a 124 c
5 a 45 d 85 b 125 a
6 a 46 e 86 a 126 b
7 b 47 d 87 b 127 b
8 c 48 e 88 d 128 d
9 a 49 b 89 a 129 c
10 b 50 d 90 c 130 d
11 c 51 e 91 c 131 c
12 d 52 a 92 d 132 e
13 c 53 c 93 b 133 b
14 a 54 b 94 b 134 e
15 b 55 b 95 a 135 a
16 c 56 a 96 c 136 e
17 a 57 b 97 c 137 a
18 d 58 b 98 c 138 c
19 a 59 a 99 d 139 c
20 d 60 d 100 e 140 a
21 c 61 a 101 d 141 c
22 c 62 c 102 a 142 c
23 d 63 e 103 b 143 d
24 a 64 c 104 d 144 e
25 b 65 c 105 b 145 c
26 c 66 b 106 a 146 a
27 c 67 a 107 d 147 c
28 d 68 a 108 d 148 a
29 d 69 d 109 d 149 b
30 b 70 d 110 d 150 e
31 b 71 c 111 d
32 c 72 c 112 b
33 c 73 a 113 c
34 c 74 d 114 b
35 e 75 b 115 a
36 b 76 d 116 c
37 a 77 c 117 b
38 a 78 e 118 c
39 c 79 a 119 d
40 a 80 a 120 a

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Nuclear Power Plants Multiple Choice Questions

1. The efficiency of a nuclear power plant in comparsion to a conventional

thermal power plant is
(a) same
(b)more
(c) less
(d)may be less or mote depending on size
(e) unpredictable.

2. Isotopes of same elements have

(a) same atomic number and different masses
(b)same chemical properties but different atomic numbers
(c) different masses and different atomic numbers
(d)different chemical properties and same atomic numbers
(e) same chemical properties and same atomic numbers.

3. Atomic number of an element in the periodic table represents the numbers of

(a) protons in the nucleus
(b)electrons in me nucleus
(c) neutrons in the nucleus
(d)electrons in the atom
(e) neutrons in the atom.

4. The mass number of a substance represents the sum of total number of

(a) protons and neutrons in an atom
(b)protons and electrons in an atom
(c) neutrons and electrons in an atom
(d)protons and neutrons in a nucleus
(e) protons and electrons in a nucleus.

5. Which is not identical for an atom and an isotope

(a) mass number
(b)atomic number
(c) chemical properties
(d)position in periodic table
(e) all of the above.

6a. Amongst the following, the fissionable materials are

(a) U233andPu239
(b)U23iandPu233
(c) U235andPu235
(d)U238andPu239
(e) U243andPu235

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6b. A nuclear unit becoming critical means

(a) it is generating power to rated capacity
(b)it is capable of generating much more than rated capacity
(c) there is danger of nuclear spread
(d)chain reaction that causes automatic splitting of the fuel nuclei has been
established
(e) it generates no heat.

7. Moderator in nuclear plants is used to

(a) reduce temperature
(b)extract heat from nuclear reaction
(c) control the reaction
(d)cause collision with the fast moving neutrons to reduce their speed
(e) moderate the radioactive pollution.

8. The most commonly used moderator in nuclear plants is

(a) heavy water
(b)concrete and bricks
(c) graphite and concrete
(d)deutrium
(e) graphite.

9. The nuclear energy is measured as

(a) MeV
(b)curie
(c) farads
(d)MW
(e) kWhr.

10. The total energy released in fission of U is

(a) 5 MeV
(b)10 MeV
(c) 199 MeV
(d)168 MeV
(e) 11 MeV.

11. Breeder reactor has a conversion ratio of

(a) unity
(b)more than unity
(c) less than unity
(d)zero
(e) infinity.

12. Boiling water reactor employs

(a) boiler
(b)direct cycle of coolant system
(c) double circuit system of coolant cycle
(d)multi pass system

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(e) single circuit system.

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13. Fast breeder reactor uses

(a) boiler
(b)direct cycle of coolant system
(c) double circuit system of coolant cycle
(d)multi pass system
(e) single circuit system.
14. One gram of uranium will produce energy equivalent to approximately
(a) 1 tonne of high grade coal
(b)4.5 tonnes of high grade coal
(c) 10 tonnes of high grade coal
(d)100 tonnes of high grade coal
(e) 1000 tonnes of high grade coal.
15. Which of the following nuclear reactor does not need a heat exchanger
for generation of steam
(a) gas cooled
(b)liquid metal cooled
(c) pressurised water
(d)boiling water
(e) none of the above.
16. The number of isotopes of hydrogen are
(a) 1
(b)2
(c) U
(c) 3
(e) 0
17. The commonly used material for shielding is
(a) lead or concrete
(b)lead and tin
(c) graphite or cadmium
(d)thick galvanised sheets
(e) black carbon papers.
18. The main interest of shielding in nuclear reactor is protection against
(a) X-rays
(b)infra-red rays
(c) a, P, and y rays
(d)neutrons and gamma rays
(e) electrons.
19. Reflector in nuclear plants is used to
(a) return the neutrons back into the core
(b)shield the radioactivity completely
(c) check polllution
(d)conserve energy
(e) is not used.
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20. The energy required to be applied to a radioactive nucleus for the emission of
a neutron is
(a) 1 MeV
(b)2.4 MeV
(c) 4.3 MeV
(d)7.8 MeV
(e) 20 MeV.

21. Which of the following are ferrite materials

(a) U233andPu239
(b)U
(c) U238andPu239
(d)U238andTh239
(e) none of the above

22. Ferrite material is

(a) the most fissionable material
(b)the basic fuel for nuclear paints
(c) basic raw material for nuclear plants
(d)the material which absorbs neutrons and undergoes spontaneous changes
leading to the formation of fissionable material
(e) none of the above.

23. Enriched uranium is one in which

(a) %age of U235 has been artificially in-creased
(b)%age of U has been artificially increased
(c) %age of U234 has been artificially in-creased
(d)extra energy is pumped from outside
(e) all impurities have been removed.

24. Which of the following particles is the lightest

(a) nucleus
(b)electron
(c) proton
(d)meson
(e) neutron.

25. Which of the following is the heaviest

(a) neutron
(b)proton
(c) atom
(d)electron
(e) nucleus.

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26. In fast breeder reactors

(a) any type of moderator can be used
(b)graphite is used as the moderator
(c) heavy water is used as the moderator
(d)moderator may or may not be used
(e) moderator is dispensed with.

27. In nuclear fission each neutron that causes fission releases

(a) no new neutron
(b)at least one new neutron
(c) one new neutron
(d)more than one new neutrons
(e) many-fold neutrons.

28. The breeding gain in case of thermal breeder reactor as compared to fast
breeder reactor is
(a) same
(b)lower
(c) higher
(d)unity
(e) higher/lower depending on the size of reactor.

29. Gas cooled reactor uses following materials as moderator, and coolant
(a) graphite, C02
(b)graphite, air
(c) heavy water, C02
(d)lead, H2
(e) concrete, N2.

30. A nuclear fission produces energy of following order in MeV

(a) 20
(b) 200
(c) 2000
(d)
20,000
(e) 2 x 105.

31. The process by which a heavy nucleus is splitted into two light nuclei is known as
(a) splitting
(b)fission
(c) fusion
(d)disintegration
(e) chain reaction.

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32. A nuclear fission is initiated when the critical energy as compared to

neutron binding energy of the atoms is
(a) same
(b)more
(c) less
(d)there is no such criterion
(e) none of the above.

33. The fast breeder reactor uses the following moderator

(a) demineralised water
(b)carbon dioxide
(c) heavy water
(d)graphite
(e) no moderator is used.

34. The first nuclear power plant in India is located at

(a) Kota
(b)Kalapakkam
(c) Tarapur
(d)Baraeilly
(e) Kerala.

35a. The nuclear power plant at Tarapur has the following reactor
(a) fast breeder
(b)pressurised water
(c) boiling water
(d)sodium graphite
(e) none of the above.

35b. Boiling water reactor uses the following as moderator, coolant and working fluid
(a) ordinary fluid
(b)heavy water
(c) molten lead
(d)hydrogen gas
(e) none of the above.

36. Ideally the neutron flux in reactor should be

(a) maximum in center and zero at side
(b)maximum at side and zero in center
(c) uniform throughout
(d)zero throughout
(e) none of the above.

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37. Enriched uranium may contain fissionable contents of the order of

(a) 1-99%
(b) 1-25%
(c) 1-50%
(d) 1-75%
(e) 1-90%.

38. U235 will undergo fission by

(a) high energy (fast) neutrons alone
(b)low energy (slow) neutrons alone
(c) either fast or slow neutrons
(d)medium energy neutrons
(e) none of the above.

39. U238 will undergo fission by

(a) high energy (fast) neutrons alone
(b)low energy (slow) neutrons alone
(c) either fast or slow neutrons
(d)medium energy neutrons
(e) none of the above.

40. A reactor capable of converting a ferrite material into fissile isotopes is called
(a) regenerative reactor
(b)fast breeder reactor
(c) breeder reactor
(d)boiling water reactor
(e) ferrite reactor.

41. Hydrogen is preferred as better coolant in comparison to C02 because former

(a) is lighter
(b)is inert
(c) has high specific heat
(d)is a good conductor
(e) all of the above.

42. Natural uranium is made up of

(a) 99.282% U238, 0.712% U235, 0.006% U234
(b) 99.282% U235, 0.712% U238, 0.06%’ U234
(c) 99.282% U234, 0.712% U238, 0.006% U235
(d) 99.282% U235, 0.712% U234, 0.006% U238
(e) none of the above.

43. The risk of radioactive hazard is greatest in the turbine with following reactor
(a) pressurised water
(b)boiling water
(c) gas cooled
(d)liquid metal cooled
(e) all of the above.
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44. Plutonium is produced

(a) as basic raw material
(b)by neutron irradiation of Uz
(c) by neutron irradiation of throium
(d)artificially
(e) in high capacity furnace.

45. Electron-volt is the unit of

(a) atomic power
(b)energy
(c) voltage
(d)radio activity
(e) there is no such unit.

