BATCH 9

BOARD EXAM TRIAL ON

CRIME DETECTION AND INVESTIGATION
Prepared by: Sharra Mei Mahinay

CI AND INTELLIGENCE Prosecutorial b. Extra judicial d. Admission

1. It deals with the identity, location and arrest of a person who 9. After apprising him of his rights under Republic Act 7438, Gino
commits a crime and simultaneously identify, collect, preserve Aquino was invited and interrogated for the crime of murder. He
and evaluate evidence for the purpose of bringing criminal executed an extra-judicial confession acknowledging his guilt to
offender to justice. the crime charged. What is the effect of such confession to his
a. Investigation c. Investigative process b. Criminal case?
investigation d. Criminal inquest a. It can be used as evidence against him
b. He will be convicted for the crime of murder
2. After identifying, collecting and preserving information c. He waived his rights to prove his innocence
gathered about the crime, the investigator shall d. His case will prosper
_______________ such information to determine whether it can
stand prosecution and trial. 10. Which of the following is not an element of corpus delicti?
a. Recognize c. Preserve b. Collect d. Evaluate a. Proof of the occurrence of certain event
b. Person’s criminal responsibility for the acts
3. Which of the following is not one of the forms of information c. Additional evidence of a different character to the same
the investigator obtained from regular, cultivated or grapevine point
sources? d. Proper chain of custody
a. Sensory c. Concrete b. Written d. Physical forms
11. An act or declaration made in the presence and within the
4. Through this tool of criminal investigation tangible things may hearing or observation of a party who does or says nothing, when
be used to detect crimes, identify the criminals, facilitate, and the act or declaration naturally calls for action if comment is not
assist the investigator in its task in achieving the objectives of true.
criminal investigation. a. Admission by Silence c. Admission b. Res inter alios acta d.
a. Information c. Instrumentation b. Criminalistics d. Negative pregnant
Interview/Interrogation
12. In this process, written confession of the accused is used as
5. Which phase of criminal Investigation will the investigator a script in describing events of the crime. This strengthens the
apprise the person of his rights under Republic Act 7438? a. prosecutor’s case and serves to convince the judge that the
During the identification of criminal offender accused was not maltreated nor affected by sinister psychological
b. During the arrest, detention and interrogation of the influence.
offender a. Mental reconstruction c. Reconstruction b. Crime
c. During the gathering of evidence to prove the guilt of criminal reenactment d. Physical reconstruction
offender
d. During police line-up 13. Statement no. 1. Confession is a voluntary statement, either
oral or written, made by a person charged with the commission
6. What specific offense has been committed? Who committed it? of a crime which he admits participation in, or commission of, the
When was it committed? Where was it committed? Why was it criminal act. It cannot be implied. It should be direct and positive
committed? And how was it committed? These are called the acknowledgment of guilt.
_______________________ of criminal investigation. Statement no. 2 Admission is a statement by the accused
a. Cardinal Points c. Golden Rule regarding facts pertinent to the crime. It tends, in connection with
b. Three I’s d. Bridges burned the proof of other facts, to prove the suspect’s guilt. It can be
implied.
7. One of the stages of criminal investigation is the identification a. Statement No. 1 is true while statement no. 2 is false
of criminals, which can be done in any or a combination of the b. Statement No. 1 is false while statement no. 2 is true
following, except: c. Statements No. 1 and 2 are both true
a. By confession or admission by the criminal d. Statements No. 1 and 2 are both false
b. By corpus delicti
c. By circumstantial evidence 14. Which of the following need not be present in order to prove
d. By eyewitness the guilt of the accused by means of confession or admission? a.
Confession must be supported by corroborative evidence b.
Corpus delicti must be established separately
8. Coerced and uncounseled statements are considered
involuntary or forced confessions which are usually: a. Judicial c. c. Confession must be voluntarily and freely given

