ICT Olympiad Group I: Detailed Syllabus

Question Bank 2024-25

Syllabus:
Web Browser and Networking
• Web terminologies and Web Browsers
• Protocols
• Transmission Media
• Networking devices
• History of internet
• Emails, Social media
• Virus & Antivirus concept
• Cyber World
• E-commerce
• Search Engines

1. Web Terminologies and Web Browsers

1. What does "WWW" stand for?

a) World Wide Web
b) Web Wide World
c) World Wide Window
d) Web World Wide

2. Which of the following is a web browser?

a) Firefox
b) Gmail
c) Instagram
d) Yahoo

3. Which of these is a key component of the URL?

a) HTTP
b) SMTP
c) FTP
d) IP

4. What is the primary function of a web browser?

a) Edit web pages
b) Access and display web pages
c) Store data
d) Manage networks

5. HTTP is used to?

a) Secure websites
b) Retrieve web pages
c) Send emails
d) Connect to networks

6. The “S” in HTTPS stands for?

a) Simple
b) Secure
c) Service
d) Session

7. Which of the following is NOT a web browser?

a) Chrome
b) Opera
c) Outlook
d) Safari

8. A web page is identified by a unique address called:

a) Protocol
b) URL
c) IP
d) DNS

9. Which of the following is used to browse the web?

a) HTML
b) FTP
c) SMTP
d) DHCP

10. The term "browser cache" refers to:

a) Website content
b) Temporary storage of web pages
c) A virus
d) Security settings

2. Protocols

11. HTTP is used for:

a) Sending email
b) Transferring web pages
c) File transfer
d) Remote login

12. Which protocol is used to send emails?

a) FTP
b) SMTP
c) HTTP
d) SNMP

13. Which protocol ensures secure communication over a computer network?

a) FTP
b) SMTP
c) HTTPS
d) DHCP

14. FTP stands for:

a) File Text Protocol
b) File Transfer Protocol
c) Fast Text Protocol
d) Fixed Transfer Protocol
15. IMAP is used to:
a) Access emails
b) Transfer files
c) Manage networks
d) Secure networks

16. Which protocol converts domain names into IP addresses?

a) HTTP
b) DNS
c) FTP
d) SMTP

17. Which protocol is responsible for routing data between devices in a network?
a) IP
b) HTTP
c) DNS
d) IMAP

18. SMTP is an acronym for:

a) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
b) Secure Mail Transfer Protocol
c) Standard Mail Text Protocol
d) Simple Message Text Protocol

19. Which protocol is used for transferring files between systems?

a) FTP
b) HTTP
c) SMTP
d) DNS

20. POP3 is used for:

a) Sending emails
b) Retrieving emails
c) Browsing web pages
d) File sharing

3. Transmission Media

21. Which of the following is NOT a type of transmission medium?

a) Optical fiber
b) Coaxial cable
c) Firewall
d) Twisted pair cable

22. What type of transmission media uses light to transmit data?

a) Twisted pair cable
b) Optical fiber
c) Coaxial cable
d) Radio waves

23. The most common medium for wired networks is:

a) Microwave
b) Twisted pair cable
c) Satellite
d) Bluetooth

24. Wireless transmission is carried out through:

a) Copper wires
b) Radio waves
c) Coaxial cables
d) Fiber optics

25. Which of the following transmission media provides the highest bandwidth?
a) Coaxial cable
b) Twisted pair cable
c) Fiber optics
d) Satellite

26. What is the main disadvantage of wireless transmission media?

a) High speed
b) Interference
c) Reliability
d) Cost

27. Coaxial cable is commonly used for:

a) Cable television
b) Telephone lines
c) Internet browsing
d) Sending emails

28. The most common type of cable used for LANs is:
a) Coaxial cable
b) Twisted pair cable
c) Fiber optics
d) Wireless

29. Data transmission through fiber optics is less prone to:

a) Interference
b) Data loss
c) Speed issues
d) Bandwidth congestion

30. Bluetooth is an example of:

a) Short-range wireless transmission
b) Long-range wireless transmission
c) Wired transmission
d) Microwave transmission

4. Networking Devices

31. What device connects multiple computers in a local area network (LAN)?
a) Modem
b) Switch
c) Router
d) Server
32. A device that connects a LAN to the internet is called:
a) Switch
b) Router
c) Hub
d) Firewall

33. Which device amplifies the signal in a network?

a) Repeater
b) Router
c) Hub
d) Modem

34. A router operates at which layer of the OSI model?

a) Network layer
b) Data link layer
c) Physical layer
d) Application layer

35. What is the main purpose of a firewall?

a) To protect the network from unauthorized access
b) To increase network speed
c) To store data
d) To filter web pages

36. A hub operates at which layer of the OSI model?

a) Application layer
b) Physical layer
c) Transport layer
d) Network layer

37. What device connects different networks and directs traffic?

a) Hub
b) Switch
c) Router
d) Repeater

38. The function of a modem is to:

a) Store data
b) Convert digital signals to analog and vice versa
c) Control traffic
d) Filter data

39. A gateway is used to:

a) Store web pages
b) Connect different types of networks
c) Speed up the internet
d) Send emails

40. Which device is used to connect computers wirelessly in a network?

a) Hub
b) Wireless Access Point
c) Switch
d) Firewall
5. History of the Internet

41. The internet was originally developed by:

a) ARPANET
b) Microsoft
c) NASA
d) Google

42. When was the World Wide Web introduced?

a) 1989
b) 1991
c) 1995
d) 2000

43. Who is credited with inventing the World Wide Web?

a) Bill Gates
b) Tim Berners-Lee
c) Steve Jobs
d) Vint Cerf

44. Which organization manages the assignment of domain names?

a) ICANN
b) W3C
c) IETF
d) ISO

45. The first graphical web browser was:

a) Netscape
b) Mosaic
c) Internet Explorer
d) Firefox

46. In which year did email services start on the internet?

a) 1971
b) 1972
c) 1980
d) 1985

47. ARPANET was the precursor to:

a) Intranet
b) Internet
c) WWW
d) Email

48. The term “internet” is derived from:

a) Interconnected Networks
b) International Network
c) Intranet Network
d) Information Network

49. In 1983, ARPANET adopted which protocol?

a) TCP/IP
b) SMTP
c) HTTP
d) FTP

50. The World Wide Web was first made public in:
a) 1991
b) 1993
c) 1989
d) 1995

6. Emails and Social Media

51. What does "CC" stand for in an email?

a) Content Copy
b) Carbon Copy
c) Code Copy
d) Central Copy

52. What does "BCC" stand for in an email?

a) Bulk Carbon Copy
b) Blind Carbon Copy
c) Backup Carbon Copy
d) Blind Content Copy

53. Which protocol is used to retrieve emails from a server?

a) SMTP
b) IMAP
c) FTP
d) HTTP

54. The main purpose of a "Subject" line in an email is to:

a) Add attachments
b) Provide a summary of the email
c) Specify the sender
d) Include recipients

55. Which of the following is NOT a social media platform?

a) Instagram
b) Twitter
c) Facebook
d) Outlook

56. Social media primarily refers to:

a) File transfer protocols
b) Online platforms for communication and sharing content
c) Email services
d) E-commerce websites

57. Twitter limits each post, also known as a "Tweet," to:

a) 100 characters
b) 280 characters
c) 140 characters
d) 500 characters
58. Which of the following is a messaging app owned by Facebook?
a) Telegram
b) WhatsApp
c) WeChat
d) Signal

59. A professional networking platform is:

a) Facebook
b) Instagram
c) LinkedIn
d) Reddit

60. Which of the following is a popular photo-sharing social media platform?

a) Instagram
b) LinkedIn
c) Twitter
d) Pinterest

7. Virus and Antivirus Concept

61. What is a computer virus?

a) A type of software
b) A website
c) A malicious program that can replicate itself
d) A networking device

62. What does an antivirus software do?

a) Detects and removes malicious software
b) Increases internet speed
c) Recovers deleted files
d) Backs up data

63. Which of the following is an example of antivirus software?

a) Microsoft Office
b) Norton
c) Google Chrome
d) Dropbox

64. A Trojan horse is a type of:

a) Malware disguised as legitimate software
b) Network protocol
c) Antivirus
d) Internet browser

65. Which of the following is NOT a type of malware?

a) Virus
b) Worm
c) Firewall
d) Spyware

66. Which type of virus hides itself in the boot sector of the hard drive?
a) Macro virus
b) Boot sector virus
c) Trojan horse
d) File infector

67. What is ransomware?

a) A type of firewall
b) Malware that encrypts files and demands payment for decryption
c) An antivirus
d) A network protocol

68. Worms differ from viruses because they:

a) Cannot replicate
b) Can spread without human intervention
c) Are harmless
d) Only affect software

69. The term "phishing" refers to:

a) A virus
b) A fraudulent attempt to obtain sensitive information
c) A type of social media
d) Encrypting data

70. Spyware is a type of malware that:

a) Collects personal information without the user’s knowledge
b) Deletes files
c) Encrypts data
d) Slows down the network

8. Cyber World

71. What is cybercrime?

a) Physical crime
b) Crime committed using the internet or computers
c) Traditional theft
d) A virus attack

72. Which of the following is a form of cybercrime?

a) Hacking
b) Sending emails
c) Uploading a document
d) None of the above

73. What is ethical hacking?

a) Illegal access to systems
b) Legally testing a system for vulnerabilities
c) Disabling firewalls
d) Writing malicious code

74. Cybersecurity aims to:

a) Increase internet speed
b) Protect computer systems and networks from cyber threats
c) Enhance web design
d) Prevent spam emails
75. What does DDoS stand for?
a) Domain Denial of Service
b) Data Destruction on Site
c) Distributed Denial of Service
d) Direct Denial of Server

76. Which of the following is an example of identity theft?

a) Downloading files
b) Stealing someone’s personal information for fraud
c) Accessing a website
d) Sending emails

77. The act of breaking into a computer system without permission is called:
a) Encryption
b) Hacking
c) Phishing
d) Coding

78. The process of converting information into a secure format is called:

a) Decryption
b) Firewalling
c) Encryption
d) Hacking

79. A firewall is used to:

a) Speed up the internet
b) Prevent unauthorized access to a network
c) Send emails
d) Block spam

80. Which of the following is considered a cyberattack?

a) Browsing the internet
b) Launching a virus into a system
c) Sending a text message
d) None of the above

9. E-commerce

81. What does E-commerce stand for?

a) Easy Communication
b) Electronic Commerce
c) Efficient Commerce
d) Electronic Communication

82. Which of the following is an example of an e-commerce platform?

a) Google
b) Amazon
c) WhatsApp
d) LinkedIn

83. E-commerce is primarily used for:

a) Online advertising
b) Buying and selling goods or services online
c) Sending emails
d) Data storage

84. What is a shopping cart in e-commerce?

a) A payment method
b) A feature allowing users to store items for purchase
c) A search engine
d) A delivery method

85. Which of the following is NOT an e-commerce business model?

a) B2B
b) C2C
c) P2P
d) B2C

86. Which payment method is most commonly associated with e-commerce?

a) Credit/Debit cards
b) Checks
c) Cash
d) Bartering

87. The largest online retailer in the world is:

a) eBay
b) Amazon
c) Alibaba
d) Flipkart

88. An example of C2C e-commerce is:

a) eBay
b) Shopify
c) Amazon
d) Walmart

89. What is the main advantage of e-commerce?

a) High cost
b) Convenience
c) Limited access
d) Difficult payment methods

90. The term "dropshipping" refers to:

a) A retail fulfilment method where the store doesn’t keep the products it sells
b) A delivery method
c) A payment gateway
d) A security measure

10. Search Engines

91. Which of the following is a popular search engine?

a) Facebook
b) Google
c) LinkedIn
d) WhatsApp
92. Search engines use what to index websites?
a) Web crawlers
b) E-commerce platforms
c) DNS servers
d) Firewalls

93. What does SEO stand for?

a) Social Engine Optimization
b) Search Engine Optimization
c) Software Enhancement Online
d) Server Energy Optimization

94. What is a keyword in search engine terms?

a) A random word
b) A word or phrase that describes the content of a webpage
c) A part of the URL
d) A type of malware

95. Google was founded in:

a) 1995
b) 1998
c) 2001
d) 1990

96. Which search engine is known for its focus on privacy?

a) Google
b) Yahoo
c) DuckDuckGo
d) Bing

97. Which of the following is NOT a search engine?

a) Bing
b) Instagram
c) Yahoo
d) Baidu

98. Search engines primarily rank results based on:

a) The date of creation
b) Relevance to the search query
c) User's age
d) Device type

99. The term "SERP" stands for:

a) Server Result Page
b) Search Engine Results Page
c) Search Environment Resource Page
d) Search Engine Rating Page

100. A search engine result that is paid for is called:

a) Organic result
b) Sponsored result
c) Natural result
d) Web crawler
Syllabus:
HTML and Gaming
• HTML Tags and attributes
• Concept of URL
• Links and Hyperlinks
• Tables
• Lists
• Various Games and related levels and details

1. HTML and Gaming

1. HTML stands for:

a) Hyperlink and Text Markup Language
b) Hypertext Markup Language
c) Home Tool Markup Language
d) Hyper Transfer Markup Language

2. HTML is used to:

a) Create web pages
b) Design software
c) Connect to the internet
d) Create video games

3. Which tag is used to define the structure of a web page in HTML?

a) <html>
b) <head>
c) <body>
d) <div>

4. Which gaming engine uses HTML for game development?

a) Unreal Engine
b) Phaser.js
c) Unity
d) CryEngine

5. HTML5 is often used for:

a) Desktop applications
b) Web-based games
c) Database management
d) Operating systems

6. Which HTML element is commonly used to embed a video game in a web page?
a) <video>
b) <canvas>
c) <embed>
d) <iframe>

7. The <canvas> element is used for:

a) Adding audio to a web page
b) Rendering graphics and games
c) Embedding videos
d) Creating forms
8. Which of the following is a feature of HTML5 for gaming?
a) WebGL
b) FTP
c) CSS
d) SMTP