46. Pick up the wrong statement

(a) In a heterogeneous or solid-fuel reactor, the fuel is mixed in a regular
pattern within moderator.
(b)Slow or thermal neutrons have energy of the order or 0.025 eV
(c) Fast neutrons have energies above 1000 eV
(d)Fast reactor uses moderator
(e) Most serious drawback in using water as coolant in nuclear plants is its
high vapour pressure.

47. The unit of radio-activity is

(a) electron-volt
(b)electron-ampere
(c) curie
(d)MeV
(e) AMU.

48. Pick up the wrong statement Fast breeder reactors

(a) operate at extremely high power densities.
(b)are liquid-metal cooled
(c) produce more fuel than they consume
(d)are unmoderated
(e) use water as coolant.

49. Uranium-233 is produced

(a) as basic raw material
(b)by neutron irradiation of Uz
(c) by neutron irradiation of thorium
(d)artificially
(e) in high capacity furnaces.

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50. Plutonium-239 is produced

(a) as basic raw material
(b)by neutron irradiation of IT*
(c) by neutron irradiation of thorium
(d)artificially
(e) in high capacity furnaces.

51. Which of the following type of pump is used in liquid metal cooled reactor
for circulation of liquid metal
(a) centrifugal
(b)axial
(c) reciprocation
(d)electromagnetic
(e) diaphragm.

52. Which of the following is the primary fuel

(a) Ulii
(b)U
(c) U238
(d)Pu:
(e) Pu

53. Which of the following is secondary fuel

(a) Th232andU238
(b)U233andPu239
(c) U233andPu238

54. A pressurised water reactor employs pressuriser for the following application
(a) to maintain constant pressure in primary circuit under varying load
(b)to Supply high pressure steam
(c) to increase pressure of water in primary circut
(d)to provide subcooled water at high pressure
(e) all of the above.

55. Which of the following can be used as a coolant in nuclear plant

(a) light or heavy water
(b)molten lead
(c) carbon dioxide
(d)freon
(e) carbon tetrachloride.

56. Reactors for propulsion applications use

(a) natural uranium
(b)molten lead
(c) any form of uranium
(d)thorium
(e) plutonium.
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57. The function of control rods in nuclear plants is to

(a) control temperature
(b)control readioactive pollution
(c) control absorption of neutron
(d)control fuel consumption
(e) none of the above.

58. Breeder reactors employ liquid metal coolant because it

(a) acts as good moderator
(b)produces maximum steam
(c) transfers heat from core at a fast rate
(d)breeds neutrons
(e) increases rate of reaction in core.

59. In triggering fission, which type of neutrons are more effective

(a) fast
(b)slow
(c) in bulk
(d)static
(e) activated.

60. For economical operation of a nuclear plant

(a) used fuel should be reprocessed
(b)moderator should be used
(c) coolant should be employed
(d)control rods should be used
(e) reflector should be used.

61. The size of the reactor is said to be critical when

(a) chain reaction can be initiated
(b)it becomes uncontrollable
(c) it explodes
(d)it produces no power
(e) it produces tremendous power.

62. When a reactor becomes critical, then the production of neutrons is

(a) infinite
(b)zero
(c) exactly balanced by the loss of neutrons through leakage
(d)initiated
(e) stopped.

63. In the breeder reactors the generation of new fissionable atom is

(a) at the lower rate than the consumption
(b)at a higher rate than the constuption
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(c) at an equal rate of the consumption

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(d)depends on other considerations

(e) unpredictable.
64. The energy produced by a thermal reactor of same size as a breeder reactor is
(a) almost same
(b)slightly more
(c) slightly less
(d)much less
(e) much more.
65. Reactors designed for propulsion applications are designed for
(a) natural uranium
(b)enriched uranium
(c) pure uranium
(d)any type of uranium
(e) none of the above.
66. Supertheated steam is generated in following reactor
(a) boiling water
(b)gas cooled
(c) pressurised water
(d)all of the above
(e) none of the above.
67. Solid- fuel for nuclear reactions may be fabricated into various small shapes
such as
(a) plates
(b)pallets
(c) pins
(d)any one of the above
(e) none of the above.
68. Which of the following is more appropriate for a moderator. One which
(a) does not absorb neutrons
(b)absorbs neutrons
(c) accelerates neutrons
(d)eats up neutrons
(e) regenerates neutrons.
69. A fission chain reaction in uranium can be developed by
(a) slowing down fast neutrons so that Uz fission continues by slow motion
neutrons
(b)accelerating fast neutrons
(c) absorbing all neutrons
(d)using moderator
(e) enriching U235.

70. In triggering fission, the following types of neutrons are desirable

(a) fast moving

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(b)slow moving
(c) critical neutrons

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(d)neutrons at rest
(e) none of the above.

71. Effective moderators are those materials which contain

(a) light weight atoms
(b)heavy weight atoms
(c) critical atoms
(d)zero weight atoms
(e) there is no such criterion.

72. In a fission process, maximum %age of energy is released as

(a) kinetic energy of neutrons
(b)kinetic energy of fission products
(c) instantaneous release of gamma rays
(d)gradual readioactive decay of fission products
(e) none of the above.

73. The following present serious difficulty in designing reactor shield

(a) alpha particles
(b)beta particles
(c) thermal neutrons
(d)fast neutrons and gamma rays
(e) none of the above.

74. In nuclear fission

(a) the original elements change into completely different elements
(b)the electrons of the element change
(c) the molecules rearrange themselves to form other molecules
(d)none of the above.

75. In order to have constant clain reaction to produce a constant rate of heat
output, the value of ratio of the number of neutrons in one generation to the number
of neutrons in the immediately preceding generation must be
(a) greater than 1.0
(b)less than 1.0
(c) equal to zero
(c) equal to 1.0
(e) equal to infinity.

76. A fast breeder reactor uses following as fuel

(a) enriched uranium
(b)plutonium
(c) thorium
(d)U235
(e) natrual uranium.

77. A boiling water reactor uses following as fuel

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(a) enriched uranium

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(b)plutonium
(c) thorium
(d)U
(e) natural uranium.

78. A fast breeder reactor

(a) uses graphite rods as moderator
(b)has powerful moderator
(c) has no moderator
(d)uses ferrite material as moderator
(e) uses pressurised water as moderator.

79. Artificial radioactive isotopes find application in

(a) power generation
(b)nucleonic devices
(c) nuclear fission
(d)nuclear fusion
(e) medical field.

80. A fast breeder reactor uses

(a) 90% U-235
(b) U-238
(c) U-235
(d) Pu-
239 (e)
U-239.

81. Half life of a radioactive isotope corresponds to the time required for half of
the following to decay
(a) electrons
(b)protons
(c) neutrons
(d)nulceus
(e) atom.

82. Pressurised water reactor isdesigned

(a) for boiling pi water in the core
(b)to use liquid sodium metal as coolant
(c) to use intermediate coolant
(d)to prevent the water coolant from boiling in the core
(e) to eliminate the coolant loop of the pressurised water.

83. The coolant used in boiling water reactor is

(a) Co2
(b)pressurised water
(c) mixture of water and steam

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(d)liquid metal
(e) mercury.

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84. In boiling water reactor, moderator is

(a) coolant itself
(b)ferrite rod
(c) graphite rod
(d)liquid sodium metal
(e) blanket of thorium.

85. The most practical fuel for a thermo-nuclear reactor, both from econocical
and nuclear consideration is
(a) plutonium
(b)uranium
(c) deuterium
(d)thorium
(e) lithium.

86. The efficiency of a nuclear power plant in comparison to conventional

and nuclear consideration is
(a) higher cost of nuclear fuel
(b)high initial cost
(c) high heat rejection in condenser
(d)lower temperature and pressure condi-tions
(e) nuclear hazard risk.

87. The presence of reflector in nuclear power plants results in

(a) increased production of neutrons
(b)complete absorption of neutrons
(c) controlled production of neutrons
(d)decreased leakage of neutrons
(e) decrease of speed of neutrons.

88. The fuel needed, with reflector in nuclear power plant, in order to
generate sufficient neutrons to sustain a chain reaction, would be
(a) more
(b)less
(c) same
(d)zero
(e) negative, i.e. fuel would be generated.

89. Each fission of U235 produces following number of fast neutrons per fission
(a) 1 neutron
(b)1 — neutrons
(c) 1 – 2 neutrons
(d)2 — neutrons
(e) infinite.
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NUCLEAR POWER PLANTS – ANSWER KEY

1 c 31 b 61 a
2 b 32 b 62 c
3 a 33 e 63 b
4 d 34 c 64 d
5 a 35a c 65 b
6a a 35b a 66 b
6b d 36 c 67 b
7 d 37 a 68 a
8 e 38 c 69 a
9 a 39 a 70 b
10 c 40 a 71 a
11 b 41 c 72 b
12 b 42 a 73 d
13 c 43 b 74 a
14 b 44 b 75 d
15 d 45 b 76 d
16 c 46 d 77 a
17 a 47 c 78 c
18 d 48 e 79 e
19 a 49 c 80 a
20 d 50 b 81 e
21 b 51 d 82 d
22 d 52 b 83 c
23 a 53 c 84 a
24 b 54 a 85 c
25 c 55 a 86 d
26 e 56 b 87 d
27 d 57 c 88 b
28 b 58 c 89 d
29 a 59 b
30 b 60 a

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Engineering Materials Multiple choice Questions

1. The composition of silver solder is

A. Silver, copper, zinc
B. Silver, tin, nickel
C. Silver, lead, zinc
D. Silver, copper, aluminium

2. When a steel containing 0.8% carbon is cooled slowly below the lower
critical point, it consists of ferrite and pearlite.
A. Equal to
B. Less than
C. More than
D. None of these

3. Pipes for bicycle frames are made of

A. Cold rolled steel
B. Hot rolled steel
C. Forged steel
D. Cast steel

4. Which one of the following metals would work-harden more quickly than
the others?
A. Copper
B. Brass
C. Lead
D. Silver

5. Iron-carbon alloys containing carbon 4.3% are known as hyper-eutectic

cast irons.
A. Equal to
B. Less than
C. More than
D. None of these

6. Bell metal contains

A. 70% copper and 30% zinc
B. 90% copper and 10% tin
C. 85 – 92% copper and rest tin with little lead and nickel
D. 70 – 75% copper and rest tin

7. The temperature required for full annealing in hypereutectoid steel is

A. 30° C to 50° C above upper critical temperature
B. 30° C to 50° C below upper critical temperature
C. 30° C to 50° C above lower critical temperature
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D. 30° C to 50° C below lower critical temperature

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8. The charge of the blast furnace consists of

A. Calcined ore (8 parts), coke (4 parts) and limestone (1 part)
B. Calcined ore (4 parts), coke (1 part) and limestone (8 parts)
C. Calcined ore (1 part), coke (8 parts) and limestone (4 parts)
D. Calcined ore, coke and limestone all in equal parts

9. The following element can’t impart high strength at elevated temperature

A. Manganese
B. Magnesium
C. Nickel
D. Silicon

10. The percentage carbon content in wrought iron is about

A. 0.02
B. 0.1
C. 02
D. 0.4

11. Heavy duty leaf and coil springs contain carbon of the following order
A. 0.2%
B. 0.5%
C. 0.8%
D. 1.0%

12. The silicon steel is widely used for

A. Connecting rods
B. Cutting tools
C. Generators and transformers in the form of laminated cores
D. Motor car crankshafts

13. Blast furnace produces following by reduction of iron ore

A. Cast iron
B. Pig iron
C. Wrought iron
D. Malleable iron

14. For a steel containing 0.8% carbon

A. There is no critical point
B. There is only one critical point
C. There are two critical points
D. There can be any number of critical points

15. Nickel in steel

A. Improves wear resistance, cutting ability and toughness
B. Refines grain size and produces less tendency to carburisation, improves
corrosion and heat resistant properties
C. Improves cutting ability and reduces hardenability
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D. Gives ductility, toughness, tensile strength and anti-corrosion properties

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16. Which of the following impurity in cast iron makes it hard and brittle?
A. Silicon
B. Sulphur
C. Manganese
D. Phosphorus

17. Tensile strength of steel can be safely increased by

A. Adding carbon up to 2.8%
B. Adding carbon up to 6.3%
C. Adding carbon up to 0.83%
D. Adding small quantities of copper

18. Which of the following metal is used for nuclear energy?

A. Uranium
B. Thorium
C. Niobium
D. All of these

19. Cemented carbide tools are not found to be suitable for cutting
A. Brass
B. Cast iron
C. Aluminium
D. Steel

20. Y-alloy contains

A. 3.5 to 4.5% copper, 0.4 to 0.7% magnesium, 0.4 to 0.7% manganese and rest
aluminium
B. 3.5 to 4.5% copper, 1.2 to 1.7% manganese, 1.8 to 2.3% nickel, 0.6%
each of silicon, magnesium and iron, and rest aluminium
C. 4 to 4.5% magnesium, 3 to 4% copper and rest aluminium
D. 5 to 6% tin, 2 to 3% copper and rest aluminium

21. Amorphous material is one

A. In which atoms align themselves in a geometric pattern upon solidification
B. In which there is no definite atomic structure and atoms exist in a random
pattern just as in a liquid
C. Which is not attacked by phosphorous
D. Which emits fumes on melting

22. According to Indian standard specifications, SG 400/15 means

A. Spheroidal graphite cast iron with B.H.N. 400 and minimum tensile strength 15
MPa
B. Spheroidal graphite cast iron with minimum tensile strength 400 MPa and
15 percent elongation

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C. Spheroidal graphite cast iron with minimum compressive strength 400

MPa and 15 percent reduction in area
D. None of the above

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23. Brass (alloy of copper and zinc) is an example of

A. Substitutional solid solution
B. Interstitial solid solution
C. Intermetallic compounds
D. All of the above

24. In process annealing, the hypo eutectoid steel is

A. Heated from 30°C to 50°C above the upper critical temperature and then
cooled in still air
B. Heated from 30°C to 50°C above the upper critical temperature and
then cooled suddenly in a suitable cooling medium
C. Heated from 30°C to 50°C above the upper critical temperature and then
cooled slowly in the furnace
D. Heated below or closes to the lower critical temperature and then cooled
slowly

25. Pick up the wrong statement

A. Aluminium in steel results in excessive grain growth
B. Manganese in steel induces hardness
C. Nickel and chromium in steel helps in raising the elastic limit and improve
the resilience and ductility
D. Tungsten in steels improves magnetic properties and hardenability

26. A coarse grained steel

A. Is less tough and has a greater tendency to distort during heat treatment
B. Is more ductile and has a less tendency to distort during heat treatment
C. Is less tough and has a less tendency to distort during heat treatment
D. Is more ductile and has a greater tendency to distort during heat treatment

27. Pick up the wrong statement Nickel and chromium in steel help in
A. Providing corrosion resistance
B. Improving machining properties
C. Providing high strength at elevated temperatures
D. Raising the elastic limit

28. Normalising of steel is done to

A. Refine the grain structure
B. Remove strains caused by cold working
C. Remove dislocations caused in the internal structure due to hot working
D. All of the above

29. Steel contains

A. 80% or more iron
B. 50% or more iron

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C. Alloying elements like chromium, tungsten nickel and copper

D. Elements like phosphorus, sulphur and silicon in varying quantities

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30. Which of the following has a fine gold colour and is used for imitation jewellery?
A. Silicon bronze
B. Aluminium bronze
C. Gun metal
D. Babbitt metal

31. Elinvar, an alloy used in precision instruments, hair springs for watches,
etc. contains the following element as principal alloying element
A. Iron
B. Copper
C. Aluminium
D. Nickel

32. Which of the following statement is wrong?

A. Steel with 0.8% carbon is wholly pearlite
B. The amount of cementite increases with the increase in percentage of carbon
in iron
C. A mechanical mixture of 87% cementite and 13% ferrite is called pearlite
D. The cementite is identified as round particles in the structure

33. Which of the following has highest specific strength of all structural materials?
A. Magnesium alloys
B. Titanium alloys
C. Chromium alloys
D. Magnetic steel alloys

34. In a hardening process, the hypo-eutectoid steel is

A. Heated from 30°C to 50°C above the upper critical temperature and then
cooled in still air
B. Heated from 30°C to 50°C above the upper critical temperature and
then cooled suddenly in a suitable cooling medium
C. Heated from 30°C to 50°C above the upper critical temperature and then
cooled slowly in the furnace
D. Heated below or closes to the lower critical temperature and then cooled
slowly

35. The correct composition of Babbitt metal is

A. 87.75% Sn, 4% Cu, 8% Sb, 0.25% Bi
B. 90% Sn, 2% Cu, 4% Sb, 2% Bi, 2% Mg
C. 87% Sn, 4% Cu, 8% Sb, 1% Al
D. 82% Sn, 4% Cu, 8% Sb, 3% Al, 3% Mg

36. When steel containing less than 0.8% carbon is cooled slowly from
temperatures above or within the critical range, it consists of
A. Mainly ferrite
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B. Mainly pearlite
C. Ferrite and pearlite
D. Pearlite and cementite

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37. Dow metal contains

A. 94% aluminium, 4% copper and 0.5% Mn, Mg, Si and Fe
B. 92.5% aluminium and, 4% copper, 2% nickel and 1.5% Mg
C. 90% aluminium and 90% copper
D. 90% magnesium and 9% aluminium with some copper

38. Body centered cubic space lattice is found in

A. Zinc, magnesium, cobalt, cadmium, antimony and bismuth
B. Gamma iron, aluminium, copper, lead, silver and nickel
C. Alpha iron, tungsten, chromium and molybdenum
D. None of the above

39. Which of the following alloys does not have copper as one of the constituents?
A. Delta metal
B. Monel metal
C. Constantan
D. Nichrome

40. In spheroidising process, the steel is

A. Heated below the lower critical temperature and then cooled slowly
B. Heated up to the lower critical temperature and then cooled in still air
C. Heated slightly above the lower critical temperature and then cooled
slowly to a temperature of 600°C
D. None of the above

41. Which of the following alloys does not contain tin?

A. White metal
B. Solder admiralty
C. Fusible metal
D. Phosphor bronze

42. The bond formed by transferring electrons from one atom to another is called
A. Ionic bond
B. Covalent bond
C. Metallic bond
D. None of these

43. Addition of manganese to aluminium results in

A. Improvement of casting characteristics
B. Improvement of corrosion resistance
C. One of the best known age and precipitation hardening systems
D. Improving machinability

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44. When medium carbon steel is heated to coarsening temperature

A. There is no change in grain size
B. The average grain size is a minimum
C. The grain size increases very rapidly
D. The grain size first increases and then decreases very rapidly

45. Admiralty gun metal contains

A. 63 to 67% nickel and 30% copper
B. 88% copper, 10% tin and rest zinc
C. Alloy of tin, lead and cadmium
D. Iron scrap and zinc

46. The alloy, mainly used for corrosion resistance in stainless steels is
A. Silicon
B. Manganese
C. Carbon
D. Chromium

47. The correct sequence for descending order of machinability is

A. Grey cast iron, low carbon steel, wrought iron
B. Low carbon steel, grey cast iron, wrought iron
C. Wrought iron, low carbon steel, grey cast iron
D. Wrought iron, grey cast iron, low carbon steel

48. Duralumin contains

A. 3.5 to 4.5% copper, 0.4 to 0.7% magnesium, 0.4 to 0.7% manganese and rest
aluminium
B. 3.5 to 4.5% copper, 1.2 to 1.7% manganese, 1.8 to 2.3% nickel, 0.6%
each of silicon, magnesium and iron, and rest aluminium
C. 4 to 4.5% magnesium, 3 to 4% copper and rest aluminium
D. 5 to 6% tin, 2 to 3% copper and rest aluminium

49. Admiralty brass used for steam condenser tubes contains copper and zinc in
the following ratio
A. 50 : 50
B. 30 : 70
C. 70 : 30
D. 40 : 60