9. HTML5 games run in:

a) Operating systems
b) Web browsers
c) Database servers
d) Email clients

10. Which language is commonly combined with HTML for game development?
a) C++
b) JavaScript
c) Python
d) PHP

2. HTML Tags and Attributes

11. What is the correct syntax for creating a hyperlink in HTML?

a) <a href="url">Link text</a>
b) <link>url</link>
c) <hyperlink url="Link text">
d) <a src="Link text">

12. Which tag is used to define a paragraph in HTML?

a) <p>
b) <h1>
c) <div>
d) <span>

13. An attribute in HTML provides:

a) A clickable link
b) Additional information about an element
c) A section of a website
d) The title of the page

14. Which tag is used for inserting an image in an HTML page?

a) <src>
b) <img>
c) <pic>
d) <image>

15. What attribute is used to specify an image source in HTML?

a) src
b) link
c) path
d) href

16. Which of the following is a self-closing HTML tag?

a) <div>
b) <br>
c) <p>
d) <span>

17. The <head> tag in HTML contains:

a) The body of the document
b) Metadata and linking to external resources
c) Graphics and links
d) The main content of the page

18. What does the <title> tag do in HTML?

a) Defines a hyperlink
b) Sets the title of the web page displayed on the browser tab
c) Creates a list
d) Formats the text

19. Which tag is used to create a dropdown list in HTML?

a) <select>
b) <option>
c) <list>
d) <ul>

20. To make text bold in HTML, which tag is used?

a) <italic>
b) <em>
c) <b>
d) <u>

3. Concept of URL

21. URL stands for:

a) Universal Resource Link
b) Uniform Resource Locator
c) Universal Resource Locator
d) Unified Resource Link

22. A URL is used to:

a) Identify a resource on the internet
b) Create a web page
c) Download files
d) Secure a web connection

23. What is the correct format of a URL?

a) protocol://domain-name.extension/path
b) protocol://www.domain-name.extension/path
c) www.domain-name.extension:port/path
d) protocol://path.domain-name/extension

24. Which part of the URL identifies the web server?

a) Domain name
b) Protocol
c) Path
d) Extension
25. The protocol in a URL defines:
a) The method used to access the resource
b) The domain name
c) The file extension
d) The resource path

26. In the URL “https://example.com/page,” what does “https” represent?

a) The protocol
b) The domain
c) The path
d) The file name

27. What part of a URL specifies the location of a resource within a website?
a) Domain
b) Path
c) Extension
d) Query

28. Which protocol is commonly used for secure communication in URLs?

a) FTP
b) HTTP
c) HTTPS
d) DNS

29. In the URL "https://example.com," what does ".com" signify?

a) Top-level domain
b) Protocol
c) Subdomain
d) Path

30. What is the purpose of a query string in a URL?

a) To define the domain
b) To pass parameters to the web server
c) To specify the protocol
d) To set security rules

4. Links and Hyperlinks

31. Hyperlinks in HTML are created using which tag?

a) <link>
b) <src>
c) <a>
d) <href>

32. What does the "href" attribute in the <a> tag define?
a) The text of the link
b) The link title
c) The URL of the destination
d) The location of the image

33. To open a hyperlink in a new tab, which value should be set in the "target"
attribute?
a) _self
b) _blank
c) _parent
d) _new

34. What is an internal link in HTML?

a) A link to another website
b) A link to an email address
c) A link to another section within the same page
d) A broken link

35. Which protocol is NOT commonly used in hyperlink URLs?

a) http://
b) mailto:
c) ftp://
d) print://

36. A mailto: link is used to:

a) Open a webpage
b) Open an email client to send an email
c) Link to another website
d) Download files

37. A hyperlink can link to:

a) An image
b) A webpage
c) A file
d) All of the above

38. The "rel" attribute in the <a> tag defines:

a) The relationship between the current document and the linked resource
b) The color of the link
c) The position of the link
d) The security level of the link

39. Which of the following is a relative URL?

a) https://www.example.com/about
b) /about
c) http://example.com/about
d) ftp://example.com/files

40. Which tag is used for creating image-based links in HTML?

a) <img>
b) <a> with an <img> tag inside
c) <link>
d) <src>

5. Tables

41. Which tag is used to create a table in HTML?

a) <table>
b) <div>
c) <tab>
d) <form>
42. The <th> tag is used to:
a) Define a header cell in a table
b) Define a row in a table
c) Define a column in a table
d) Format the table

43. To define a table row in HTML, which tag is used?

a) <tr>
b) <td>
c) <th>
d) <table>

44. What is the primary function of a table in data presentation?

a) To provide entertainment
b) To organize and display data
c) To generate random numbers
d) To summarize text

45. In a table, what does each row typically represent?

a) A category
b) A single record
c) A title
d) A column header

46. Which of the following is NOT a component of a table?

a) Rows
b) Columns
c) Headers
d) Footnotes

47. What is the purpose of a header row in a table?

a) To provide a summary
b) To indicate the type of data in each column
c) To add color
d) To divide sections

48. Which format is commonly used to create tables in web pages?

a) CSS
b) HTML
c) JavaScript
d) XML

49. What is the purpose of the <th> tag in an HTML table?

a) To define a header cell
b) To define a regular cell
c) To create a new row
d) To group rows

50. Which attribute is used to specify the number of rows a cell should span in an
HTML table?
a) colspan
b) rowspan
c) cellspacing
d) cellpadding
Lists

51. What type of list is used for items that do not require a specific order?
a) Ordered list
b) Unordered list
c) Numbered list
d) Bullet list

52. Which symbol is typically used to indicate items in an unordered list?

a) Numbers
b) Dashes
c) Bullets
d) Asterisks

53. In an ordered list, how are items usually displayed?

a) With bullet points
b) In alphabetical order
c) With numerical or alphabetical indicators
d) Randomly

54. What is a nested list?

a) A list within a list
b) A list with no items
c) A list that is sorted
d) A list with duplicate items

55. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using lists?

a) Clarity
b) Organization
c) Randomization
d) Readability

Games and Related Levels

56. In a typical video game, what is a "level"?

a) A type of character
b) A specific stage or environment
c) A score
d) An achievement

57. What is the primary objective in most platformer games?

a) To shoot enemies
b) To collect items and reach the end of levels
c) To solve puzzles
d) To race against time

58. Which genre of games often features character progression through levels?
a) Puzzle games
b) Role-playing games (RPGs)
c) Sports games
d) Arcade games

59. In strategy games, what is usually required to advance through levels?

a) Quick reflexes
b) Planning and resource management
c) Random chance
d) Artistic skills

60. What does "XP" stand for in gaming terminology?

a) Extra Play
b) Experience Points
c) Exit Points
d) Extreme Power

General Game Mechanics

61. What typically happens when a player completes a level in a game?

a) They lose all their items
b) They gain rewards or unlock new content
c) They have to restart
d) They change games

62. What does "boss battle" refer to?

a) A fight against a minor enemy
b) A confrontation with a challenging enemy at the end of a level
c) A multiplayer event
d) A non-combat scenario

63. Which of the following is a common mechanic in adventure games?

a) Time trials
b) Exploration and item collection
c) Racing
d) Card games

64. In which type of game would you most likely find "power-ups"?
a) Simulation games
b) Action games (Correct Answer: B)
c) Board games
d) Text-based games

65. What does "multiplayer" mean in gaming?

a) One player only
b) Multiple players can play together
c) Games played on different devices
d) Games with AI opponents only

Advanced Game Mechanics

66. What is the purpose of a game tutorial?

a) To showcase graphics
b) To teach players how to play
c) To provide a backstory
d) To increase difficulty

67. What is "level grinding"?

a) Completing levels quickly
b) Repeating levels to gain experience or items
c) Creating new levels
d) Deleting old levels

68. Which term describes a player's virtual representation in a game?

a) NPC
b) Avatar
c) Quest
d) Score

69. In many games, what does "loot" refer to?

a) In-game currency
b) Rewards or items obtained from defeating enemies
c) Level restrictions
d) Game settings

70. What is a "cutscene" in gaming?

a) A portion of gameplay
b) A non-interactive sequence used to advance the story
c) A player choice
d) A game setting

Game Development

71. Which of the following is a common game development engine?

a) Microsoft Word
b) Unity
c) Adobe Photoshop
d) Google Chrome

72. What is "game balancing"?

a) Ensuring graphics are clear
b) Adjusting game mechanics for fairness
c) Creating more levels
d) Testing for bugs

73. What is a "game mechanic"?

a) A design element
b) A gameplay rule or system
c) A visual effect
d) A narrative structure

74. Which element is NOT typically included in game design documentation?

a) Game story
b) Marketing plan
c) Gameplay mechanics
d) Level design

75. What is "debugging" in the context of game development?

a) Creating new levels
b) Finding and fixing errors in the game
c) Designing characters
d) Writing the story

Online and Mobile Gaming

76. What is a "battle royale" game?

a) A game mode where players compete until one remains
b) A team-based strategy game
c) A single-player puzzle game
d) A racing game

77. Which platform is most commonly associated with mobile gaming?

a) PC
b) Console
c) Smartphone
d) Arcade

78. What is "microtransactions" in gaming?

a) Paying for the game once
b) Small purchases made within a game
c) Selling the game
d) Renting games

79. What does "cross-platform play" enable?

a) Playing games without the internet
b) Playing games on different devices together
c) Sharing accounts
d) Upgrading hardware

80. What does "esports" refer to?

a) Traditional sports games
b) Competitive gaming at a professional level
c) Mobile gaming tournaments
d) Single-player games

Game Genres and Trends

81. What genre combines storytelling with gameplay?

a) Sports
b) Narrative-driven games
c) Simulation
d) Platformers

82. Which genre typically involves puzzle-solving and critical thinking?

a) Action
b) Adventure
c) Sports
d) Shooter

83. What is a "sandbox game"?

a) A game with strict rules
b) A game allowing free exploration and creativity
c) A racing game
d) A board game

84. Which game mechanic is often used to encourage player retention?

a) Increasing difficulty
b) Daily challenges or rewards
c) Fixed outcomes
d) Unlocked levels
85. What does "VR" stand for in gaming?
a) Virtual Reality
b) Video Replay
c) Voice Recognition
d) Virtual Rating

Game Trends

86. What is the main purpose of "game updates"?

a) To increase game difficulty
b) To fix bugs and add new content
c) To change graphics
d) To reduce player count

87. Which platform has popularized the "free-to-play" model?

a) PC
b) Console
c) Mobile
d) Arcade

88. What is "game streaming"?

a) Downloading games
b) Playing games via the internet without downloading
c) Sharing game files
d) Watching game videos

89. What does "loot box" refer to?

a) A physical box of game merchandise
b) A virtual item that contains random rewards
c) A game mode
d) A level in a game

90. Which term describes games that incorporate social elements and communities?
a) Single-player
b) Social games (Correct Answer: B)
c) Arcade games
d) Simulation games

Game Culture

91. What does "modding" refer to?

a) Modifying existing games to create new content
b) Playing games with friends
c) Streaming games
d) Competing in tournaments

92. What is a "speedrun" in gaming?

a) Playing games slowly
b) Completing a game as quickly as possible
c) Playing games at a regular pace
d) Racing in games

93. What does "fan art" refer to?

a) Official game artwork
b) Art created by fans based on games
c) Game graphics
d) Concept art

94. Which community is often associated with creating and sharing game content?
a) Game developers
b) Players and fans
c) Publishers
d) Critics

95. What is a common characteristic of indie games?

a) High budget
b) Developed by small teams
c) Only available on consoles
d) Limited creativity

Minecraft:
96. What is the main objective in Minecraft's Survival mode?
a) Build structures
b) Survive and defeat the Ender Dragon
c) Explore different biomes
d) Create farms

97. What type of game is Minecraft?

a) Racing
b) Puzzle
c) Sandbox
d) Shooter

98. In Minecraft, what resource is primarily used to craft tools and weapons?
a) Wood
b) Iron
c) Diamond
d) Coal

99. In which Minecraft dimension can players find the Ender Dragon?
a) Nether
b) Overworld
c) End
d) Sky Dimension

100. Which of these mobs is passive in Minecraft?

a) Creeper
b) Enderman
c) Cow
d) Skeleton

Among Us:
101. What is the role of the Impostor in Among Us?
a) Complete tasks
b) Sabotage and eliminate crewmates
c) Report dead bodies
d) Fix reactors
102. Which map is the largest in Among Us?
a) Skeld
b) Polus
c) Airship
d) Mira HQ

103. In Among Us, what is the term for calling a meeting when suspicious activity is
seen?
a) Emergency call
b) Alarm
c) Emergency meeting
d) Sus call

104. What color in Among Us is often considered the most "sus" (suspicious)?
a) Red
b) Blue
c) Green
d) Yellow

105. How many impostors can be in a single game of Among Us at maximum?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

Roblox:
106. What is Roblox primarily known for?
a) A building game
b) A platform for user-created games
c) A puzzle-solving game
d) A racing simulator

107. What currency is used in Roblox?

a) Robux
b) Coins
c) Robux
d) Points

108. Which of these is NOT a feature of Roblox?

a) Game creation
b) In-game purchases
c) Level-based progression
d) Social interactions

109. In Roblox, players can create games using what programming language?
a) Java
b) Python
c) Lua
d) C++
109. What age group is Roblox mainly targeted at?
a) Adults
b) Children and teens
c) Seniors
d) All ages

Subway Surfers:
110. In Subway Surfers, who is chasing the player?
a) A dog
b) A policeman
c) A thief
d) A ghost

111. What is the main objective in Subway Surfers?

a) Run through a maze
b) Dodge trains and collect coins
c) Build a city
d) Solve puzzles

112. What is the name of the default character in Subway Surfers?

a) Dan
b) Jake
c) Mike
d) Tom
113. What type of game is Subway Surfers?
a) Puzzle
b) Sandbox
c) Endless runner
d) Strategy
e)
114. In Subway Surfers, what special ability does the jetpack give?
a) Fly over obstacles
b) Fly over trains and collect coins
c) Run faster
d) Extra life