50. A steel containing 16 to 18% chromium and about 0.12% carbon is called
A. Ferritic stainless steel
B. Austenitic stainless steel
C. Martenistic stainless steel
D. Nickel steel
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51. Ductile cast iron

A. Contains 1.7 to 3.5% carbon in Free State and is obtained by the slow
cooling of molten cast iron
B. Is also known as chilled cast iron and is obtained by cooling rapidly.
It is almost unmachinable
C. Is produced by annealing process. It is soft, tough and easily machined metal
D. Is produced by small additions of magnesium (or creium) in the ladle.
Graphite is in nodular or spheroidal form and is well dispersed throughout
the material

52. Which of the following iron exist between 910°C and 1403°C?
A. α-iron
B. β-iron
C. γ-iron
D. δ-iron

53. Malleable cast iron

A. Contains 1.7 to 3.5% carbon in Free State and is obtained by the slow
cooling of molten cast iron
B. Is also known as chilled cast iron and is obtained by cooling rapidly.
It is almost unmachinable
C. Is produced by annealing process. It is soft, tough, and easily machined metal
D. Is produced by small additions of magnesium (or cerium) in the ladle.
Graphite is in the nodular or spheroidal form and is well dispersed throughout
the material

54. The presence of hydrogen in steel causes

A. Reduced neutron absorption cross-section
B. Improved Weldability
C. Embrittlement
D. Corrosion resistance

55. Which is the false statement about wrought iron? It has

A. High resistance to rusting and corrosion
B. High ductility
C. Ability of hold protective coating
D. Uniform strength in all directions

56. Which of the following is added in low carbon steels to prevent them
from becoming porous?
A. Sulphur
B. Phosphorus
C. Manganese
D. Silicon
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57. Which of the following element results in presence of free graphite in C.I.?
A. Carbon
B. Sulphur
C. Silicon
D. Manganese

58. Free cutting steels

A. Contain carbon in free from
B. Require minimum cutting force
C. Is used where rapid machining is the prime requirement
D. Can be cut freely

59. Grey cast iron

A. Contains 1.7 to 3.5% carbon in Free State and is obtained by the slow
cooling of molten cast iron
B. Is also known as chilled cast iron is obtained by cooling rapidly. It is almost
unmachinable
C. Is produced by annealing process. I is soft, tough and easily machined metal
D. Is produced by small additions o magnesium (or cerium) in the ladle
Graphite is in nodular or spheroidal form and is well dispersed throughout
the material

60. The aluminium alloy, mainly used, for anodized utensil manufacture, is
A. Duralumin
B. Y-alloy
C. Magnalium
D. Hindalium

61. White cast iron

A. Contains 1.7 to 3.5% carbon in Free State and is obtained by the slow
cooling of molten cast iron
B. Is also known as chilled cast iron and is obtained by cooling rapidly.
It is almost unmachinable
C. Is produced by annealing process. It is soft, tough and easily machined metal
D. Is produced by small additions of magnesium (or creium) in the ladle.
Graphite is in nodular or spheroidal form and is well dispersed throughout
the material

62. The compressive strength of cast iron is that of its tensile strength.
A. Equal to
B. Less than
C. More than
D. None of these

63. Monel metal contains

A. 63 to 67% nickel and 30% copper
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B. 88% copper and 10% tin and rest zinc

C. Alloy of tin, lead and cadmium
D. Malleable iron and zinc

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64. In the lower part of the blast furnace (zone of fusion), the temperature is
A. 400° to 700°C
B. 800°C to 1000°C
C. 1200°C to 1300°C
D. 1500°C to 1700°C

65. The temperature at which ferromagnetic alpha iron transforms to

paramagnetic alpha iron is
A. 770°C
B. 910°C
C. 1050°C
D. Below recrystallization temperature

66. The ratio of the volume occupied by the atoms to the total volume of the unit
cell is called
A. Coordination number
B. Atomic packing factor
C. Space lattice
D. None of these

67. Which is false statement about annealing? Annealing is done to

A. Relieve stresses
B. Harden steel slightly
C. Improve machining characteristic
D. Soften material

68. When low carbon steel is heated up to upper critical temperature

A. There is no change in grain size
B. The average grain size is a minimum
C. The grain size increases very rapidly
D. The grain size first increases and then decreases very rapidly

69. Dislocations in materials refer to the following type of defect

A. Point defect
B. Line defect
C. Plane defect
D. Volumetric defect

70. Pearlite consists of

A. 13% carbon and 87% ferrite
B. 13% cementite and 87% ferrite
C. 13% ferrite and 87% cementite
D. 6.67% carbon and 93.33% iron

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71. Sulphur in steel

A. Acts as deoxidiser
B. Reduces the grain size
C. Decreases tensile strength and hardness
D. Lowers the toughness and transverse ductility

72. The toughness of a material when it is heated.

A. Remain same
B. Decreases
C. Increases
D. None of these

73. Structural steel contains following principal alloying elements

A. Nickel, chromium and manganese
B. Tungsten, molybdenum and phosphorous
C. Lead, tin, aluminium
D. Zinc, sulphur, and chromium

74. In basic Bessemer process, the furnace is lined with

A. Silica bricks
B. A mixture of tar and burnt dolomite bricks
C. BothA. andB.
D. None of these

75. Aluminium bronze contains

A. 94% aluminium, 4% copper and 0.5% Mn, Mg, Si and Fe
B. 92.5% aluminium, 4% copper, 2% nickel, and 1.5% Mg
C. 10% aluminium and 90% copper
D. 90% magnesium and 9% aluminium with some copper

76. The material in which the atoms are arranged chaotically, is called
A. Amorphous material
B. Mesomorphous material
C. Crystalline material
D. None of these

77. The percentage of carbon in pig iron varies from

A. 0.1 to 1.2%
B. 1.5 to 2.5%
C. 2.5 to 4%
D. 4 to 4.5%

78. Crystal structure of a material is, generally, examined by

A. Naked eye
B. Optical microscope
C. Metallurgical microscope
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D. X-ray techniques

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79. A reversible change in the atomic structure of steel with corresponding change
in the properties is known as
A. Molecular change
B. Physical change
C. Allotropic change
D. Solidus change

80. An eutectoid steel consists of

A. Wholly pearlite
B. Wholly austenite
C. Pearlite and ferrite
D. Pearlite and cementite

81. Ductility of a material can be defined as

A. Ability to undergo large permanent deformations in compression
B. Ability to recover its original form
C. Ability to undergo large permanent deformations in tension
D. All of the above

82. Which of the following property is desirable in parts subjected to shock

and impact loads?
A. Strength
B. Stiffness
C. Brittleness
D. Toughness

83. In compression, a prism of brittle material will break

A. By forming a bulge
B. By shearing along oblique plane
C. In direction perpendicular to application of load
D. By crushing into thousands of pieces

84. The main alloying elements high speed steel in order of increasing proportion are
A. Vanadium, chromium, tungsten
B. Tungsten, titanium, vanadium
C. Chromium, titanium, vanadium
D. Tungsten, chromium, titanium

85. Corundum contains more than 95%

A. Steel
B. Al2O3
C. SiO2
D. MgO

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86. The aluminium alloy made by melting aluminium with 2 to 10% magnesium
and 1.75% copper is called
A. Duralumin
B. Y-alloy
C. Magnalium
D. Hindalium

87. Brass contains

A. 70% copper and 30% zinc
B. 90% copper and 10% tin
C. 85 – 92% copper and rest tin with little lead and nickel
D. 70 – 75% copper and rest tin

88. There are fourteen atoms in a unit cell of

A. Body centered cubic space lattice
B. Face centered cubic space lattice
C. Close packed hexagonal space lattice
D. None of these

89. A specimen of aluminium metal when observed under microscope shows

A. B.C.C. crystalline structure
B. F.C.C. crystal structure
C. H.C.P. structure
D. A complex cubic structure

90. The defect which takes place due to imperfect packing of atoms
during crystallization is known as
A. Line defect
B. Surface defect
C. Point defect
D. None of these

91. Large forgings, crank shafts, axles normally contain carbon up to

A. 0.05 to 0.20%
B. 0.20 to 0.45%
C. 0.45 to 0.55%
D. 0.55 to 1.0%

92. Which of the following statement is incorrect about duralumin?

A. It is prone to age hardening
B. It can be forged
C. It has good machining properties
D. It is lighter than pure aluminium

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93. The hardness of steel primarily depends on

A. Percentage of carbon
B. Percentage of alloying elements
C. Heat treatment employed
D. Shape of carbides and their distribution in iron
94. Gamma-iron occurs between the temperature ranges of
A. 400°C to 600°C
B. 600°C to 900°C
C. 900°C to 1400°C
D. 1400°C to 1530°C
95. Alnico, an alloy used extensively for permanent magnets contains iron,
nickel, aluminium and cobalt in the following ratio
A. 50 : 20 : 20 : 10
B. 40 : 30 : 20 : 10
C. 50 : 20 : 10 : 20
D. 30 : 20 : 30 : 20
96. According to Indian standard specifications, plain carbon steel designated by
40 C8 means that the carbon content is
A. 0.04%
B. 0.35 to 0.45%
C. 0.4 to 0.6%
D. 0.6 to 0.8%
97. If a refractory contains high content of silicon, it means refractory is
A. Acidic
B. Basic
C. Neutral
D. Brittle
98. Cementite consist of
A. 13% carbon and 87% ferrite
B. 13% cementite and 87% ferrite
C. 13% ferrite and 87% cementite
D. 6.67% carbon and 93.33% iron
99. The usual composition of a soldering alloy is
A. Tin, lead and small percentage of antimony
B. Tin and lead
C. Tin, lead and silver
D. Tin and copper
100. The property of a material which enables it to retain the
deformation permanently, is called
A. Brittleness
B. Ductility
C. Malleability
D. Plasticity

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ENGINEERING MATERIALS – ANSWER KEY