Clash of Clans:
115. What is the primary goal in Clash of Clans?
a) Build a fortress
b) Build and defend a village while attacking others
c) Raise an army
d) Explore dungeons

116. What resource is NOT used in Clash of Clans?

a) Gold
b) Elixir
c) Wood
d) Dark Elixir
117. Who are the enemies you attack in Clash of Clans?
a) Dragons
b) Goblins
c) Other players’ villages
d) Wizards

118. Which troop is the strongest in Clash of Clans?

a) Archer
b) Barbarian
c) P.E.K.K.A
d) Goblin

119. What building do you upgrade to unlock new defenses in Clash of Clans?
a) Barracks
b) Workshop
c) Town Hall
d) Clan Castle

Free Fire:
120. What type of game is Free Fire?
a) Strategy
b) Puzzle
c) Battle Royale
d) Simulation

121. How many players are typically in a Free Fire match?

a) 50
b) 100
c) 50
d) 200

122. What is the main objective in Free Fire?

a) Build a shelter
b) Survive and be the last person/team standing
c) Capture the flag
d) Rescue hostages

123. What is the maximum number of squad members you can have in Free Fire?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5

124. What do players parachute from at the beginning of a Free Fire match?
a) Plane
b) Helicopter
c) Airship
d) Spaceship

Fortnite:
125. What is the key mechanic in Fortnite that distinguishes it from other battle royale
games?
a) Vehicles
b) Building structures
c) Special weapons
d) Character skins

126. How many players compete in a Fortnite Battle Royale match?

a) 50
b) 100
c) 200
d) 300

127. Which mode in Fortnite allows players to create their own maps?
a) Battle Royale
b) Team Rumble
c) Creative
d) Save the World

128. In Fortnite, what is the term for a player's first win?

a) Royal Win
b) Victory Royale
c) Master Win
d) Last Stand

129. What material is NOT used for building in Fortnite?

a) Wood
b) Metal
c) Stone
d) Clay

Brawl Stars:
130. What type of game is Brawl Stars?
a) A) Racing
b) B) Multiplayer shooter
c) C) Strategy
d) D) Puzzle

131. What are the characters in Brawl Stars called?

a) Heroes
b) Soldiers
c) Brawlers
d) Champions

132. What is the goal in Brawl Stars’ Gem Grab mode?

a) Score the most kills
b) Capture the flag
c) Collect and hold 10 gems
d) Destroy the opponent’s base
133. How many players are on each team in Brawl Stars?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5

134. What is the maximum number of players in a Brawl Stars match?

a) 5
b) 6
c) 10
d) 12

Console/PC Games:
FIFA:
135. What is the main objective in FIFA?
a) Score more goals than the opponent
b) Defend the goal
c) Manage a team
d) Tackle opponents

136. Which mode in FIFA allows players to create and manage their own football club?
a) Manager Mode
b) Ultimate Team
c) Career Mode
d) Tournament Mode

NBA 2K:
137. In NBA 2K, what is the main objective?
a) Shoot 3-pointers
b) Win basketball matches
c) Dunk as many times as possible
d) Defend the hoop

Rocket League:
138. What is unique about Rocket League?
a) Flying cars
b) Soccer with rocket-powered cars
c) Basketball with robots
d) Racing with animals

Board/Physical Games:
139. What is the goal of Ludo?
a) Score the highest
b) Move all your pieces to the center of the board
c) Capture opponent's pieces
d) Block opponent's moves

140. Which of these board games involves strategy and checkmating the opponent's
king?
a) Checkers
b) Chess
c) Ludo
d) Carrom

141. What is the objective of Uno?

a) Draw as many cards as possible
b) Be the first to get rid of all your cards
c) Collect points
d) Capture opponent's cards

142. In Carrom, what is the striker used for?

a) To hit the coins into the pockets
b) To block the opponent
c) To defend
d) To score points

143. What colour is the queen in Carrom?

a) Black
b) Red
c) White
d) Blue

144. What card do you have to shout “Uno” for in the Uno card game?
a) Draw 4
b) Reverse
c) When you have one card left
d) Skip

Syllabus:
Hardware and Software
• Types of computers
• Generations of computers
• Components of CPU, (system unit), Microprocessors and chips
• Booting process
• Peripheral devices
• Types of storage
• Units of memory
• Inventions and Abbreviations
• Operating System
• Printers
• Input / Output devices

Hardware and Software

1. What does RAM stand for?
a) Read Access Memory
b) Random Array Memory
c) Random Access Memory
d) Read Application Memory
2. Which of the following is not hardware?
a) Monitor
b) Operating System
c) Mouse
d) Printer
3. Which of the following is a type of software?
a) Hard drive
b) Motherboard
c) Microsoft Word
d) CPU
4. What type of software manages the hardware of a computer?
a) Application software
b) Firmware
c) Operating system
d) Utility software
5. Which of the following is a hardware component?
a) Browser
b) Keyboard
c) Antivirus
d) Microsoft Excel
6. Which software type provides tools to manage and control computer hardware?
a) System software
b) Application software
c) Data software
d) Media player
7. Which of the following is a system software?
a) MS Word
b) Windows 10
c) Photoshop
d) PowerPoint
8. What is an example of application software?
a) MS Word
b) BIOS
c) CPU
d) RAM
9. Which software is used to prevent, detect, and remove malware?
a) Antivirus software
b) Spreadsheet
c) Compiler
d) Operating system
10. A program used to perform tasks for users is called?
a) Application software
b) System software
c) Device driver
d) Hardware

Types of Computers
1. Which of the following is a type of supercomputer?
a) Laptop
b) Desktop
c) Cray
d) Tablet
2. What is the main feature of a personal computer?
a) High processing speed
b) Small size
c) Designed for individual use
d) Shared resources
3. Mainframes are primarily used in which sector?
a) Business and banking
b) Video gaming
c) Personal home computing
d) Travel
4. Which type of computer is designed for portability?
a) Supercomputer
b) Mainframe
c) Laptop
d) Server
5. Which of the following is an example of a hybrid computer?
a) Calculator
b) ATM machine
c) Desktop
d) Smartphone
6. Microcomputers are most commonly referred to as?
a) Mainframes
b) Personal computers
c) Servers
d) Terminals
7. What type of computer would be used to control a robotic arm?
a) Laptop
b) Embedded computer
c) Mainframe
d) Desktop
8. What type of computer is used by large organizations for bulk data processing?
a) Supercomputer
b) Mainframe
c) Microcomputer
d) Laptop
9. Which of the following is a handheld computer?
a) Mainframe
b) Supercomputer
c) Smartphone
d) Workstation
10. What type of computer is mainly used in scientific research?
a) Laptop
b) Supercomputer
c) Mainframe
d) Server

Generations of Computers
1. Which generation of computers used vacuum tubes?
a) First generation
b) Second generation
c) Third generation
d) Fourth generation
2. The introduction of transistors was in which generation?
a) First generation
b) Second generation
c) Third generation
d) Fourth generation
3. Which generation of computers introduced integrated circuits?
a) First generation
b) Second generation
c) Third generation
d) Fourth generation
4. Microprocessors were first used in which generation of computers?
a) First generation
b) Second generation
c) Third generation
d) Fourth generation
5. Which generation of computers is known for using artificial intelligence?
a) Fifth generation
b) First generation
c) Second generation
d) Third generation
6. Which generation saw the development of operating systems?
a) First generation
b) Third generation
c) Second generation
d) Fourth generation
7. What is the major technology used in the first generation of computers?
a) Transistors
b) Vacuum tubes
c) Microprocessors
d) Integrated circuits
8. Laptops and personal computers belong to which generation?
a) First generation
b) Second generation
c) Fourth generation
d) Third generation
9. What innovation characterized the fourth generation of computers?
a) Vacuum tubes
b) Transistors
c) Microprocessors
d) Integrated circuits
10. What generation of computers introduced graphical user interfaces (GUIs)?
a) Fourth generation
b) Second generation
c) First generation
d) Fifth generation

Components of CPU, System Unit, Microprocessors, and Chips

1. What does the CPU stand for?
a) Central Processing Unit
b) Central Processing Unit
c) Computer Processing Unit
d) Control Processing Unit
2. Which of the following is NOT part of the CPU?
a) Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU)
b) Control Unit
c) Registers
d) RAM
3. The system unit primarily houses which component?
a) Motherboard
b) Monitor
c) Mouse
d) Keyboard
4. Microprocessors are often referred to as:
a) Control units
b) The brain of the computer
c) Storage units
d) Motherboards
5. The speed of a microprocessor is measured in:
a) Megabytes
b) Gigahertz (GHz)
c) Gigabytes
d) Megahertz
6. Which component of the CPU performs calculations?
a) Control Unit
b) Memory Unit
c) Arithmetic Logic Unit (ALU)
d) Input Unit
7. What is the role of the Control Unit in a CPU?
a) Store data
b) Perform arithmetic operations
c) Direct the operations of the processor
d) Execute programs
8. Which of the following is an example of a microprocessor?
a) RAM
b) Intel Core i7
c) Hard Drive
d) USB Drive
9. A chip that contains multiple processors on the same die is called:
a) Multiprocessing chip
b) Multi-core processor
c) Microcontroller
d) CPU chip
10. The first microprocessor was developed by:
a) IBM
b) Intel
c) AMD
d) Microsoft
Booting Process
1. What is the first step in the booting process?
a) Loading the operating system
b) Power-On Self Test (POST)
c) Initializing the user interface
d) Checking hardware devices
2. During the booting process, which part of the computer is checked first?
a) Hard disk
b) BIOS
c) Operating system
d) RAM
3. What does BIOS stand for?
a) Basic Internal Operating System
b) Basic Input Output System
c) Binary Input Output System
d) Boot Initialization Operating System
4. What is the function of BIOS in a computer?
a) Manage internet connections
b) Initialize and test hardware components
c) Run application programs
d) Display the desktop
5. What type of memory is used to store the BIOS settings?
a) CMOS
b) RAM
c) ROM
d) Hard disk
6. When the computer is booting, what is responsible for loading the operating
system into memory?
a) BIOS
b) RAM
c) Hard drive
d) CPU
7. What happens if the computer fails the POST during booting?
a) Operating system loads
b) Error messages or beeping sounds occur
c) Desktop is displayed
d) Application opens
8. What type of booting happens when the system restarts without turning off the
power?
a) Warm boot
b) Cold boot
c) Safe boot
d) Fast boot
9. In the booting process, which file is typically loaded after BIOS?
a) Application file
b) Operating system kernel
c) Drivers
d) Device manager
10. The sequence of operations during booting is stored in:
a) Hard disk
b) BIOS
c) CPU
d) RAM

Peripheral Devices
1. Which of the following is a peripheral device?
a) Printer
b) CPU
c) Motherboard
d) Power supply
2. What is a common input peripheral?
a) Keyboard
b) Printer
c) Monitor
d) Speaker
3. Which of the following is an output device?
a) Scanner
b) Monitor
c) Keyboard
d) Mouse
4. A device used to convert hard copy documents into digital form is a:
a) Printer
b) Scanner
c) Monitor
d) Keyboard
5. Which peripheral device is primarily used for printing?
a) Monitor
b) Printer
c) Keyboard
d) Mouse
6. What type of device is a webcam?
a) Output device
b) Input device
c) Storage device
d) Processing device
7. External storage devices, such as USB flash drives, are examples of:
a) Input devices
b) Output devices
c) Storage peripherals
d) Software
8. A joystick is commonly used in:
a) Gaming
b) Typing
c) Video playback
d) Text editing
9. Which peripheral allows a computer to connect to the internet?
a) Network adapter
b) Printer
c) Scanner
d) Monitor
10. What is an example of a peripheral device used for sound output?
a) Speakers
b) Keyboard
c) Mouse
d) Microphone

Types of Storage
1. Which of the following is an example of volatile storage?
a) Hard Drive
b) DVD
c) RAM
d) Flash drive
2. Which type of storage is used to store the operating system?
a) RAM
b) Hard disk
c) USB
d) ROM
3. What type of storage is a USB flash drive?
a) External storage
b) Internal storage
c) Temporary storage
d) Cloud storage
4. Which of the following is NOT an optical storage device?
a) Hard drive
b) CD
c) DVD
d) Blu-ray
5. What type of storage is used for data that needs to be accessed quickly?
a) Optical storage
b) RAM
c) Cloud storage
d) External hard drive
6. Which of the following is a form of secondary storage?
a) SSD (Solid State Drive)
b) RAM
c) Cache memory
d) CPU
7. What is the full form of SSD?
a) Static Storage Disk
b) Solid State Drive
c) Serial State Drive
d) Simple Storage Device
8. Which storage device has the highest capacity?
a) CD
b) Hard drive
c) Floppy disk
d) RAM
9. What type of storage is a DVD?
a) Optical storage
b) Magnetic storage
c) Solid state storage
d) Flash storage
10. Which of the following storage types is known for fast data access?
a) DVD
b) SSD
c) HDD
d) Tape

Units of Memory
1. What is the smallest unit of memory?
a) Bit
b) Byte
c) Kilobyte
d) Megabyte
2. How many bits are there in a byte?
a) 4
b) 16
c) 8
d) 1024
3. One kilobyte is equal to:
a) 1000 bytes
b) 1024 bytes
c) 512 bytes
d) 2048 bytes
4. Which unit is used to measure the size of large files like videos?
a) Gigabyte
b) Kilobyte
c) Megabyte
d) Terabyte
5. How many megabytes are in one gigabyte?
a) 512
b) 1024
c) 2048
d) 1000
6. A terabyte is approximately:
a) 10^3 bytes
b) 10^6 bytes
c) 10^9 bytes
d) 10^12 bytes
7. Which unit of memory is used to describe the storage of a smartphone or
computer hard drive?
a) Gigabyte
b) Megabyte
c) Kilobyte
d) Bit
8. What unit is commonly used to describe the memory of a computer's RAM?
a) Terabyte
b) Kilobyte
c) Gigabyte
d) Byte
9. How many gigabytes are in a terabyte?
a) 100
b) 512
c) 1024
d) 2048
10. Which unit is used for the smallest amount of data that a computer can process?
a) Bit
b) Byte
c) Megabyte
d) Terabyte