Q.NO ANS Q.NO ANS Q.NO ANS Q.NO ANS

1 A 31 D 61 B 91 C
2 B 32 C 62 C 92 D
3 A 33 B 63 A 93 D
4 B 34 B 64 C 94 C
5 C 35 A 65 A 95 A
6 D 36 C 66 B 96 B
7 C 37 D 67 B 97 C
8 A 38 C 68 B 98 D
9 B 39 D 69 B 99 A
10 A 40 C 70 B 100 D
11 D 41 A 71 D
12 C 42 A 72 B
13 B 43 B 73 A
14 B 44 C 74 B
15 D 45 B 75 C
16 B 46 D 76 A
17 C 47 A 77 D
18 D 48 A 78 D
19 D 49 B 79 C
20 B 50 A 80 A
21 B 51 D 81 C
22 B 52 C 82 D
23 A 53 C 83 B
24 D 54 C 84 A
25 A 55 D 85 B
26 A 56 D 86 C
27 B 57 C 87 A
28 D 58 C 88 B
29 B 59 A 89 B
30 B 60 D 90 C

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Metrology & Measurement

1. …………………………...is the science of precision

measurement of quantities which can be expressed in terms
of linear or angular units.
a) Measurement
b) Quality
c) Metrolo
gy Testing

2. The process of determining value of the given quantity is

called………………………
a) Accuracy
b) Measurement
c) Standardization
d) Error

3. The maximum amount by which the results differ from the

true value is called…….……..
a) Correction
b) Discrepancy
c) Error
d) Accuracy

4.Is the range of value within which the trial values of measured lies.
a) Sensitivity
b) Uncertainty
c) Quantities
d) Readability

5. When the line of vision is not directly in line with measuring

scale,the error is called error.
a) Environmental
b) random
c) Parallax
d) dynamic

6.Expresses the degree of the measuring process.

a) Accuracy
b) Precision
c) Sensitivity
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d) Hysteresis

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7. Error of measurement
a) True value–Measured value
b) Precision–True value
c) Measured value–Precision
d) Noneof the above

8......................Refers to assembling a number of unit components taken at random

from
Stock to buildup an assembly without fitting or adjustment.
a) Sensitivity
b) Readability
c) Precision
d) Interchangeability

9. The degree of closeness of the measured value of a certain quantity with

its true value is known as
a) Accuracy
b) Precision
c) Standard
d) Sensitivity

10...........Reduces diversity to are asonable level.

a) Precision
b) Standardization
c) Correction
d) Measurement

11................Is the agreement of the result of a measurement with the true value of
the
measured quantity
a) Measurement
b) Standardization
c) Correction
d) Accuracy

12. The process of comparing one measuring device against standard

of greater accuracy is called ………….
A. Interchangeability
B. Calibration
C. Magnification
D. Hysteresis
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13. Observation all error is also known as………..

A. Random error
B. Measurementerror
C. Systematicerror
D. Dynamicerror

14. Metrology is the science of

A. Measurement
B. Instrument
C. Judgment
D. gauge

15. Sensitivity and range of measuring instruments have

A. Direct relationship
B. Linear relationship
C. Inverse relationship
D. Indirect relationship

16. The result of every measurement is denoted in

A. Unit
B. Gauge
C. Magnitude
D. Range

17. The ease with which observation can be made accurately is called
A. Readability
B. Sensitivity
C. Accuracy
D. Precision

18. Accuracy of measuring instrumentis

A. The measure of how close the reading is to the true size
B. Difference between measured value and actual value
C. Smallest changes in measurement that can be measured
D. Allof theabove

19. Tolerances are specified

A. To obtain desired fits
B. Because it is not possible to manufacture as ize exactly
C. To obtain high accuracy
D. To have proper allowance

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20. The most important characteristic of a measuring instrument in general is

A. Precision
B. Accuracy
C. Repeatability
D. Sensitivity

21. Precision of measuring equipmentis

A. The closeness with which a measurement can be read directly from a
measuring instrument
B. A measure of how close the reading is to true size
C. The difference between measured value and actual value
D.The smallest change in measure and that can be measured

22. The maximum amount by which the result differ from the true value is called
A. Correction
B. discrepancy
C. error
D. accuracy

23.A A feeler gauge is used to check……….

A. Measuring the platen
B. Clearance between two mating parts
C. End measuring
D. Measuring the depth

24. is used for measuring flatness

A. Profileproject
or B.CMM
C. Toolmaker’smicroscope
D. Interferometer

25. The least count of a vernier caliper having 25 divisions on vernier scale
matching with
24 divisions of main scale (1 main scale division =0.5 mm) is ……….
A. 0.01 mm
B. 0.05mm
C. 0.0001mm
D. 0.02mm

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26. The part of a micrometer on which millimeter scale is marked is

called………
A. Barrel
B. Ratchet
C. Thimble
D. anvil

27. The following is not a type of comparator

A. Electrical
B. Pneumatic
C. Optical
D. Hydraulic

28. The instruments which are used to measure the distance between two
flat parallel faces are called ……… instruments.
A. Roundness measuring
B. End measuring
C. Bench center method
D. None of these

29. Steel rule is………measuring instrument, while vernier calipers

and micrometer are Measuring instrument.
A. End, line
B. End,flatness
C. Line,end
D. Flatness,end

30. The process of making the blocks ad here is known as………

A. Blocking
B. Mating
C. Wringing
D. Adding with Adhesive

31. The gauge number varies as the size of the wire.

A. Thicker
B. Inversely
C. Perpendicularly
D. Parallel

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32. Flatness comparators include………..Comparator and ………

comparator.
A. Liquid, bar
B. Bar ,beam
C. Beam,bar
D. Noneof these

33. An……provides sensitive method of testing squareness

A. Flatness-comparator
B. Auto-collimator
C. Directcomparison
D. Bandcboth

34.............................Is defined as the radialuni formity of work surface measured of

work
surface measured from the centre line of the work piece.
A. Flatness
B. Roundness
C. Roughness
D. Band c both

35.A A surface is truly...if all the lines are straight and they lies in the same plane.
A. Round
B. Flat
C. Parallel
D. Noneof these

36. Method of measuring roundness is more accurate and gives the record of
the
exact-profile of a job automatically.
A. Three-pointprobe
B. V-Block
C. Accuratespindle
D. Precisionspindle

37. The concentricrunning of shaft can be checked by the use of………….

A. Redtype mechanical
B. Mikrokator
C. Sigma
D. Dialindicator
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38. Pneumatic comparator requires a jet of……….

A. Water
B. Air
C. Steam
D. Noneof these

39. The surface plates are made of castiron………..

A. Granite
B. Ceramic
C. Allof these
D. Noneof these

40. The circular scale of micrometer is made on its…………..

A. Anvil
B. Barrel
C. Thimble
D. Ratchet

41. Element of an indicating device carring the scale is called

A. Dial
B. Frame
C. Index
D. Transducer

42. The purpose of ratchet screwin a micrometer screw gauge is

A. Tolockthe dimension
B. Totakecareofwearofthethreads
C. Tomaintainsufficientanduniformmeasuringpressure
D. Toallowzeroadjustment

43. V-Block used in the workshops is to check

A. Roundnessofacylindricalwork
B. Surfaceroughness
C. Dimensionofoval job
D. Taperofajob
44. Which of the following is the least accurate device
A. Micrometer
B. Optical projector
C. Verniearcaliper
D. Steelscale

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45. The purpose of adjusting nutina micrometer screw gauge is to

A. Take care of zero error
B. Impart slow motion
C. Compensate for wear between screw and nut
D. Take careof backlash

46. The number of slip gauge in asetare

A. 87
B. 31
C. 45
D. All of the sesets are available

47. The advantages of Verniear caliper over micrometer is that it

A. Iseasier and quicker
B. Ismore accurate
C. Can be used to make both inside and outside measurements over
a rangeof sizes
D. All of the above

48. Surface plates are usually made of grey castir on because it provides
A. Non-wearing plates
B. Very hard plates
C. Easy to cast plates
D. Lubrication due to graphite flakes

49.A A feeler gauge is used to check

A. Radius
B. Pitch
C. Clearance
D. Thimble.

50. Diametral gauging for out of roundness is not sufficient because

A. It can‟t sense evenlobedparts
B. Radial changes always occur which can‟t be sensed by it
C. It is difficult to find true centre
D. It‟s reading can‟t be fed to computer

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51. Flatness can be checked with

A. Beam comparator
B. Bar comparator
C. Either beam or bar comparator
D. Neither beam or nor bar comparator

52. Squareness test overifyth at one planeis at right angles to another are
A. Engineer‟s square
B. Indicator method
C. Auto collimator method
D. All of these

53. „GO‟ and „NOGO‟ gauge is a typeof

a) Plug gauge
b) Slip gauge
c) Ring gauge
d) Limit gauge

54. Which of the following can be measured by straight edges?

A. Flatness
B. Circularity
C. Parallelism
D. Straight length of parts

55. Roundness measurement methods are

A. Using V-Block and dial indicator
B. Roundness measuring machine
C. Bench centre method
D. All of these

56. External taper can be measured accurately with the help of……….
A. Sinbar and height gauge
B. Sinbar slip gauge
C. Height gauge and depth gauge
D. None of these

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57. The least count of Verniear be velprotractor is……….

A. 10 minutes
B. 15 minutes
C. 5 minutes
D. 8 minutes

58. The sinebar should not be used for angular more than……….
A. 90 degree
B. 180 degree
C. 45 degree
D. 360 degree

59. Angular gauges can be wrung together to make……………

A. Complementary angles
B. Supplementary angles
C. Desired Angles
D. None of these

60.................Is an instrument used to measure angle relative to the horizontal

plane.
A. Protractor
B. Bevel Protractor
C. Clino meter
D. Combination Set

61. Measuring accuracy of Vernier be velprotractor

A. 5Minutes
B. 2Minutes
C. 10 Minutes
D. 1Minute

62. Clino meter is........measurement instruments.

A. Roundness
B. Flatness
C. Angle
D. Noneof these
63.A A sine bar is specified by
A. Its total length
B. The center distance between the two rollers
C. Sizes of the rollers

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D. Weightofthesinebar

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64. Which of the following is not an angular measuring device?

A. Angular plate
B. Sine bar
C. Bevel protractor
D. Combination square

65. External taper can be accurately measured with the help of

A. Sine barand slip gauges
B. Dividing head
C. Precision balls and height gauge
D. Combination set

66. The basic unit in angular measurement is

A. Degree
B. Minute
C. Second
D. Rightangle

67. Which ofthe following is not the essential requirements for accuracy of
measurement with asine bar?
A. Flatness of upper surface
B. Equality of size and roundness of rollers
C. Exact distance roller distance axes and mutual parallelism
D. Parallelism between top and bottom surfaces.

68. Bevel protector is used for

A. Angular measurements
B. Linear measurements
C. Height measurements
D. Flatness measurements

69. Clinometers is related

with
A. Engineer‟sparallels
B. Angle gauges
C. Spirit level
D. Bevel protector

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70. Auto collimator is used for

A. Parallel is m measurement
B. Straightness measurement
C. Flatness measurement
D. Angular measurement

71. Which of the following is an angle measuring device?

A. Trammel
B. Hermaphrodite caliper
C. Divider
D. Sinebar

72.A A sinebar is used to measure

A. Surfaceroughness
B. Gear profiles
C. Interna ltapers
D. Externa ltapers

73. The following method(s) is (are) used to measure the minor diameter of
internal threads
a) Taper parallels methods
b) Calibrated rollers methods
c) both„a‟and„b‟
d) None of the above

74.The regular or irregular surface spacing which tends toform a pattern on

the surface is called…………
A. Surface Roughness
B. Surface texturing
C. Flatness
D. None of these

75. The irregularities of large wave length is called………..

A. Flatness
B. Roughness
C. Waviness
D. Noneof these

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76. The irregularities of small lwave length are called………

A. Roughness
B. Flatness
C. Waviness
D. None of these

77. C.L.A system more popular than System.

A. R.a
B. R.m.s
C. Both a and b
D. None of these

78. The irregularities as small as.......can be assessed by moving finger tipon

surface
at a speed of 25mm/ sec.
A. 0.0110mm
B. 0.0170mm
C. 0.020 mm
D. None of these

79. In.........Inspection,the soft material is rubbed on surface to be tested.

A. Roughness
B. Scratch
C. Flatness
D. Noneof these

80. The stylus used to measure the roughness is a madeof……………..

A. Graphite
B. Diamond
C. H.S.S
D. S.S

81. Tomlinson surface meter uses magnification.

A. Mechanical
B. Physical
C. Roughness
D. Noneof these

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82. Honing has more........Magnification.

A. Mechanical
B. Physical
C. Roughness
D. Noneof these

83. The surface of very soft mate ial is checked by method.

A. Hydraulic
B. Pneumatic
C. Actuators
D. Noneof these

84. Surface roughness is represented by

A. Triangles
B. Circles
C. Squares
D. Rectangle

85. Tomlinson recorder is associated with measurement of

A. Surface flaws
B. Surface finish
C. Surface flatness
D. Surface per pendicularity

86. Which of thefollowing methods is not concerned with surface finish

measurement?
A. Spectrophotometry method
B. Ultrasonic method
C. Fieldemission method
D. Criticalangle of attachmethod

87. Which of the following is not correct method of specifying numerical

value of surface value of surface roughness?
A. Centerlineaverage(CLA)value
B. Meanlineanddeveloplinesystems
C. R.m.svalue
D. Peak tovalleyheight

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88. The primary texture or roughness o rmicro-error on surface results due to

A. Normalaction of the toolin production process.
B. Vibrations and non uniformly of cutting process.
C. Flaws in material
D. Dominant direction of toolmarks

89. The secondary texture or macro-error on surface results due to

A. Normalaction of the toolin production process
B. Vibrations and non uniformity of cutting process
C. Flaws in material
D. Dominates direction of toolmarks

90. The surface roughness on a drawing is represented by

A. Circles
B. Squares
C. Zig-zigslines
D. Triangles

91. Pneumatic surface meter is used to measure

A. Surface roughness
B. Taper
C. Inside diameter of tool
D. Geareccentrically

92. Primary texture of surface roughness

measure
A. Direction of predominant surface pattern
B. Average deviation from the norma lsurface
C. Irregularities of small lwavelength
D. Irregularities of large wavelength

93. The value of roughness Ra(цm) for honing process is

A. 0.015 to 0.25
B. 0.020 to 0.30
C. 0.022 to 0.35
D. 0.025

94. Diameter is an imaginary diameter in between the major and minor diameter
and is equal to the diameter less than an amount equal to single depth of a
thread.
A. Nominal
B. Effective
C. Virtual
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D. Noneof these

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95. The longitudeinal and lateral movement can be provided by micrometer

in……………..
A. Blade Micrometer
B. Ball Micrometer
C. Tube Micrometer
D. Tool Makers Microscope

96.A A thread micrometer measures

A. Major diameter
B. Minor diameter
C. Effective diameter
D. Root diameter

97. Profile of a gear tooth can be checked by

A. Sine bar
B. Bench micrometer
C. Opticalpyro meter
D. Optical projector

98. is used tofind the chordal thickness of

A. Spur gears
B. Helical gears
C. Worm gears
D. Bevel gears

99. All the thread characteristics can be measured precisely with

A. Screwpitch gauge
B. Micrometer with “V” anvil
C. Toolroom microscope
D. Thread gauge

100. Gear tooth vernier is used to measure

A. Circular pitch
B. Depthof tooth
C. Tooth thickness
D. Pitch line thickness of tooth

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Q.NO ANS Q.NO ANS Q.NO ANS Q.NO ANS

1 C 26 A 51 C 76 A

2 B 27 D 52 D 77 B

3 C 28 B 53 D 78 C

4 B 29 C 54 A 79 B

5 C 30 C 55 D 80 B

6 C 31 B 56 B 81 A

7 A 32 C 57 C 82 C

8 D 33 B 58 C 83 B

9 A 34 B 59 C 84 A

10 B 35 B 60 C 85 B

11 D 36 D 61 A 86 A

12 B 37 D 62 C 87 B

13 B 38 A 63 B 88 A

14 A 39 A 64 A 89 B

15 C 40 C 65 A 90 D

16 A 41 A 66 D 91 A

17 A 42 C 67 D 92 C

18 D 43 A 68 A 93 D

19 B 44 D 69 C 94 B

20 C 45 C 70 D 95 D

21 A 46 D 71 D 96 C

22 D 47 C 72 D 97 D

23 B 48 D 73 C 98 A

24 D 49 D 74 A 99 C

25 D 50 D 75 C 100 D

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Workshop Technology Multiple Choice Questions

1. The following material(s) can be used for making pattern(s).

a. Aluminium
b. Wood
c. Lead
d. All of the above

2. Slick is used for the mould.

a. Repairing
b. Finishing
c. Venting
d. Both a and b

3. The property of sand due to which it adheres or sticks to the sides of molding box
a. Adhesiveness
b. Collapsibility
c. Cohesiveness
d. Permeability

4. When a molding box has three parts, the centre part is known as
a. Cope
b. Drag
c. Cheek
d. None of the above

5. The property of sand which provides the flow of steam and other gases through
its pores is known as
a. Adhesiveness
b. Collapsibility
c. Cohesiveness
d. Permeability

6. is the property that allows the sand grains to stick together

a. Adhesiveness
b. Collapsibility
c. Cohesiveness
d. Permeability

7. A taper provided on the pattern for its easy removal from the mould is known as
a. Finish allowance
b. Draft allowance
c. Rapping allowance
d. Contraction allowance

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8. Which color is used to mark on pattern the surface to be machined?

a. Red color
b. Orange color
c. Green color
d. Blue color

9. Which color is used to mark on pattern the surface to be left un. machined?
a. Red color
b. Black color
c. Green color
d. Blue color

10.A gimlet is a hand tool used for

a. Drilling
b. Marking
c. Reaming
d. None of these

11.Green sand is a mixture of

a. 60% sand and 40% clay
b. 30% sand and 70% clay
c. 40% sand and 60% clay
d. 70% sand and 30% clay

12.Loam sand is a mixture of

a. 20% sand and 80% clay
b. 50% sand and 50% clay
c. 70% sand and 30% clay
d. 80% sand and 20% clay

13. sand employed on the faces of the pattern before molding

a. Green
b. Dry
c. Loam
d. Parting

14.The following method(s) is (are) used to manufacture 2-meter-long seamless tube.

a. Rolling
b. Extrusion
c. Drawing
d. Both a and b

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15.The increase in hardness due to cold working, is known as

a. case hardening
b. quench hardening
c. work hardening
d. surface hardening

16.During hot working of metals

a. good surface finish is produced
b. scale is formed on the metal surface
c. close tolerances are maintained
d. None of the above

17.Cold working of metal

a. produces good surface finish
b. increases strength
c. increases hardness
d. all of the above

18.The hot working of metals takes place

a. below the recrystallization temperature
b. above the recrystallization temperature
c. at the recrystallization temperature
d. at melting point

19.The cold working of metals takes place

a. below the recrystallization temperature
b. above the recrystallization temperature
c. at the recrystallization temperature
d. at melting point

20.Following is (are) the advantage(s) of hot working of metals.

a. Porosity of the metal largely eliminated
b. Refined grain structure
c. Improved mechanical properties
d. All of the above

21.In which of the following operation, a moving mandrel is used

a. Centrifugal casting
b. Wire drawing
c. Tube drawing
d. Forging

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22.The two rolls in a two high rolling mill rotate at the speed and in
the direction.
a. same, opposite
b. same, same
c. opposite, same
d. opposite, opposite

23.Thread rolling is a
a. Hot forging process
b. Cold forging process
c. Cold extrusion process
d. Hot extrusion process

24.Following is the recrystallization temperature

of steel a. 500°C
b. 600°C
c. 700°C
d. 800°C

25.Thread rolling can be performed on

a. Ductile materials
b. Brittle materials
c. Hard materials
d. Ferrous materials

26. is used to deliver molten metal from pouring basin to gate.

a. Riser
b. Core
c. Sprue
d. Chaplet

27.The following casting defect results in general enlargement of a casting

a. Pin holes
b. Cold shut
c. Swell
d. Blow holes

28.Following is not a sheet metal work

a. Extrusion
b. Piercing
c. Punching
d. Blanking
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29.The following casting defect occurs due to improper venting of sand.