Inventions and Abbreviations

1. Who is considered the father of the computer?
a) Bill Gates
b) Charles Babbage
c) Steve Jobs
d) Alan Turing
2. What does the abbreviation "CPU" stand for?
a) Central Program Unit
b) Control Processing Unit
c) Central Processing Unit
d) Computer Processing Unit
3. What does "WWW" stand for?
a) World Wide Web
b) Web Wide World
c) World Wide Web
d) World Web Wide
4. Who invented the World Wide Web?
a) Tim Berners-Lee
b) Charles Babbage
c) Steve Jobs
d) Mark Zuckerberg
5. What does the acronym "ROM" stand for?
a) Random Only Memory
b) Read-Open Memory
c) Read-Only Memory
d) Run-Only Memory
6. What does USB stand for?
a) Universal Software Bus
b) Universal Serial Bus
c) Unique System Bus
d) Universal Speed Bus
7. Which of the following is the abbreviation for "HyperText Markup Language"?
a) HTLM
b) MLHT
c) HTML
d) HMTL
8. What is the abbreviation for "Random Access Memory"?
a) RAM
b) ROM
c) RAS
d) RAMM
9. Who is credited with the invention of the first mechanical computer?
a) Alan Turing
b) Charles Babbage
c) Ada Lovelace
d) Steve Jobs
10. What does the abbreviation "LAN" stand for?
a) Long Area Network
b) Local Around Network
c) Local Area Network
d) Large Access Network

Operating System
1. What is the primary function of an operating system?
a) Manage computer hardware and software
b) Create web pages
c) Process data
d) Run games
2. Which of the following is an example of an operating system?
a) Microsoft Word
b) Windows 10
c) Intel Core
d) HDMI
3. What does GUI stand for in the context of operating systems?
a) Graphical User Interface
b) General User Information
c) Global Unified Interface
d) Graphics Unified Internet
4. Which operating system is developed by Apple?
a) macOS
b) Linux
c) Windows
d) Android
5. Which operating system is known for its open-source nature?
a) Windows
b) Linux
c) macOS
d) Android
6. What is the name of the operating system used in most smartphones?
a) Android
b) Windows
c) Linux
d) macOS
7. In what year was the first version of Microsoft Windows released?
a) 1980
b) 1985
c) 1995
d) 2000
8. Which part of the operating system is responsible for managing memory?
a) Application layer
b) Kernel
c) GUI
d) Device drivers
9. What does multitasking in an operating system allow a user to do?
a) Run multiple applications simultaneously
b) Perform only one task at a time
c) Manage hardware
d) Run diagnostics
10. Which of the following is not an operating system?
a) Linux
b) Windows
c) MS Word
d) macOS

Printers
1. Which of the following is a common type of printer?
a) Scanner
b) Inkjet printer
c) Monitor
d) Projector
2. Which type of printer uses toner to print?
a) Inkjet printer
b) Laser printer
c) Dot matrix printer
d) Thermal printer
3. Which printer is best for printing high-quality photos?
a) Inkjet printer
b) Laser printer
c) Dot matrix printer
d) Thermal printer
4. What type of printer uses a ribbon to transfer ink?
a) Inkjet printer
b) Dot matrix printer
c) Laser printer
d) Thermal printer
5. What is the main function of a 3D printer?
a) Print on paper
b) Create physical objects
c) Print high-quality photos
d) Print in color
6. Which of the following is a feature of a laser printer?
a) Uses ink
b) Fast printing speed
c) Slow output
d) Expensive to maintain
7. Which printer type is most commonly used for office documents?
a) Dot matrix printer
b) Laser printer
c) Thermal printer
d) Inkjet printer
8. What is the primary disadvantage of an inkjet printer?
a) High quality
b) Expensive ink cartridges
c) High speed
d) Small size
9. Which printer is best suited for bulk printing at high speed?
a) Inkjet printer
b) Laser printer
c) Dot matrix printer
d) Thermal printer
10. What does DPI stand for in printer specifications?
a) Data Per Inch
b) Dots Per Inch
c) Depth Per Image
d) Display Picture Information

Input/Output Devices
1. Which of the following is an input device?
a) Keyboard
b) Printer
c) Monitor
d) Speakers
2. What is the function of an output device?
a) Display or output data
b) Input data
c) Process data
d) Store data
3. Which device is used to input sound into a computer?
a) Speaker
b) Microphone
c) Monitor
d) Printer
4. Which of the following is an example of an output device?
a) Monitor
b) Keyboard
c) Mouse
d) Scanner
5. A mouse is an example of which type of device?
a) Output device
b) Input device
c) Storage device
d) Processing device
6. What is the function of a printer?
a) Input text
b) Output data on paper
c) Display images
d) Store files
7. Which device is used to display information in visual form?
a) Keyboard
b) Monitor
c) Printer
d) Hard drive
8. A joystick is typically used for:
a) Word processing
b) Gaming
c) Printing documents
d) Typing text
9. What type of device is a touchscreen?
a) Input and output device
b) Input device only
c) Output device only
d) Storage device
10. Which of the following is a pointing device?
a) Mouse
b) Printer
c) Scanner
d) Speaker

Syllabus:
GIMP
• Tools
• Interface, File extension and shortcut keys
• Commands and filters

Tools
1. What is the primary function of the Paintbrush Tool in GIMP?
a) To paint and draw freehand
b) To erase parts of an image
c) To fill areas with color
d) To select objects
2. Which tool is used to select a specific area of an image?
a) Paint Tool
b) Selection Tool
c) Color Tool
d) Fill Tool
3. What does the Crop Tool do?
a) Removes unwanted parts of an image
b) Changes the image size
c) Adjusts colors
d) Adds text to an image
4. Which tool allows you to adjust the brightness and contrast of an image?
a) Levels Tool
b) Selection Tool
c) Color Picker Tool
d) Clone Tool
5. What is the function of the Clone Tool?
a) To duplicate parts of an image
b) To crop images
c) To change colors
d) To erase background
6. The Eraser Tool is used for:
a) Removing parts of an image
b) Filling colors
c) Selecting areas
d) Drawing shapes
7. Which tool is used for creating shapes like rectangles and ellipses?
a) Shape Tool
b) Line Tool
c) Selection Tool
d) Fill Tool
8. The Gradient Tool in GIMP is used for:
a) Creating smooth transitions between colors
b) Adjusting brightness
c) Cropping images
d) Drawing lines
9. Which tool is best for adjusting colors and saturation?
a) Hue-Saturation Tool
b) Selection Tool
c) Crop Tool
d) Text Tool
10. The Free Select Tool is also known as:
a) Lasso Tool
b) Polygon Tool
c) Magic Wand
d) Color Picker
11. Which tool is used to fill an area with color?
a) Bucket Fill Tool
b) Paintbrush Tool
c) Gradient Tool
d) Selection Tool
12. What is the function of the Color Picker Tool?
a) To select colors from the image
b) To fill colors
c) To erase colors
d) To create gradients
13. The Path Tool is primarily used for:
a) Drawing freehand
b) Creating and editing vector paths
c) Painting
d) Filling shapes
14. Which tool allows you to adjust the opacity of a layer?
a) Eraser Tool
b) Opacity Tool
c) Color Tool
d) Selection Tool
15. What is the main purpose of the Text Tool?
a) To draw shapes
b) To add text to an image
c) To fill colors
d) To erase parts of an image
16. The Foreground and Background colors can be reset to default colors by pressing:
a) Ctrl + D
b) D
c) Ctrl + F
d) R
17. Which of the following tools is best for creating straight lines?
a) Line Tool
b) Paintbrush Tool
c) Selection Tool
d) Free Select Tool
18. The Smudge Tool is used for:
a) Blending colors
b) Filling areas
c) Selecting objects
d) Erasing
19. What does the Burn Tool do?
a) Darkens specific areas of an image
b) Lightens areas
c) Fills colors
d) Draws shapes
20. Which tool is used to create a gradient effect?
a) Paint Tool
b) Gradient Tool
c) Eraser Tool
d) Shape Tool

Interface, File Extensions, and Shortcut Keys

21. What is the default file extension for GIMP images?
a) .jpg
b) .xcf
c) .png
d) .gif
22. Which menu in GIMP contains options to open, save, and export files?
a) File menu
b) Edit menu
c) Tools menu
d) Help menu
23. The main area where your image is displayed in GIMP is called:
a) Canvas
b) Toolbar
c) Palette
d) Dock
24. What is the shortcut key for the Paintbrush Tool?
a) B
b) P
c) T
d) R
25. Which of the following shortcuts is used to undo an action?
a) Ctrl + Y
b) Ctrl + Z
c) Ctrl + X
d) Ctrl + C
26. What does the File Extension .png stand for?
a) Portable Network Graphics
b) Portable Network Graphics
c) Personal Network Graphics
d) Print Network Graphics
27. Which of the following is a common shortcut for saving a file?
a) Ctrl + S
b) Ctrl + N
c) Ctrl + O
d) Ctrl + P
28. The Toolbox in GIMP contains:
a) Tools for editing and creating
b) Color palettes
c) Layer options
d) File management tools
29. What is the keyboard shortcut to zoom in on an image?
a) Ctrl + Z
b) Ctrl + +
c) Ctrl + Shift + +
d) Ctrl + I
30. The term "Dock" in GIMP refers to:
a) A panel that contains tool options
b) The image area
c) The status bar
d) The main menu
31. The "Undo History" feature can be accessed from which menu?
a) Edit menu
b) Filter menu
c) Image menu
d) Tools menu
32. What is the shortcut key to switch between the Foreground and Background
colors?
a) X
b) Y
c) Z
d) C
33. What does the file extension .jpg represent?
a) Joint Picture Group
b) Joint Photographic Experts Group
c) Just Photo Graphics
d) Java Picture Graphics
34. The main workspace where you can see your image is called the:
a) Toolbox
b) Image Window
c) Palette
d) Dock
35. The shortcut key for the Rectangular Select Tool is:
a) R
b) R
c) S
d) T
36. What does the "Layers" dialog allow you to do?
a) Manage different image layers
b) Edit colors
c) Adjust the canvas size
d) Apply filters
37. Which command can be used to export an image in a different format?
a) Export As
b) Save
c) Save As
d) Convert
38. The shortcut for the Zoom Tool is:
a) Z
b) Z
c) X
d) C
39. The "Tool Options" dialog shows:
a) Image size
b) Settings for the selected tool
c) File information
d) Export options
40. What is the keyboard shortcut to create a new image in GIMP?
a) Ctrl + N
b) Ctrl + Shift + N
c) Ctrl + O
d) Ctrl + P

Commands and Filters

41. Which command is used to adjust the image size in GIMP?
a) Scale Image
b) Resize Image
c) Crop Image
d) Transform Image
42. What is the purpose of the Filter menu in GIMP?
a) To save images
b) To apply effects to images
c) To open files
d) To adjust colors
43. Which filter is used to blur an image?
a) Gaussian Blur
b) Sharpen
c) Edge Detect
d) Noise Reduction
44. The command "Undo" is found under which menu?
a) Edit menu
b) Filter menu
c) Tools menu
d) File menu
45. To remove a color from an image, which command would you use?
a) Color to Alpha
b) Desaturate
c) Hue-Saturation
d) Levels
46. What does the command "Merge Visible Layers" do?
a) Combines all visible layers into one
b) Hides layers
c) Deletes layers
d) Duplicates layers
47. Which filter would you use to enhance the sharpness of an image?
a) Blur
b) Sharpen
c) Soften
d) Dist
48. Which filter would you use to enhance the sharpness of an image?
a) Blur
b) Sharpen
c) Soften
d) Distort
49. What is the purpose of the "Filters > Enhance" menu?
a) To improve the quality of images
b) To create new images
c) To save images
d) To adjust color balance
50. Which command allows you to create a new layer in GIMP?
a) New Layer
b) Duplicate Layer
c) Merge Layers
d) Layer Properties

Syllabus:
LOGO
• LOGO Screen and its parts
• ALL LOGO commands
• Primitives and procedures

LOGO Screen and Its Parts

1. What is the primary area where commands are entered in the LOGO environment
called?
a) Command Window
b) Drawing Area
c) Output Window
d) Editor
2. The area where drawings appear in LOGO is known as:
a) Command Line
b) Graphics Window
c) Output Area
d) Drawing Board
3. Which part of the LOGO screen displays the results of commands?
a) Command Window
b) Output Window
c) Graphics Window
d) Menu Bar
4. The LOGO environment typically includes a:
a) Menu Bar
b) Color Palette
c) Toolbar
d) Status Bar
5. In the LOGO interface, the "Clear Screen" command is abbreviated as:
a) CS
b) CLS
c) CL
d) CLEAR
6. The command to move the turtle forward in LOGO is:
a) FORWARD
b) FD
c) MOVE
d) GO
7. Which part of the LOGO screen allows you to input commands?
a) Command Area
b) Output Area
c) Graphics Area
d) Menu Bar
8. What does the "SETUP" command do in LOGO?
a) Initializes the drawing
b) Prepares the LOGO environment
c) Clears the screen
d) Resets the turtle position
9. The LOGO cursor is often referred to as the:
a) Turtle
b) Pointer
c) Cursor
d) Icon
10. The command that sets the turtle's position without drawing is:
a) PENUP
b) PENDOWN
c) SETPOS
d) MOVETO

ALL LOGO Commands

11. What command is used to draw a circle in LOGO?
a) CIRCLE
b) REPEAT 360 [FD 1 RT 1]
c) DRAW CIRCLE
d) CIRC
12. Which command will change the turtle's heading to the right by a specified angle?
a) RIGHT
b) TURN
c) ANGLE
d) RT
13. The command to draw a square using LOGO is:
a) REPEAT 4 [FD 100 RT 90]
b) SQUARE 100
c) DRAW SQUARE
d) REPEAT 4 [FORWARD 100 RIGHT 90]
14. The command to set the pen color in LOGO is:
a) SETCOLOR
b) PENCOLOR
c) COLOR
d) SETPENCOLOR
15. Which command is used to display text in the LOGO environment?
a) SHOW
b) PRINT
c) DISPLAY
d) TEXT
16. What is the command to repeat an action a specified number of times?
a) REPEAT
b) LOOP
c) TIMES
d) AGAIN
17. The command to turn the turtle left is:
a) LEFT
b) TURN
c) LT
d) LEFTTURN
18. What does the "PENUP" command do?
a) Stops drawing
b) Starts drawing
c) Moves the turtle
d) Clears the screen
19. Which command is used to make the turtle move backward?
a) BACK
b) BK
c) REVERSE
d) MOVE BACK
20. The command used to set the turtle's heading to a specific angle is:
a) SETANGLE
b) SETHEADING
c) HEADING
d) ANGLE

Primitives and Procedures

21. What is a primitive in LOGO?
a) A complex command
b) A basic command built into the language
c) A user-defined command
d) An advanced function
22. How do you define a new procedure in LOGO?
a) TO procedureName
b) DEFINE procedureName
c) NEW procedureName
d) CREATE procedureName
23. Which of the following is a built-in LOGO primitive?
a) CIRCLE
b) FD (Forward)
c) DRAW
d) SQUARE
24. The command "TO SQUARE" defines a procedure to draw a square. What is the
correct way to call it?
a) SQUARE
b) CALL SQUARE
c) DRAW SQUARE
d) RUN SQUARE
25. What is the purpose of the "END" command in a procedure?
a) To stop the program
b) To indicate the end of a procedure
c) To clear the screen
d) To finish drawing
26. Which command is used to create a repeatable procedure in LOGO?
a) LOOP
b) REPEAT
c) AGAIN
d) CYCLE
27. How do you use a parameter in a LOGO procedure?
a) TO procedureName
b) DEFINE procedureName (parameter)
c) PARAMETER procedureName
d) CREATE procedureName with parameter
28. Which command is used to call a procedure with parameters in LOGO?
a) procedureName value
b) CALL procedureName(value)
c) RUN procedureName with value
d) EXECUTE procedureName(value)
29. What is the default procedure for drawing a line in LOGO?
a) LINE
b) FD (Forward)
c) DRAWLINE
d) STRAIGHT
30. What does the command "REPEAT 4 [FD 100 RT 90]" do?
a) Draws a circle
b) Draws a square
c) Draws a triangle
d) Moves the turtle forward
31. In LOGO, which command will make the turtle move in a specified direction for a
certain distance?
a) TURN
b) FD (Forward)
c) MOVE
d) DRAW
32. The command "SETHEADING" takes an angle as a parameter. What does it do?
a) Changes the turtle's position
b) Changes the turtle's direction
c) Draws a line
d) Resets the turtle
33. Which command allows you to create a procedure that accepts multiple
parameters?
a) TO procedureName
b) DEFINE procedureName (param1, param2)
c) NEW procedureName with (param1, param2)
d) CREATE procedureName with multiple params
34. The command to erase everything drawn in LOGO is:
a) CLEARSCREEN
b) RESET
c) ERASE
d) CL
35. In LOGO, what does the command "REPEAT 360 [FD 1 RT 1]" achieve?
a) Draws a circle
b) Draws a circle
c) Draws a square
d) Draws a star
36. How do you save a procedure in LOGO?
a) Automatically when defined
b) By exporting
c) By saving the project
d) By compiling
37. Which command allows you to pause the execution of a program?
a) SLEEP
b) WAIT
c) PAUSE
d) HOLD
38. The LOGO command "LT 90" means to turn left by how many degrees?
a) 45
b) 180
c) 90
d) 360
39. What is the purpose of the "IF" command in LOGO?
a) To make decisions based on conditions
b) To loop through commands
c) To define procedures
d) To repeat actions
40. Which command would you use to find the absolute value of a number in LOGO?
a) ABSOLUTE
b) ABS
c) VALUE
d) MAGNITUDE
Review and Summary
41. The LOGO environment allows users to draw shapes using:
a) Commands
b) Scripts
c) Code
d) Text
42. Which command would you use to draw a triangle in LOGO?
a) REPEAT 3 [FD 100 RT 120]
b) TRIANGLE
c) DRAW TRIANGLE
d) REPEAT 3 [FORWARD 100 RIGHT 60]
43. The LOGO command "PENUP" affects what aspect of the turtle?
a) Stops drawing while moving
b) Changes color
c) Resets position
d) Changes speed
44. To create a custom shape, you can define a procedure using:
a) TO customShape
b) CREATE customShape
c) DEFINE customShape
d) NEW customShape
45. The command to set the turtle's pen color in LOGO is:
a) SETPENCOLOR
b) PENCOLOR
c) COLOR
d) SETCOLOR
46. The command that allows you to turn the turtle right by a specified angle is:
a) RIGHT
b) TURN
c) RT
d) RIGHTTURN
47. The command to check if a number is even in LOGO is:
a) EVEN?
b) EVEN? (number)
c) IS EVEN
d) CHECK EVEN
48. The purpose of using "REPEAT" in LOGO is:
a) To create loops
b) To repeat a set of instructions
c) To iterate over a list
d) To execute a command once
49. To combine commands into a procedure, which keyword is used?
a) DEFINE
b) TO
c) COMBINE
d) GROUP
50. Which command is used to change the turtle's pen size?
a) SETPENSIZE
b) PENSIZE
c) SIZE
d) CHANGE PEN

Syllabus:
Open Office and MS Office
• Licensed, Proprietary, Open-Source software etc. Writer: Creating, Saving,
formatting and printing documents, printing with various options Mail Merge, short
cut keys, various tool bars, etc.
• CALC: Concept of cell, cell address, formula etc, formatting cells, various tool bars
and options etc.
• Impress: Concept of slide, transitions, various PowerPoint views, short cut keys, all
tool bars, printing, saving opening, closing presentations etc.

Open Office and MS Office: Writer

1. Which menu option do you use to create a new document in Writer?
a) Edit
b) View
c) File
d) Insert
2. What does the shortcut Ctrl + S do in Writer?
a) Open a new document
b) Save the current document
c) Print the document
d) Exit the application
3. In Writer, which feature is used to merge multiple documents?
a) Concatenate
b) Combine
c) Mail Merge
d) Group
4. What is the primary function of a word processor like Writer?
a) Create and edit text documents
b) Manage databases
c) Create presentations
d) Analyze data
5. The file extension for a Writer document is:
a) DOCX
b) TXT
c) ODT
d) RTF
6. Which command is used to format text as bold in Writer?
a) Ctrl + B
b) Ctrl + I
c) Ctrl + U
d) Ctrl + A
7. What is the purpose of the "Page Setup" option in Writer?
a) To edit images
b) To adjust page size and margins
c) To insert tables
d) To check spelling
8. Which of the following is a valid command to change text color in Writer?
a) Text Color
b) Font Color
c) Change Color
d) Format Color
9. What does the "Insert Table" option do in Writer?
a) Creates a chart
b) Adds a table to the document
c) Formats existing text
d) Merges cells
10. How can you view the word count in a Writer document?
a) Tools > Count Words
b) Tools > Word Count
c) Edit > Count Words
d) View > Word Count
11. Which option allows you to change the font type in Writer?
a) Formatting Toolbar
b) Standard Toolbar
c) View Toolbar
d) Insert Toolbar
12. In Writer, how do you add a page number?
a) Insert > Header
b) Insert > Page Number
c) Edit > Page Number
d) Format > Page Number
13. What is the shortcut to copy selected text in Writer?
a) Ctrl + X
b) Ctrl + C
c) Ctrl + V
d) Ctrl + A
14. The "Find and Replace" feature is used for:
a) Searching and replacing text
b) Formatting text
c) Printing documents
d) Inserting images
15. Which of the following commands is used to print a document in Writer?
a) File > Print
b) Edit > Print
c) View > Print
d) Insert > Print
16. What is the purpose of styles in Writer?
a) To change page layout
b) To apply consistent formatting
c) To insert tables
d) To merge cells
17. The keyboard shortcut for underlining text is:
a) Ctrl + U
b) Ctrl + U
c) Ctrl + B
d) Ctrl + I
18. In Writer, what is the purpose of headers and footers?
a) To add information at the top and bottom of pages
b) To insert images
c) To format text
d) To create tables
19. Which option allows you to insert a hyperlink in Writer?
a) Insert > Link
b) Insert > Hyperlink
c) Edit > Hyperlink
d) Format > Hyperlink
20. What is the function of the "Spell Check" feature?
a) To format text
b) To count words
c) To identify spelling errors
d) To insert images
21. What does the "Align Center" command do in Writer?
a) Centers the text on the page
b) Justifies the text
c) Aligns text to the right
d) Aligns text to the left
22. How can you create a bulleted list in Writer?
a) Format > Bullets and Numbering
b) Insert > List
c) Edit > Bullets
d) Tools > List
23. The shortcut for pasting copied text in Writer is:
a) Ctrl + X
b) Ctrl + C
c) Ctrl + V
d) Ctrl + P
24. What does the "Change Case" feature do in Writer?
a) Changes font size
b) Changes the case of selected text
c) Changes the color of text
d) Changes paragraph alignment
25. Which of the following is used to create a table of contents in Writer?
a) Insert > Table of Contents
b) Format > TOC
c) Edit > TOC
d) Tools > TOC
26. What is the default alignment for text in Writer?
a) Right
b) Left
c) Center
d) Justified
27. Which command is used to check for grammar errors in Writer?
a) Tools > Spelling and Grammar
b) Edit > Grammar Check
c) Format > Grammar
d) View > Grammar
28. The purpose of the "Undo" command is to:
a) Reverse the last action
b) Save the document
c) Print the document
d) Cut selected text
29. How can you insert a picture in Writer?
a) Insert > Image
b) Insert > Picture
c) Edit > Picture
d) Format > Picture
30. What does the "Page Break" command do?
a) Splits a paragraph
b) Starts a new page
c) Formats a page
d) Inserts a table
31. The shortcut for italicizing text is:
a) Ctrl + U
b) Ctrl + I
c) Ctrl + B
d) Ctrl + C
32. Which menu do you use to change the document margins?
a) Format > Page
b) Edit > Margins
c) View > Margins
d) Tools > Page
33. What is the function of the "Text Box" feature?
a) To create a table
b) To insert a box for text
c) To insert a picture
d) To format text
34. Which option allows you to sort paragraphs in Writer?
a) Tools > Sort
b) Edit > Sort
c) Format > Sort
d) View > Sort
35. What does the "Find" feature do?
a) Formats text
b) Searches for specific text
c) Replaces text
d) Counts words
36. In Writer, how can you add a border to a page?
a) Format > Page Borders
b) Edit > Borders
c) View > Borders
d) Tools > Borders
37. Which command is used to change the line spacing in Writer?
a) Format > Paragraph
b) Format > Line Spacing
c) Edit > Line Spacing
d) View > Line Spacing
38. The keyboard shortcut for selecting all text in a document is:
a) Ctrl + A
b) Ctrl + A
c) Ctrl + C
d) Ctrl + S
39. In Writer, what is the purpose of the "Insert Comment" feature?
a) To highlight text
b) To add notes to the document
c) To format text
d) To edit images
40. How do you change the paragraph alignment in Writer?
a) Format > Paragraph
b) Edit > Align
c) View > Alignment
d) Tools > Paragraph
41. Which of the following can be inserted in a Writer document?
a) Images, tables, charts
b) Only text
c) Only images
d) Only tables
42. What is the shortcut to redo an action in Writer?
a) Ctrl + Z
b) Ctrl + Y
c) Ctrl + R
d) Ctrl + D
43. Which of the following is used to change text to uppercase?
a) Change Case
b) Tools > Change Case
c) Edit > Uppercase
d) Format > Uppercase
44. What does the "Format Painter" tool do?
a) Copies formatting from one part of text to another
b) Edits text
c) Saves documents
d) Inserts images
45. Which option in Writer allows you to add a table of figures to your document?
a) Insert > Table of Figures
b) Format > Table of Figures
c) Tools > Figures
d) View > Table of Figures
46. What does the "Justify" alignment option do in Writer?
a) Aligns text to the right
b) Aligns text to the left
c) Centers the text
d) Aligns text evenly on both sides of the page
47. What does the "Track Changes" feature do in Writer/MS Word?
a) Records edits made to a document
b) Automatically formats text
c) Highlights text
d) Converts the document to PDF
48. How do you insert a table in Writer/MS Word?
a) Format > Table
b) Tools > Table
c) Insert > Table
d) View > Table
49. What is the default file extension for a Writer/MS Word document?
a) .docx
b) .txt
c) .xls
d) .odt
50. How can you create a Table of Contents in Writer/MS Word?
a) Format > Table of Contents
b) Insert > Table of Contents
c) Tools > Table
d) View > Table