a. Misrun
b. Blow holes
c. Cold shut
d. Swell

30.A acts as a reservoir for the molten metal.

a. Pouring basin
b. Gate
c. Runner
d. Riser

31.In green –sand moulding process, uniform ramming leads to

a) less change of gas porosity
b) uniform flow of molten metal into the mould cavity
c) greater dimensional stability of the casting
d) less sand expansion type of casting defect

32. Light impurities in the molten metal are prevented from reaching the mould
cavity by providing a
a) Strainer
b) Bottom well
c) Skim bob
d) all of the above

33.Chills are used in moulds to

a) achieve directional solidification
b) reduce the possibility of blow holes
c) reduce freezing time
d) Smoothen metal flow for reducing splatter

34. Which of the following materials requires the largest shrinkage allowance,
while making a pattern for casting?
a) Aluminium
b) Brass
c) Cast iron
d) Plain carbon steel

35. Which of the following materials will require the largest size of riser for the
same size of casting?
a) Aluminium
b) Cast iron
c) Steel
d)Copp
er
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36.Misrun is a casting defect which occurs due to

a. very high pouring temperature of the metal
b. insufficient fluidity of the molten metal
c. absorption of gases by the liquid metal
d. improper alignment of moulding flask

37. In solidification of metal during casting, compensation for solid

contraction is a.provided by the oversize pattern
b.achieved by properly placed risers
c.obtained by promoting directional
solidification d.made by providing chills

38. Disk-shaped components are

cast by a.True Centrifugal casting
b.Semi-Centrifugal
casting c.Centifuge
casting

39. Core prints are provided on

patterns a.to support the core
b.to locate core in the mould
c.to support as well as locate the core in the
mould d.to remove the pattern from mould

40. Which mechanical property a metal should possess to enable it to be

mechanically formed? a.ductility
b.malleabilit
y c.elasticity
d.machinabil
ity

41. Mass production of cooking utensils is usually

done by a.metal spinning
b.deep
drawing
c.coining
d.embossing

42.The equipment generally used for metal

spinning is a.mechanical press
b.hydraulic
press c.drop
hammer
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d.speed lathe

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43.Large size Rivet heads are

made by a.swaging
b.hammerzi
ng c.upset
forging
d.drop
forging

44. Cold working of metal

increases a.tensile strength
b.hardness
c.yield
strength d.all
of these

45.When a steel undergoes a cold working process, it becomes

progressively a.Softer
b.Harder
c.Ductile
d.Malleabl
e

46.Preheating before welding is

done to a.make the steel softer
b.burn away oil,grease etc.from the plate
surface c.prevent cold cracks
d.prevent plate distortion

47. Which of the following joining process are best suited for manufacturing pipes
to carry gas products?
a. Riveting
b.Welding
c.Nuts and
bolts
d.Adhesives

48. In thermit welding, heat is

generated a.from combustion of
gas
b.By an arc
c.By chemical reaction between aluminium and
iron oxide d.None of the above

49. The selection of welding electrode

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depends upon a.Thickness of the metal to be
joined
b.Type of metal to be
joined c.Position of
welding
d.all of the above

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50. In arc welding, the electric arc is produced between the job and
electrode due to a.Voltage
b.flow of current
c.contact
resistance d.all of
the above

51.Which of the following arc welding process does not use consumable
electrodes? a.SAW
b. GM
AW
c.GTAW
d.None of these

52. The purpose of gas welding

flux is to a.Lower the melting point
of metal b.Lower the melting point
of oxide
c.Remove oxides from the surface of
metal d.Remove elements from
parent metal

53. Among the conventional,machining process,maximum specific energy is

consumed in a.Turning
b.Drilling
c.Planing
d.Grindin
g

54.A dynamometer is a device used for

measurement of a.Chip thickness ratio
b.forces during metal
cutting c.wear of the
cutting tool d.deflection
of cutting tool

55.Size of the shaper is

given by a.stroke length
b.motor power
c.weight of
machine d.table
size

56. Which tool material has high ability to retain their

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hot hardness a.Carbide
b.Cerme
nt
c.Cerami
c
d.Borazo
n

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57. Enlarging an existing circular hole with a rotating single point

tool is called a.Boring
b.Drilling
c.Reaming
d.Internal
Turning

58.In reaming process

a.metal removal rate is
high
b.high surface finish is
obtained c.high form accuracy
is obtained
d.high dimensional accuracy is obtained

59.In mechanical shaper, the length of stroke is increased by

a. increasing the centre distance of bull gear and crank pin
b.decreasing the centre distance of bull gear and crank pin
c. increasing the length of ram
d.decreasing the length of slot in the slotted lever

60.Cubic Boron Nitride

a.has a very high hardness which is comparable to that of
diamond b.has a hardness which is slightly more than that of
HSS
c.is used for making optical glasses
d.is used for making cylindrical blocks of aircraft engines

61. In metal cutting operation, the approximate ratio of heat distributed among
chip, tool and work, in that order is
a.80: 10: 10
b.33: 33: 33
c.20 : 60: 10
d.10 : 10 : 80

62.The hardness of a grinding wheel is determined

by the a.hardness of abrasive grains
b.ability of the bond to retain
abrasives c.hardness of the bond
d.ability of grinding wheel to penetrate the workpiece

63. The method of powder metallurgy is

used for a.Mass production
b.Small lot production
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c.Intricate shaped
components d.None of the
above

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64. The operation of filling the pores of a sintered component with molten
metal is known as a.Sizing
b.Coining
c.Impregnati
on
d.Infiltration

65. For producing self lubricated bearings by powder metallurgy process, the
secondary operation carried is
a. Infiltratio
n
b.Impregnati
on
c.Sintering

66.Which one of the following materials is used for car tyres as a

standard material? a.Styrene-Butadiene Rubber (SBR)
b.Butyl rubber
c.Nitrile
rubber
d.Natural
rubber

67.The bottles from thermo-plastic materials are

made by a.Compression moulding
b. Extrusion
c.Injectionn
moulding d.Blow
moulding

68.The long plastic rods and tube are

produced by a.Compression moulding
b.Extrusion
c.Injection
moulding d.Blow
moulding

69. The process of producing thin sheets by squeezing a thermo-plastic

material between revolving cylinders,is known as:
a.Transfer
moulding
b.Injection
moulding c.Blow
moulding
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d.Calendering

70. The process of producing plastic components in moulds without the

application of pressure,is
a.Moulding
b.Laminatin
g
c.Calenderi
ng
d.Casting

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71.A moving mandrel is

used in a.Wire drawing
b.Tube
drawing
c.Metal
cutting
d.Forging

72.In sheet metal work, the cutting force on the tool can be
reduced by a.grinding the cutting edges sharp
b.increasing the hardness of
tool c.providing shear angle
on the tool d.increasing the
hardness of die

73.The mode of deformation of metal during

spinning is a.bending
b.stretching
c.rolling and
stretching d.bending
and stretching

74. Light aluminium sheets are

joined by a.Tungsten inert gas
welding
b.Metal inert gas
welding c.Submerged
arc welding
d.Resistance welding

75.Peel test is a
a. Compression
test b.Tension
test c.Impact test
d.Creep test

76.Presence of sulphur in a welded joint

increases its a.ductility
b.toughne
ss
c.brittlene
ss
d.strength

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77.Railroad rails are repaired by using which of the following welding
methods? a.Electron beam welding
b.Thermit welding
c.Laser welding
d.Resistance
welding

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78.Heat affected zone is minimum in which of the welding

processes a.Laser welding
b.Gas welding
c.Arc welding
d.Thermit
welding

79.Which of the following joining methods is based on

capillary action? a.Thermit welding
b.Gaswelding
c.Adhesive
bonding
d.Soldering

80.Which of the following welding methods is not a fusion

process? a.Gas welding
b.Arc welding
c.Resistance
welding d.Thermit
welding

81.A chaplet is used

a.to create vold in casting
b.to withdraw pattern from a
mould c.to act as a reservoir of
molten metal d.to support the
core

82.Which of the following cast irons has the least

shrinkage? a.Gray cast iron
b.Nodular iron
c.White cast
iron
d.Malleable
iron

83. The moisture content in the moulding sand varies between

a. 2 and 8 %
b. 5 and 10 %
c. 10 and 15 %
d. 15 and 20 %

84.Radiographic test
uses a.Red colour dye
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b. X rays
c. Gamma rays
d. Ultrasonic beam

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85.Thermit mixture
consist of a.Aluminium
oxide and iron b.Iron
oxide and aluminium
c.Calcium carbide and
iron d.Iron carbide and
calcium

86.Which of the following compound is called is also known as

killed spirit? a.Zinc chloride
b.Ammonium
chloride c.Calcium
chloride d.Zinc
carbide

87.Which of the following joining methods does not use

filler metal? a.Gas welding
b.Arc welding
c.Resistance
welding
d.Soldering

88. In blanking operation, the clearance is

provided a.50% on punch and 50% on die
b.only on die
c.only on
punch
d.on die or punch depending upon designer’ choice

89.Which of the following metal is best suitable for extrusion,either

hot or cold? a.Zinc
b.Magnesiu
m c.Copper
d.aluminiu
m

90. The maximum value of drawing ration

can be a.0.5
b.1.0
c.1.5
d.2.0

91. What is the welding defect caused due to improper control and poor removal of
slog between passes
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a) Mismatch
b) Under fill
c) Crack
d) Porosity

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92.What is the type of welding defect caused due to shrinkage during solidification
and by weld stresses called?
a) Incomplete fusion
b) Lamellar tearing
c) Mismatch
d) Shrinkage void

93. The common welding error that occurs due to wrong speed, faulty
preparation, and high / low current, improper electrode size is called?
a) Distortion
b) Warping
c) Porous weld
d) Poor fusion

94.The maximum possible draft in cold rolling of sheet increases with the
a) Increase in coefficient of friction
b) Decrease in coefficient of friction
c) Decrease in roll radius
d) Decrease in roll velocity