Open Office and MS Office: CALC

1. What is the default file extension for a CALC spreadsheet?

a) XLSX
b) ODS
c) CSV
d) DOCX
2. In CALC, what symbol is used to begin a formula?
a) @
b) $
c) =
d) #
3. Which key is used to edit a cell in CALC?
a) F1
b) F2
c) F3
d) F5
4. In CALC, what is the intersection of a row and a column called?
a) Sheet
b) Cell
c) Formula
d) Address
5. What does the shortcut Ctrl + C do in CALC?
a) Copies selected cells
b) Cuts selected cells
c) Pastes selected cells
d) Deletes selected cells
6. Which function in CALC adds up a range of numbers?
a) AVERAGE
b) PRODUCT
c) SUM
d) COUNT
7. How do you freeze panes in CALC to keep rows or columns visible during
scrolling?
a) Window > Freeze
b) Format > Freeze
c) Edit > Freeze
d) View > Freeze
8. What is the purpose of a chart in CALC?
a) To format text
b) To visually represent data
c) To calculate totals
d) To edit cells
9. How can you insert a new sheet in CALC?
a) Edit > New Sheet
b) Insert > Sheet
c) View > New Sheet
d) Tools > New Sheet
10. Which function finds the largest number in a range in CALC?
a) MAX
b) MIN
c) AVERAGE
d) SUM
11. In CALC, how do you apply conditional formatting to a range of cells?
a) Format > Cells
b) Format > Conditional Formatting
c) Edit > Cells
d) View > Conditional Formatting
12. What does the Ctrl + Z shortcut do in CALC?
a) Redo
b) Save
c) Undo
d) Paste
13. Which of the following is used to sort data in CALC?
a) Data > Sort
b) Edit > Sort
c) Tools > Sort
d) Format > Sort
14. How can you insert a comment in a cell in CALC?
a) Edit > Insert Comment
b) Insert > Comment
c) Tools > Comment
d) View > Insert Comment
15. What is the purpose of the "AutoFill" feature in CALC?
a) To delete cells
b) To quickly fill cells with data
c) To print data
d) To merge cells
16. What does the "Merge Cells" option do in CALC?
a) Splits a cell into two
b) Combines multiple cells into one
c) Deletes cells
d) Copies cells
17. In CALC, what is the shortcut for saving a spreadsheet?
a) Ctrl + P
b) Ctrl + X
c) Ctrl + S
d) Ctrl + Z
18. Which of the following functions calculates the average of a range of numbers?
a) SUM
b) AVERAGE
c) COUNT
d) MAX
19. What does the "Filter" function do in CALC?
a) Displays only rows that meet specified criteria
b) Deletes data
c) Sorts data
d) Formats data
20. How do you insert a chart into a spreadsheet in CALC?
a) Tools > Insert Chart
b) Insert > Chart
c) Format > Insert Chart
d) View > Insert Chart
21. What is the purpose of the "Wrap Text" feature in CALC?
a) To display text on multiple lines within a cell
b) To merge cells
c) To highlight text
d) To insert images
22. Which function counts the number of cells that contain numbers in a range?
a) MAX
b) SUM
c) COUNT
d) AVERAGE
23. What is the address of the cell in the first row and the first column?
a) A1
b) 1A
c) 0A
d) A0
24. How do you rename a sheet in CALC?
a) Edit > Sheet Name
b) Right-click sheet tab > Rename
c) Tools > Rename Sheet
d) View > Sheet Name
25. Which of the following functions returns the smallest number in a range?
a) MIN
b) MAX
c) SUM
d) AVERAGE
26. In CALC, what does the "Pivot Table" feature do?
a) Sorts data
b) Summarizes and analyzes data
c) Filters data
d) Merges data
27. What is the purpose of cell references like A1, B2 in CALC?
a) To format cells
b) To identify the location of a cell
c) To merge cells
d) To delete cells
28. How can you protect a sheet in CALC from being edited?
a) Format > Lock Sheet
b) View > Protect Sheet
c) Tools > Protect Sheet
d) Edit > Protect Sheet
29. What is the purpose of "Cell Borders" in CALC?
a) To insert charts
b) To outline and emphasize cells
c) To merge cells
d) To insert comments
30. In CALC, how do you select an entire column?
a) Click on the column header
b) Click on the row number
c) Click on the cell
d) Edit > Select Column
31. What does the "Transpose" function do in CALC?
a) Changes rows into columns and vice versa
b) Sorts data
c) Filters data
d) Formats data
32. Which of the following commands allows you to delete a row in CALC?
a) Edit > Delete Cells
b) View > Delete Row
c) Right-click row number > Delete Row
d) Tools > Delete Row
33. What is the shortcut for cutting selected cells in CALC?
a) Ctrl + C
b) Ctrl + X
c) Ctrl + V
d) Ctrl + Z
34. How can you hide a row in CALC?
a) Format > Hide
b) Right-click row number > Hide
c) Edit > Hide Row
d) View > Hide
35. In CALC, how do you display the formula used in a cell?
a) Tools > Formula
b) Ctrl + `
c) Format > Formula
d) Edit > Formula
36. Which of the following functions finds the number of empty cells in a range?
a) SUM
b) COUNTBLANK
c) AVERAGE
d) MIN
37. How do you autofit the width of a column in CALC?
a) Format > Autofit
b) View > Autofit Column
c) Double-click the boundary of the column header
d) Tools > Autofit
38. What does the "Go To" feature do in CALC?
a) Sorts data
b) Filters data
c) Moves the cursor to a specified cell
d) Formats data
39. Which of the following is used to check the spelling in CALC?
a) Edit > Check Spelling
b) View > Spelling
c) Format > Check Spelling
d) Tools > Spelling
40. How do you insert a hyperlink in CALC?
a) Insert > Link
b) Insert > Hyperlink
c) Edit > Hyperlink
d) View > Link
41. In CALC, how do you remove gridlines from the sheet?
a) Tools > Gridlines
b) View > Gridlines
c) Format > Gridlines
d) Edit > Gridlines
42. What does the "Cell Reference" feature do in CALC?
a) Deletes cells
b) Links a formula to a specific cell
c) Inserts a table
d) Formats cells
43. How can you set the print area in CALC?
a) Format > Set Print Area
b) File > Print Area > Define
c) Edit > Print Area
d) View > Print Area
44. What is the purpose of the "Absolute Reference" in CALC?
a) To keep a cell reference constant in a formula
b) To format text
c) To merge cells
d) To insert comments
45. Which of the following is a valid cell reference format in CALC?
a) A1
b) 1A
c) $A1
d) $1$A
46. In CALC, how can you insert a formula into a cell?
a) Type = followed by the formula
b) Edit > Insert Formula
c) Tools > Formula
d) Format > Insert Formula
47. What does the "Split" feature do in CALC?
a) Merges cells
b) Divides a worksheet into panes
c) Deletes data
d) Sorts data
48. In CALC, how do you copy formatting from one cell to another?
a) Edit > Copy Format
b) Format > Format Painter
c) View > Format Painter
d) Tools > Copy Format
49. What is the purpose of the "Data Validation" feature in CALC?
a) To restrict the type of data entered into a cell
b) To format text
c) To insert comments
d) To merge cells
50. How can you rename a workbook in CALC?
a) Save As and provide a new name
b) Edit > Rename Workbook
c) View > Workbook Name
d) Tools > Rename

Open Office and MS Office: Impress

1. In Impress, what is the default file extension for a presentation?

a) PPTX
b) ODP
c) DOCX
d) XLSX
2. What is the shortcut to create a new slide in Impress?
a) Ctrl + M
b) Ctrl + N
c) Ctrl + T
d) Ctrl + P
3. Which of the following views allows you to see all slides in a presentation at once?
a) Slide Sorter View
b) Normal View
c) Notes View
d) Outline View
4. How do you insert an image into a slide in Impress?
a) Edit > Image
b) Insert > Picture
c) View > Image
d) Format > Picture
5. What is the purpose of slide transitions in Impress?
a) To format text
b) To add sound effects
c) To create visual effects between slides
d) To insert images
6. In Impress, which of the following is used to change the layout of a slide?
a) Edit > Layout
b) Slide > Layout
c) View > Layout
d) Format > Layout
7. Which shortcut is used to start a slideshow from the beginning in Impress?
a) F3
b) F4
c) F5
d) F2
8. What does the "Master Slide" feature do in Impress?
a) Edits text
b) Applies a consistent design to all slides
c) Inserts images
d) Prints slides
9. How do you apply a theme to a presentation in Impress?
a) Edit > Theme
b) Slide > Slide Design
c) View > Theme
d) Tools > Theme
10. What is the purpose of the "Slide Show" option in Impress?
a) To present slides in full-screen mode
b) To edit slides
c) To format slides
d) To delete slides
11. How do you reorder slides in Impress?
a) Edit > Reorder
b) Drag and drop in Slide Sorter View
c) View > Reorder
d) Tools > Reorder
12. In Impress, what does the "Slide Master" view allow you to do?
a) Modify the overall design of slides
b) Change text size
c) Add transitions
d) Insert images
13. How can you insert a new slide with a specific layout in Impress?
a) Insert > Slide Layout
b) Edit > Slide
c) View > Layout
d) Format > Slide
14. What does the "Notes" feature do in Impress?
a) Inserts a comment
b) Allows you to add speaker notes for each slide
c) Formats the slide
d) Deletes the slide
15. In Impress, how do you change the background color of a slide?
a) Format > Slide Background
b) Slide > Page Setup
c) View > Slide Background
d) Tools > Slide Background
16. Which of the following is a valid view mode in Impress?
a) Presentation View
b) Outline View
c) Workbook View
d) Formula View
17. What is the purpose of the "Slide Sorter" view in Impress?
a) To edit individual slides
b) To organize and rearrange slides
c) To insert images
d) To delete slides
18. How can you duplicate a slide in Impress?
a) Edit > Copy Slide
b) Slide > Duplicate Slide
c) Right-click on the slide and choose Duplicate Slide
d) Insert > Copy Slide
19. What does the "Custom Animation" feature do in Impress?
a) Applies movement effects to slide objects
b) Formats text
c) Inserts images
d) Deletes slides
20. How do you save a presentation in Impress?
a) File > Close
b) File > Save
c) Tools > Save
d) View > Save
21. What is the shortcut for saving a presentation in Impress?
a) Ctrl + P
b) Ctrl + S
c) Ctrl + C
d) Ctrl + T
22. How can you insert a chart into a slide in Impress?
a) Edit > Insert Chart
b) Insert > Chart
c) View > Insert Chart
d) Tools > Chart
23. In Impress, what does the "Handout View" allow you to do?
a) Create printed handouts for a presentation
b) Edit slides
c) Delete slides
d) Format slides
24. What is the purpose of the "Outline View" in Impress?
a) Displays the slide titles and main points
b) Formats text
c) Inserts images
d) Deletes slides
25. How do you insert a hyperlink in a slide in Impress?
a) Tools > Hyperlink
b) View > Insert Hyperlink
c) Edit > Link
d) Insert > Hyperlink
26. In Impress, how do you apply a bullet list to text?
a) Format > Bullets
b) Slide > Bullets and Numbering
c) Edit > Bullets
d) View > Bullets
27. What does the "Slide Show Timer" feature do in Impress?
a) Formats slides
b) Sets automatic timing for each slide
c) Inserts animations
d) Edits text
28. How do you delete a slide in Impress?
a) Right-click on the slide and choose Delete Slide
b) Edit > Delete Slide
c) View > Delete Slide
d) Tools > Delete Slide
29. What is the purpose of "Slide Transitions" in Impress?
a) Adds visual effects between slides
b) Inserts images
c) Formats text
d) Deletes slides
30. In Impress, how do you format the slide layout?
a) View > Format Slide
b) Tools > Slide Layout
c) Slide > Layout
d) Edit > Layout
31. Which key is used to exit a slideshow in Impress?
a) F1
b) F5
c) Esc
d) Tab
32. How do you apply a template to a presentation in Impress?
a) File > Template
b) Slide > Change Master
c) View > Template
d) Tools > Template
33. What does the "Grid and Guides" feature do in Impress?
a) Helps align objects on the slide
b) Inserts a table
c) Formats text
d) Deletes slides
34. How do you change the slide size in Impress?
a) Tools > Slide Size
b) View > Slide Size
c) Slide > Page Setup
d) Edit > Slide Size
35. What is the purpose of the "Slide Notes" feature in Impress?
a) To insert images
b) To add notes for the speaker to reference during the presentation
c) To format the slide
d) To delete the slide
36. How can you hide a slide in Impress?
a) Slide > Hide Slide
b) View > Hide Slide
c) Tools > Hide Slide
d) Edit > Hide Slide
37. In Impress, how do you change the font size of text?
a) Format > Character
b) Slide > Font Size
c) View > Font Size
d) Tools > Font Size
38. What does the "Animation Pane" do in Impress?
a) Inserts slides
b) Allows you to manage animations on a slide
c) Formats text
d) Deletes slides
39. In Impress, how can you reorder animations on a slide?
a) Tools > Animation
b) Right-click animation > Reorder
c) Slide > Reorder Animations
d) View > Reorder
40. What is the purpose of the "Handouts" feature in Impress?
a) To format slides
b) To create printouts of slides for distribution
c) To delete slides
d) To edit slides
41. How do you insert a video into a slide in Impress?
a) Edit > Video
b) View > Insert Video
c) Tools > Video
d) Insert > Audio or Video
42. What does the "Slide Layout" feature do in Impress?
a) Deletes a slide
b) Arranges content on a slide
c) Formats text
d) Inserts animations
43. How can you insert a new slide in Impress?
a) Edit > New Slide
b) View > Insert Slide
c) Insert > Slide
d) Tools > New Slide
44. In Impress, how do you apply a design template to your presentation?
a) View > Design Template
b) Slide > Slide Design
c) Format > Design Template
d) Tools > Design Template
45. What is the purpose of the "Custom Slide Show" feature in Impress?
a) To insert slides
b) To create a personalized slide show with selected slides
c) To format text
d) To delete slides
46. How do you insert a table into a slide in Impress?
a) Edit > Insert Table
b) View > Table
c) Insert > Table
d) Tools > Table
47. In Impress, how do you add a hyperlink to text or an object?
a) Format > Link
b) Insert > Hyperlink
c) View > Hyperlink
d) Edit > Link
48. What does the "Slide Master" feature allow you to do in Impress?
a) Apply a consistent design to all slides
b) Insert images
c) Edit text
d) Delete slides
49. How do you duplicate a slide in Impress?
a) Edit > Copy Slide
b) Right-click slide > Duplicate Slide
c) Insert > Copy Slide
d) Tools > Duplicate
50. In Impress, how do you apply slide transitions?
a) Slide > Transition
b) View > Slide Transitions
c) Format > Transition
d) Edit > Slide Transitions