95.Friction at the tool-chip interface can be reduced by

a) Decreasing the rake angle
b) Increasing the depth of cut
c) Decreasing the cutting speed
d) Increasing the cutting speed

96. Which one among the following welding processes uses non-consumable
electrode?
a) Gas metal arc welding
b) Submerged arc welding
c) Gas tungsten arc welding
d) Flux coated arc welding

97. In a particular type of welding, flux is prepared in the form of a coarse powder
and granulated flux is spread over the joint. What is this type of welding process
called?
a) Electric arc welding
b) MIG welding
c) TIG welding
d) Submerged arc welding

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98. Match the following metal forming processes with their associated stresses
in the work piece.
Metal forming process Types of stress
1. Coining P. Tensile
2. Wire Drawing Q. Shear
3. Blanking R. Tensile and compressive
4. Deep Drawing S.
Compressive a. 1-S, 2-P, 3-Q, 4-R
b. 1-S, 2-P, 3-R, 4-Q
c. 1-P, 2-Q, 3-S, 4-R
d. 1-P, 2-R, 3-Q, 4-S

99.The percentage of carbon in gray cast iron is in the range of

a. 0.25 to 0.75 percent
b. 0.25 to 1.75 percent
c. 3 to 4 percent
d. 8 to 10 percent

100. Cold working of steel is defined as working

a. At its recrystallisation temperature
b. Above its recrystallisation temperature
c. Below its recrystallisation temperature
d. At two thirds of the melting temperature of the metal

101. When the temperature of a solid metal increases,

a. Strength of the metal decreases but ductility increases
b. Both strength and ductility of the metal decreases
c. Both strength and ductility of the metal increases
d. Strength of the metal increases but ductility decreases

102. The main purpose of spheroidising treatment is to improve

a. Hardenability of low carbon steels
b. Machinability of low carbon steels
c. Hardenability of high carbon steels
d. Machinability of high carbon
steels e.
103. The cutting force in punching and blanking operations mainly depends on
a. The modulus of elasticity of metal
b. The shear strength of metal
c. The bulk modulus of metal
d. The yield strength of metal

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104. Green sand mould indicates that

a. Polymeric mould has been cured
b. Mould has been totally dried
c. Mould is green in colour
d. Mould contains moisture

105. Internal gear cutting operation can be performed by

a. Milling
b. Shaping with rack cutter
c. Shaping with pinion cutter
d. Hobbing

106. Hot rolling of mild steel is carried out

a. At recrystallization temperature
b. Between 100⁰ C to 150⁰ C
c. Between recrystallization temperature
d. Above recrystallization temperature

107.In a gating system, the ratio 1: 2: 4 represents

a. Sprue base area: runner area: ingate area
b. Pouring basin area: ingate area: runner area
c. Sprue base area: ingate area: casting area
d. Runner area: ingate area: casting area

108. Which of the following engineering materials is the most suitable

candidate for hot chamber die casting?
a. Low carbon steel
b. Titanium
c. Copper
d. Tin

109.An expendable pattern is used in

a. Slush casting
b. Squeeze casting
c. Centrifugal casting
d. Investment casting

110.Misrun is a casting defect which occurs due to

a. Very high pouring temperature of the metal
b. Insufficient fluidity of the molten metal
c. Absorption of gases by the liquid metal
d. Improper alignment of the mould flasks

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111.Hardness of green sand mould increases with

a. Increase in moisture content beyond 6 percent
b. Increase in permeability
c. Decrease in permeability
d. Increase in both moisture content and permeability
112. Which one of the following is a solid state joining process?
a. Gas tungsten arc welding
b. Resistance spot welding
c. Friction welding
d. Submerged arc welding
113.In up-cut milling the work piece is fed
a. Against the rotating cutter
b. At angle of 60° to the cutter
c. In the direction of the cutter
d. At the right angle to the cutter
114. Which of the following parameters govern the value of shear angle in
continuous chip formation?
a. True feed
b. Chip thickness
c. Rake angle of the cutting tool
d. All of these
115. The factor considered for evaluation of machinability is
a. Cutting forces and power consumption
b. Tool life
c. Type of chips and shear angle
d. All of these
116. In a shaper
A) Tool is stationary and work reciprocates
B) Work is stationary and tool reciprocates
C) Tool moves over stationary work
D) Tool moves over reciprocating work
117. The factor responsible for the formation of discontinuous chips is
A) Low cutting speed and large rake angle
B) Low cutting speed and small rake angle
C) High cutting speed and large rake angle
D) High cutting speed and small rake angle

118.The advantage of a broaching operation is that

A) Rate of production is very high
B) High accuracy and high class of surface finish is possible
C) Roughing and finishing cuts are completed in one pass of the tool
D) All of the above

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119.In machining metal, cutting force at the cutting edge is measured by a

A) Wattmeter
B) Dynamometer
C) Hydrometer
D) Pyrometer
120.In lapping operation, the amount of metal
removed is A) 0.005 to 0.01 mm
B) 0.01 to 0.1 mm
C) 0.05 to 0.1 mm
D) 0.5 to 1 mm
121.Chip breakers are used to
A) Increase tool life
B) Remove chips from bed
C) Break the chips into short segments
D) To minimize heat generation
122.The trade name of a nonferrous cast alloy composed of cobalt, chromium and
tungsten is called
A) Ceramic
B) Stellite
C) Diamond
D) Cemented carbide
123.The abrasive slurry used in ultrasonic machining contains fine particles of
A) Aluminum oxide
B) Boron carbide
C) Silicon carbide
D) Any one of these
124.The depth of cut in drilling is the drill diameter.
A) Equal to
B) One-fourth
C) One-half
D) Double

125. In operation, the cutting force is maximum when the tooth begins
its cut and reduces it to minimum when the tooth leaves the work.
A) Up milling
B) Down milling
C) Face milling
D) End milling

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126.Segmental chips are formed during machining

A) Mild steel
B) Cast iron
C) High speed steel
D) High carbon steel

127.The monomer of poly vinyl chloride (PVC) is

A) chloroform
B) Ethylene dichloride
C) Chloroethane
D) Ethyl chloride

128. Automobile steering wheels are normally made of

A) cellulose acetate
B) Cellulose nitrate
C) PVC
D) High density poloythene

129.The time between cycles that your molten plastic sits in the barrel is called?
A) Wait time
B) Residence time
C) Down time
D) Cycle time

130.In a CNC program block, N002 GO2 G91 X40 Z40 , GO2 and G91 refer to
A) Circular interpolation in counter clockwise direction and incremental
dimension
B) Circular interpolation in counter clockwise direction and absolute dimension
C) Circular interpolation in clockwise direction and incremental dimension
D) Circular interpolation in clockwise direction and absolute dimension

131. Which type of motor is not used in axis or spindle drives of CNC machine
tools?
A) Induction motor
B) DC servo motor
C) Stepper motor
D) Linear servo motor
132. NC contouring is an example
of
A) Continuous path positioning
B) Point-to-point positioning
C) Absolute positioning
D) Incremental positioning

133. The different spindle speeds on a lathe form

A) Arithmetical progression
B) Geometrical progression
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C) Harmonical progression
D) Any one of these

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134.The chuck used for setting up of heavy and irregular shaped work should be
A) Four jaw independent chuck
B) Three jaw universal chuck
C) Magnetic chuck
D) Drill chuck

135. Lapping is an operation of

A) Making a cone-shaped enlargement of the end of a hole
B) Smoothing and squaring the surface around a hole
C) Sizing and finishing a small diameter hole
D) Producing a hole by removing metal along the circumference of a hollowcutting
tool

136.The lip angle is the angle

A) Between the tool face and the ground end surface of flank
B) Made by the face of the tool and the plane parallel to the base of the cutting tool
C) Between the face of the tool and a line tangent to the machined surface at the
cutting point
D) None of the above

137.Ceramic cutting tools are

A) Made by cold pressing of aluminium oxide powder
B) Available in the form of tips
C) Brittle and have low bending strength
D) All of these

138.It is desired to perform the operations like drilling, reaming, counter-boring

etc. on a work piece. Which of the following machine will be used?
A) Sensitive drilling machine
B) Radial drilling machine
C) Gang drilling machine
D) Multiple spindle drilling machine

139.The correct sequence of the following parameters in order of their maximum

to minimum influence on tool life is
A) Feed rate, depth of cut, cutting speed
B) Depth of cut, cutting speed, feed rate
C) Cutting speed, feed rate, depth of cut
D) Feed rate, cutting speed, depth of cut

140.The machining of titanium is difficult due to

A) High thermal conductivity of titanium
B) Chemical reaction between tool and work
C) Low tool-chip contact area
D) None of these
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Workshop Technology – ANSWER KEY

Q.NO ANS Q.NO ANS Q.NO ANS Q.NO ANS Q.NO ANS
1 D 31 C 61 A 91 B 121 C
2 D 32 C 62 B 92 B 122 B
3 A 33 A 63 A 93 D 123 D
4 C 34 D 64 D 94 A 124 C
5 D 35 A 65 B 95 D 125 B
6 C 36 B 66 A 96 C 126 B
7 B 37 A 67 D 97 D 127 C
8 A 38 B 68 B 98 A 128 A
9 B 39 C 69 D 99 C 129 B
10 A 40 A 70 D 100 C 130 C
11 D 41 B 71 B 101 A 131 C
12 B 42 D 72 C 102 D 132 A
13 D 43 C 73 D 103 B 133 B
14 D 44 D 74 A 104 D 134 A
15 C 45 B 75 B 105 C 135 C
16 B 46 C 76 C 106 D 136 A
17 D 47 B 77 B 107 A 137 D
18 B 48 C 78 A 108 D 138 C
19 A 49 D 79 D 109 D 139 C
20 D 50 D 80 C 110 B 140 C
21 C 51 C 81 D 111 C
22 A 52 C 82 A 112 C
23 B 53 D 83 A 113 A
24 D 54 B 84 B 114 D
25 A 55 A 85 B 115 D
26 C 56 B 86 A 116 B
27 C 57 A 87 C 117 B
28 A 58 B 88 C 118 D
29 B 59 A 89 D 119 B
30 A 60 A 90 D 120 A

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