Syllabus:
Tux Paint and MS Paint
• Brushes, Tools, File extensions
• Paint tools, opening, saving, and creating files
• Working with images and photos in Paint

Tux Paint:
1. What is the default file extension for files saved in Tux Paint?
a) .jpg
b) .png
c) .bmp
d) .gif
2. Which tool is used to draw freehand shapes in Tux Paint?
a) Brush Tool
b) Line Tool
c) Shape Tool
d) Fill Tool
3. How can you select different brushes in Tux Paint?
a) Click on the Brushes icon and choose from the menu
b) Right-click on the canvas
c) Use the Line Tool
d) Press Ctrl + B
4. What is the purpose of the "Magic" tool in Tux Paint?
a) To apply special effects to drawings
b) To resize the canvas
c) To insert text
d) To open a new file
5. Which tool is used to fill a closed area with color in Tux Paint?
a) Brush Tool
b) Fill Tool
c) Line Tool
d) Text Tool
6. How do you open an existing file in Tux Paint?
a) Edit > Open
b) File > Open
c) Click on the Open icon on the toolbar
d) Press Ctrl + O
7. What does the "Stamp" tool do in Tux Paint?
a) Deletes the image
b) Inserts pre-designed images onto the canvas
c) Resizes the image
d) Fills the background
8. How can you undo an action in Tux Paint?
a) Press Ctrl + Z
b) Click on File > Undo
c) Click on the Undo icon on the toolbar
d) Use the Fill Tool
9. What is the use of the "Eraser" tool in Tux Paint?
a) To erase parts of the drawing
b) To fill colors
c) To draw shapes
d) To apply effects
10. In Tux Paint, which tool is used to create text on the canvas?
a) Line Tool
b) Text Tool
c) Shape Tool
d) Fill Tool
11. How do you save your work in Tux Paint?
a) Click the Save icon on the toolbar
b) Press Ctrl + S
c) File > Save As
d) Edit > Save
12. What is the default background when you start Tux Paint?
a) Blue
b) Red
c) White
d) Black
13. Which tool can be used to create shapes like circles and squares in Tux Paint?
a) Brush Tool
b) Shape Tool
c) Line Tool
d) Fill Tool
14. What happens when you use the "New" tool in Tux Paint?
a) It opens a blank canvas
b) It saves your work
c) It prints the document
d) It adds a new layer
15. What is the purpose of the "Print" tool in Tux Paint?
a) To open files
b) To print your drawing on paper
c) To resize the canvas
d) To apply effects
16. How do you select a different color in Tux Paint?
a) Click on the color palette at the bottom
b) Use the Brush Tool
c) Click on File > Color
d) Press Ctrl + C
17. Which tool in Tux Paint allows you to draw straight lines?
a) Shape Tool
b) Line Tool
c) Fill Tool
d) Magic Tool
18. What does the "Open" button do in Tux Paint?
a) Opens a previously saved drawing
b) Saves the current drawing
c) Deletes the drawing
d) Resizes the image
19. How can you rotate an object in Tux Paint?
a) Fill Tool
b) Line Tool
c) Magic Tool with the "Rotate" effect
d) Brush Tool
20. In Tux Paint, how can you resize the brush?
a) Click on the brush size selector below the color palette
b) Use the Line Tool
c) Click on the Resize Tool
d) Press Ctrl + B

MS Paint:

1. What is the default file extension for files saved in MS Paint?

a) .gif
b) .bmp
c) .png
d) .tiff
2. How can you draw a straight line in MS Paint?
a) Brush Tool
b) Line Tool
c) Fill Tool
d) Eraser
3. How do you save your work in MS Paint?
a) File > Save
b) Edit > Save
c) Press Ctrl + P
d) View > Save
4. Which tool is used to draw freehand shapes in MS Paint?
a) Pencil Tool
b) Line Tool
c) Shape Tool
d) Fill Tool
5. What does the "Fill with Color" tool do in MS Paint?
a) Draws straight lines
b) Fills a closed area with color
c) Deletes part of the image
d) Inserts a picture
6. How do you open an existing file in MS Paint?
a) File > Open
b) Edit > Open
c) Insert > Open
d) View > Open
7. Which tool in MS Paint allows you to erase parts of the drawing?
a) Fill Tool
b) Eraser Tool
c) Text Tool
d) Select Tool
8. How do you zoom in on an image in MS Paint?
a) Edit > Zoom
b) File > Zoom
c) View > Zoom
d) Tools > Zoom
9. What does the "Crop" tool do in MS Paint?
a) Removes unwanted areas of the image
b) Fills the image
c) Rotates the image
d) Zooms in
10. How do you insert text into an image in MS Paint?
a) View > Text
b) Edit > Text
c) Click on the Text Tool
d) File > Text
11. What happens when you use the "New" option in MS Paint?
a) It opens a blank canvas
b) It saves the image
c) It prints the image
d) It resizes the image
12. How can you change the background color in MS Paint?
a) Use the Pencil Tool
b) Use the Fill Tool
c) Use the Eraser Tool
d) Use the Shape Tool
13. Which of the following tools is used to create shapes in MS Paint?
a) Brush Tool
b) Shape Tool
c) Fill Tool
d) Line Tool
14. How do you undo an action in MS Paint?
a) File > Undo
b) Edit > Undo
c) Press Ctrl + Z
d) Press Ctrl + X
15. What is the use of the "Select" tool in MS Paint?
a) To draw shapes
b) To select a portion of the image
c) To fill the background
d) To zoom the image
16. Which file format does MS Paint support for saving transparent backgrounds?
a) .png
b) .bmp
c) .jpg
d) .gif
17. How do you print your work in MS Paint?
a) Press Ctrl + S
b) Press Ctrl + P
c) File > Save As
d) View > Print
18. How do you resize an image in MS Paint?
a) Click on Resize tool in the toolbar
b) Use the Eraser
c) Use the Fill Tool
d) Press Ctrl + R
19. What does the "Rotate" tool do in MS Paint?
a) Rotates the selected image or part of the image
b) Flips the image
c) Zooms the image
d) Crops the image
20. Which tool in MS Paint is used to create a circle?
a) Brush Tool
b) Shape Tool with Ellipse option
c) Line Tool
d) Text Tool

Working with Images and Photos in Paint:

1. How do you resize an image in MS Paint?

a) File > Resize
b) Edit > Resize
c) Click the Resize button on the toolbar
d) View > Resize
2. What does the "Crop" tool do in MS Paint?
a) Fills the background with color
b) Removes unwanted parts of the image
c) Resizes the image
d) Adds a border
3. How do you rotate an image in MS Paint?
a) Home > Rotate
b) View > Rotate
c) Edit > Rotate
d) Tools > Rotate
4. Which tool allows you to select a portion of an image to edit?
a) Pencil Tool
b) Select Tool
c) Brush Tool
d) Fill Tool
5. What happens when you flip an image horizontally in Paint?
a) The image becomes black and white
b) The image rotates 90 degrees
c) The image is mirrored from left to right
d) The image is stretched
6. How do you insert another image into your current image in MS Paint?
a) File > Open
b) Edit > Add Image
c) Home > Paste from
d) View > Insert
7. How can you adjust the size of a selected portion of an image in MS Paint?
a) Use the Pencil Tool
b) Drag the corners of the selected area
c) Click Fill Tool
d) Use the Eraser Tool
8. What does the "Invert Colors" feature do in MS Paint?
a) Changes the image to grayscale
b) Swaps the colors with their opposite on the color wheel
c) Increases the brightness of the image
d) Flips the image upside down
9. Which tool is used to draw freehand around an area to select it?
a) Free-Form Selection Tool
b) Rectangular Selection Tool
c) Magic Wand Tool
d) Pencil Tool
10. How do you remove the background from an image in MS Paint?
a) Use the Fill Tool
b) Use the Select Tool and choose "Transparent selection"
c) Use the Eraser Tool
d) Use the Resize Tool
11. How do you open a photo in MS Paint?
a) Home > Photo
b) File > Open
c) Edit > Open
d) View > Open
12. How can you increase the brightness of an image in MS Paint?
a) Edit > Brightness
b) View > Brightness
c) You need to use a third-party tool, as MS Paint does not have a brightness
adjustment
d) Home > Increase Brightness
13. Which tool helps you remove small imperfections from an image in Paint?
a) Eraser Tool
b) Fill Tool
c) Text Tool
d) Resize Tool
14. How can you rotate an image by 90 degrees in MS Paint?
a) View > Rotate
b) Edit > Rotate
c) Home > Rotate > Rotate 90 degrees
d) File > Rotate
15. How do you save an image with a different file format in MS Paint?
a) File > Export
b) File > Save As > Choose the format
c) Edit > Save As
d) View > Save As
16. What is the "Skew" tool used for in MS Paint?
a) To distort the image by slanting it horizontally or vertically
b) To crop the image
c) To flip the image
d) To zoom in on the image
17. How do you change the canvas size in MS Paint without affecting the image size?
a) Use the Resize Tool and uncheck "Maintain aspect ratio"
b) Use the Eraser Tool
c) Select the entire image and drag the edges
d) Use the Fill Tool
18. How do you zoom in on a specific part of an image in MS Paint?
a) Use the Eraser Tool
b) View > Zoom In
c) File > Zoom
d) Edit > Zoom
19. What does the "Set as Desktop Background" option do in MS Paint?
a) Saves the image
b) Sets the image as your computer's desktop wallpaper
c) Resizes the image
d) Crops the image
20. Which tool can you use to trace an image in MS Paint?
a) Fill Tool
b) Pencil Tool or Brush Tool
c) Text Tool
d) Resize Tool

Syllabus:
Scratch
• Tools
• Concept of sprite, Scratch window
• Blocks and shapes
• Screen layouts
• Sound, costumes and background
• File formats supported and used

Tools in Scratch:
1. What is the main tool used to control a sprite’s actions in Scratch?
a) Stage
b) Blocks
c) Scripts
d) Costumes
2. Which tool is used to create animations and control the look of sprites?
a) Costume Editor
b) Block Palette
c) Sound Editor
d) Stage
3. What tool in Scratch is used to manage the audio of a project?
a) Motion Blocks
b) Sound Editor
c) Looks Blocks
d) Control Blocks
4. Which tool allows you to add a new sprite to the stage in Scratch?
a) Sprite Library
b) Block Palette
c) Costume Editor
d) Script Area
5. Where can you create and edit custom blocks in Scratch?
a) Make a Block Tool
b) Stage
c) Backdrop Tool
d) Sound Editor
6. What is the purpose of the “Green Flag” button in Scratch?
a) Stop the script
b) Start the script
c) Save the project
d) Open a new sprite
7. Which tool is used to stop all scripts running in Scratch?
a) Green Flag
b) Script Area
c) Red Stop Button
d) Backdrop Tool
8. What does the "Backpack" tool do in Scratch?
a) Stores scripts, costumes, and sounds for reuse
b) Stores saved projects
c) Edits sprites
d) Adjusts sprite size
9. How can you delete a sprite in Scratch?
a) Press Ctrl + D
b) Right-click the sprite and select delete
c) Click the trash can icon next to the sprite
d) Drag the sprite off the stage
10. Which tool allows you to draw or edit a sprite's costume?
a) Block Palette
b) Sound Editor
c) Costume Editor
d) Script Area
11. How do you duplicate a sprite in Scratch?
a) Right-click and select "Duplicate"
b) Press Ctrl + D
c) Use the duplicate tool from the sprite menu
d) Drag the sprite and hold Shift
12. What is the purpose of the Stage tool in Scratch?
a) Displays the sprites and backgrounds
b) Stores scripts
c) Edits costumes
d) Adjusts the size of blocks
13. Where do you find the tools to control a sprite’s motion?
a) Looks Blocks
b) Sound Blocks
c) Motion Blocks
d) Control Blocks
14. What is the function of the "Zoom In" tool?
a) To make the sprite larger
b) To enlarge the view of the stage or workspace
c) To increase the speed of the script
d) To zoom in on the costume editor
15. Which tool allows you to record sounds directly in Scratch?
a) Sound Editor
b) Backdrop Tool
c) Stage
d) Script Area
16. What tool is used to organize scripts and blocks in Scratch?
a) Costume Editor
b) Script Area
c) Sprite Library
d) Backpack
17. How do you adjust the size of a sprite in Scratch?
a) Drag the sprite
b) Use the size tool in the sprite info pane
c) Edit in the Costume Editor
d) Resize the Stage
18. What tool is used to add a new backdrop to the stage?
a) Sprite Library
b) Backdrop Tool
c) Sound Editor
d) Script Area
19. Where are sound files managed in Scratch?
a) Sound Editor
b) Costume Editor
c) Stage
d) Script Area
20. How can you hide a sprite from appearing on the stage?
a) Use the "hide" block in the Looks category
b) Click on the sprite and select "Hide"
c) Erase the sprite in the Costume Editor
d) Press Ctrl + H

Concept of Sprite, Scratch Window:

1. What is a sprite in Scratch?
a) A type of sound
b) A character or object that performs actions
c) A block of code
d) A background image
2. Where are sprites displayed in the Scratch interface?
a) Script Area
b) Stage
c) Backpack
d) Block Palette
3. What is the role of the stage in Scratch?
a) To store blocks
b) To display sprites and backdrops
c) To edit costumes
d) To adjust sound settings
4. How can you create a new sprite in Scratch?
a) Choose a sprite from the sprite library or create a custom one
b) Click on the Green Flag
c) Use the Stage tool
d) Click on the Red Stop button
5. What does the Script Area contain?
a) Sound and Costume settings
b) The blocks and scripts controlling the sprite's actions
c) Sprites and backdrops
d) The backdrop editor
6. Which part of the Scratch window allows you to select different blocks to create
your scripts?
a) Stage
b) Block Palette
c) Sprite Library
d) Backpack
7. What is the costume of a sprite?
a) A sound effect associated with the sprite
b) The appearance or look of the sprite
c) A block that controls the sprite’s movement
d) The background of the stage
8. How do you switch between different sprites in the Scratch window?
a) Use the Stage
b) Click on the desired sprite in the Sprite List
c) Press Ctrl + Tab
d) Use the Backdrop tool
9. What happens when you click the Green Flag in Scratch?
a) All scripts marked to start on the green flag run
b) It saves the project
c) It opens the sprite editor
d) It clears the stage
10. What is the default sprite when you start a new Scratch project?
a) Cat
b) A cat sprite
c) A dog
d) A ball
11. What is the Backpack used for in Scratch?
a) To save the project
b) To store reusable scripts, costumes, or sounds
c) To record sounds
d) To manage the sprites
12. How do you change the backdrop in a Scratch project?
a) Use the Backdrop tool under the Stage
b) Click on the Sprite List
c) Use the Costume Editor
d) Change the color in the Block Palette
13. What is the sprite list?
a) A list of all the backdrops
b) A list of all sounds used in the project
c) A list of all sprites in the project
d) A list of all costumes for a sprite
14. How can you duplicate a sprite in Scratch?
a) Click on File > Duplicate
b) Right-click on the sprite and select "duplicate"
c) Press Ctrl + D
d) Click on the Green Flag
15. What is a project in Scratch?
a) A sound file
b) A collection of sprites, scripts, and backdrops
c) A single sprite
d) A block of code
16. How do you hide a sprite from the stage?
a) Delete the sprite
b) Use the "hide" block from the Looks category
c) Use the Erase Tool
d) Use the "go to back" block
17. What does a backdrop represent in Scratch?
a) The block palette
b) A sprite's sound
c) The background image of the stage
d) A script that runs when the Green Flag is clicked
18. What is the size of a sprite in Scratch?
a) The length of its script
b) The visual dimensions of the sprite on the stage
c) The number of blocks in the sprite
d) The volume of its sound
19. Which option lets you change the color of a sprite?
a) Use the Sound Editor
b) Edit the sprite in the Costume Editor
c) Use the Block Palette
d) Change the background color
20. How do you move a sprite to a specific position on the stage?
a) Click on the Stage
b) Use the "Green Flag"
c) Use the Motion blocks to set the x and y coordinates
d) Use the Costume Editor

Blocks and Shapes in Scratch:

1. What are blocks in Scratch used for?
a) To create scripts that control the actions of sprites
b) To edit costumes
c) To add sounds to the stage
d) To adjust the sprite's size
2. Which category of blocks is used to control the movement of sprites?
a) Looks
b) Events
c) Motion
d) Control
3. What is the shape of control blocks in Scratch?
a) Circular
b) Square
c) C-shaped
d) Hexagonal
4. Which blocks are used to perform looping actions in Scratch?
a) Control blocks
b) Motion blocks
c) Events blocks
d) Sound blocks
5. What is the purpose of the "repeat" block?
a) To change the sprite's costume
b) To repeat a sequence of actions a set number of times
c) To stop all scripts
d) To delete a sprite
6. Which block is used to broadcast a message in Scratch?
a) Sound blocks
b) Events blocks
c) Motion blocks
d) Sensing blocks
7. What shape are the motion blocks in Scratch?
a) Stackable rectangular blocks
b) Circular blocks
c) Hat-shaped blocks
d) Hexagonal blocks
8. Which type of block initiates a script?
a) Hat block
b) C-shaped block
c) Cap block
d) Stack block
9. What is the function of the pen blocks in Scratch?
a) To control sounds
b) To draw on the stage
c) To edit costumes
d) To move sprites
10. Which shape do sensing blocks have?
a) Circular
b) C-shaped
c) Hexagonal and oval-shaped
d) Hat-shaped
11. What block shape is used to control the sprite’s direction?
a) Hat block
b) Stack block
c) C-shaped block
d) Cap block
12. What do operator blocks in Scratch help you do?
a) Change the sprite’s color
b) Perform mathematical operations
c) Add sounds
d) Control motion
13. What shape do Boolean blocks have in Scratch?
a) Square
b) Circular
c) Hexagonal
d) C-shaped
14. Which block would you use to make a sprite wait for 1 second?
a) Motion blocks
b) Looks blocks
c) Control blocks
d) Operator blocks
15. What does the “forever” block do in Scratch?
a) Repeats a set of actions infinitely
b) Stops the script
c) Plays a sound continuously
d) Edits the sprite's costume
16. What is the role of "if-else" blocks in Scratch?
a) To control sound
b) To create decision-making in scripts
c) To loop actions
d) To move sprites
17. Which block is used to check if the sprite is touching another sprite?
a) Motion block
b) Events block
c) Sensing block
d) Control block
18. How do operator blocks help in creating logic?
a) By adding sounds
b) By performing comparisons and calculations
c) By changing costumes
d) By playing sound effects
19. What shape do variable blocks take in Scratch?
a) Circular
b) Rectangular
c) Hat-shaped
d) C-shaped
20. What is the purpose of "cap blocks" in Scratch?
a) To create costumes
b) To stop a script from running
c) To move sprites
d) To loop a script

Screen Layouts in Scratch:

1. Where is the stage located in the Scratch window?
a) Top-right corner
b) Bottom-left corner
c) Bottom-right corner
d) Top-left corner
2. Which part of the Scratch interface is used to drag blocks for building scripts?
a) Stage
b) Script Area
c) Block Palette
d) Sprite List
3. Where can you view and manage all the sprites in a Scratch project?
a) Stage
b) Sprite List
c) Backpack
d) Block Palette
4. What is the Backpack used for in the Scratch layout?
a) Storing reusable scripts, costumes, or sounds
b) Adding new sprites
c) Editing sounds
d) Managing backdrops
5. What is the Backdrop Tool in the Scratch layout?
a) A tool to control sounds
b) A tool to manage the stage's background
c) A tool to add sprites
d) A tool to create scripts
6. What is displayed on the stage in Scratch?
a) The list of blocks
b) The sprites and backgrounds
c) The scripts
d) The costumes
7. Where is the Block Palette located in Scratch?
a) Top-right corner
b) Middle-left side of the screen
c) Bottom-right corner
d) Bottom-left corner
8. What does the script area display in Scratch?
a) Sprites
b) Scripts created with blocks
c) Sounds
d) Backdrops
9. What does the costume tab allow you to edit?
a) Sounds
b) Backdrops
c) The appearance of the sprite
d) The motion of the sprite
10. How can you add a new sprite in Scratch?
a) Edit the Stage
b) Use the "Choose a Sprite" button
c) Add a new block
d) Record a sound
11. What is the function of the Green Flag on the Scratch screen?
a) To start all scripts associated with the Green Flag
b) To save the project
c) To add a new sprite
d) To duplicate a sprite
12. Where is the Sound Tab located in the Scratch window?
a) Block Palette
b) Sprite List
c) Next to the Costume Tab
d) Stage
13. What is the function of the Sprite Info Pane in Scratch?
a) To edit the scripts
b) To adjust the sprite's size, rotation, and visibility
c) To change the backdrop
d) To edit the blocks
14. How do you zoom in on the Scratch interface?
a) Use the Green Flag
b) Click the Zoom In button in the toolbar
c) Press the spacebar
d) Use the Backpack
15. Where can you find the coordinates of a sprite on the Scratch screen?
a) Block Palette
b) Sprite Info Pane
c) Sound Tab
d) Costume Editor
16. What is the purpose of the "Go to Front" block in Scratch?
a) Moves a block to the front of the script
b) Moves a sprite to the front layer on the stage
c) Saves the project
d) Edits the sprite's costume
17. What does the "Sounds" section in Scratch allow you to do?
a) Record, edit, and manage sounds for the project
b) Adjust the sprite's motion
c) Change the costume's color
d) Delete the sprite
18. What is the default backdrop in a new Scratch project?
a) Black
b) Blue
c) White
d) Green
19. How do you change the stage’s background in Scratch?
a) Use the Motion blocks
b) Click on the Script Area
c) Use the Backdrop Tool
d) Edit the sprite's costume
20. What is displayed in the "Preview" section of Scratch?
a) The script
b) The block palette
c) A preview of the stage and sprites in real-time
d) The sprite's costume

Sound, Costumes, and Background in Scratch:

1. What file format is commonly used for audio files in Scratch?

a) .txt
b) .bmp
c) .mp3
d) .gif
2. How can you add sound effects to a Scratch project?
a) By using the pen tool
b) By clicking the Sounds tab and uploading a sound
c) By drawing on the stage
d) By using the costume editor
3. Which of the following is a way to record your own sound in Scratch?
a) Using the record button in the Sounds tab
b) Importing a video file
c) Drawing with the brush tool
d) Adding a new sprite
4. What can you do in the Costumes tab of a sprite?
a) Edit sounds
b) Change the sprite’s appearance
c) Add scripts
d) Adjust the stage backdrop
5. Which file format is NOT supported for sprite costumes in Scratch?
a) .png
b) .jpg
c) .bmp
d) .exe
6. How can you switch between costumes of a sprite during a project?
a) By using the next costume block
b) By changing the backdrop
c) By adjusting the sound volume
d) By drawing a new costume
7. What is the purpose of the "Stop All Sounds" block in Scratch?
a) To change the background
b) To stop all currently playing sounds
c) To erase sprite costumes
d) To save the project
8. Which block would you use to play a specific sound in Scratch?
a) Play sound [sound name]
b) Stop sound
c) Change volume
d) Record sound
9. What happens when you click on the Sounds tab in Scratch?
a) You can change the sprite's costume
b) You can manage sounds associated with the sprite
c) You can create scripts
d) You can adjust the stage layout
10. Which of the following is true about backgrounds in Scratch?
a) You can only use one background per project
b) You can add multiple backgrounds and switch between them
c) Backgrounds cannot be edited
d) Backgrounds are the same as sprites
11. How can you upload a new background to your Scratch project?
a) By drawing it in the Sprite tab
b) By clicking on the Backdrops tab and uploading an image
c) By using the Sounds tab
d) By modifying existing sprites
12. What is the function of the "Set Volume" block?
a) To record sounds
b) To adjust the playback volume of sounds
c) To change the sprite’s costume
d) To stop all sounds
13. Which tool allows you to edit existing sounds in Scratch?
a) Costume editor
b) Sound editor
c) Sprite editor
d) Block editor
14. What type of files can be used as background images in Scratch?
a) .wav
b) .mp3
c) .jpg
d) .txt
15. How can you make a sprite play a sound when clicked?
a) By adding a backdrop
b) By using the "when this sprite clicked" block
c) By using the pen tool
d) By changing its costume
16. What file extension is commonly used for video files that cannot be used in
Scratch?
a) .mp3
b) .wav
c) .mp4
d) .ogg
17. Which Scratch feature allows for the creation of interactive sounds?
a) Backdrop editor
b) Sound blocks
c) Costume editor
d) Pen tool
18. How can you delete a sound from your Scratch project?
a) Right-click and select delete
b) Click the "X" next to the sound in the Sounds tab
c) Use the erase tool
d) Change the backdrop
19. What does the "Change Volume" block do?
a) Adjusts the backdrop
b) Modifies the current volume level
c) Stops all sounds
d) Changes sprite costumes
20. What happens to a sound file when you save a Scratch project?
a) It gets deleted
b) It gets saved along with the project
c) It cannot be used again
d) It is converted to a video file

File Formats Supported and Used in Scratch:

1. Which image format is not supported in Scratch for costumes?

a) .png
b) .gif
c) .svg
d) .jpg
2. What file format does Scratch use for imported sound files?
a) .wav
b) .ogg
c) .mp3
d) All of the above
3. Which file format is used for backdrops in Scratch?
a) .txt
b) .jpg
c) .exe
d) .html
4. What is the primary purpose of using the .wav file format in Scratch?
a) For sprites
b) For high-quality audio
c) For backgrounds
d) For text files
5. What does the .mp3 file format offer for sound in Scratch?
a) Lossless quality
b) Compressed sound files
c) Video compatibility
d) No support in Scratch
6. Which of the following formats is NOT compatible with Scratch?
a) .png
b) .mp3
c) .pdf
d) .jpg
7. What file format can you NOT use for your sprite costumes in Scratch?
a) .gif
b) .jpeg
c) .docx
d) .bmp
8. What format is used to support animated GIFs in Scratch?
a) .mp3
b) .gif
c) .png
d) .bmp
9. Which file format allows you to save high-resolution images for costumes in
Scratch?
a) .gif
b) .png
c) .mp3
d) .txt
10. What happens to the quality of audio when using the .mp3 format in Scratch?
a) Quality is reduced for smaller file sizes
b) Quality remains the same
c) It becomes a video file
d) It is unplayable
11. What type of file should you avoid when importing to Scratch?
a) .png
b) .jpg
c) .exe
d) .mp3
12. How can you export sounds from Scratch?
a) Only as .mp3 files
b) Directly through the Sound tab
c) It is not possible
d) As .jpg files
13. What is the correct file extension for a JPEG image in Scratch?
a) .png
b) .jpg
c) .gif
d) .bmp
14. Which of the following is a common audio file format in Scratch?
a) .svg
b) .txt
c) .wav
d) .html
15. What does Scratch do when a non-supported file format is uploaded?
a) Displays an error message
b) Converts it to a compatible format
c) Automatically deletes it
d) Adds it to the project anyway
16. How can you ensure the best quality for background images?
a) Use .mp3 files
b) Use .png files
c) Use .gif files
d) Use .exe files
17. What file type is preferred for sprites in Scratch?
a) .mp4
b) .png
c) .doc
d) .zip
18. When importing a sound file, what should you consider?
a) The file size
b) The file format
c) The length of the sound
d) All of the above
19. What type of files can you not upload to Scratch?
a) Images
b) Sounds
c) Executable files
d) Text files
20. Which of the following file formats is not typically used in Scratch projects?
a) .jpg
b) .png
c) .doc
d) .mp3

All the Best!