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d. Confession must be ratified by the judge or the fiscal a. Verbal Description and Rogue’s Gallery
b. General Photographs and Cartographic Sketch
15. Assume that you are an investigator who investigates a c. Police Line-up
murder case perpetrated by an unknown suspect. A person in the d. Systematic interview that may lead to the identity of a
name of Ruel, a call center agent, saw the crime and he is willing known criminals
to identify the suspect. Which of the following methods will you
not utilize to establish the identity of the suspect? 16. You are an investigator of a suspected rape-slaying case
which was allegedly witnessed by a certain person who scene. What are the components of the crime scene situation
volunteered to identify and testify against the perpetrator. What which you would analyze?
are the factors that you should not consider to determine the a. The suspect’s arrival at the scene and place of entry b.
accuracy of his identification of the suspect? Movement of the suspect from point of entry and his contact with
a. His ability to observe and remember the distinct appearance of the victim
the suspect c. The suspect’s place of exit
b. The prevailing conditions of visibility and observation when the d. All of the above
crime was committed
c. His state of mind when he witnessed the commission of 25. What is the type of reasoning in which the collected
the crime information is analyzed carefully to develop a theory of the crime.
d. The lapse of time between the criminal event and when a. Inductive c. Systematic b. Deductive d. Logical
identification was made
26. Statement no. 1. In the reconstruction of a crime, the
17. Circumstantial Evidence is evidence that indirectly proves a investigator’s rational theory of the crime may begin with
fact in issue through an inference which fact-finder draws from deductive logic and later on inductive logic;
the evidence presented. It is sufficient to produce the conviction Statement no. 2. A rational theory of crime is more than a learned
of the accused if: guess, but less than certainty and has very high order of
a. There are more than one circumstances present b. The facts probability.
from which the inferences derived are proven c. The combination a. Statement no. 1 is true while statement no. 2 is false
of all the circumstances is such as to produce a conviction b. Statement no. 1 is false while statement no. 2 is true
beyond reasonable doubt c. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both true
d.All of the above d. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both false

18. You are an investigator who investigates an alleged robbery 27. Statement no. 1. In Physical of reconstruction, the physical
with homicide case perpetrated by an unknown suspect. Since appearance of the crime scene is reconstructed from the
there are no witnesses to the crime, the following may give you a description of the witnesses and the indication of the physical
hint to identify the suspect, except one: evidence.
a. Motive and opportunity Statement no. 2. In mental reconstruction after physical
b. Declaration and acts indicative of guilt, preparation for a reconstruction, conclusions are made about the consistency of the
commission of crime and possession of fruits of a crime of the accounts of the various witnesses. No assumption is made without
perpetrator supporting evidence.
c. Modus Operandi, associative evidence and criminal potentiality a. Statement no. 1 is correct
d. Knowledge, skills, tools or facilities that could easily be b. Statement no. 2 is incorrect
adopted to criminal use by the suspect c. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both correct
d. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both incorrect
19. A person who, by social or professional position possesses or
has access to information of continuing interest, willingly provides 28. After reconstructing the crime scene, the following are the
information to the police either in response to a specific request minimal requirements to be observed by the investigator to insure
or his own initiative. admissibility of photographs in court:
a. Incidental informant c. Automatic informant b. Casual a. The object which is represented should not be immaterial or
informant d. Recruited informant irrelevant
b. The photograph should not unduly incite prejudice and
20. Covert observation of a person, place, or things by human or sympathy
technical means to acquire information. c. The photograph should be free from distortion
a. Surveillance c. Mobile b. Stationary surveillance d. d. All of the above
Technical
29. Republic Act No. 7438 defines immediate members of the
21. In this method of shadowing, operatives are stationed at a family are as follows, except:
fixed point assuming that subject follows the same general route a. Spouse, fiancé/fiancée, parents, child, brother or sister b.
each day. Grandparents, grandson/daughter, great
a. ABC Method c. Combined Foot- Auto Surveillance granddaughter/grandson
b. Leap Frog Method d. None of the above c. Uncle, aunt, guardian, ward
d. Relatives, intimate friends and best friends
22. This is also called “roping”, an investigation technique in
which the operative conceals his true identity and adopts an 30. The interview of a witness can be described by the acronym
assumed role to obtain information or accomplish a specific IRONIC, which stands for:
mission. a. Undercover assignment c. Work assignment and a. Inquiry, Recognition, Organization, Novelty, Identity,
social assignment Continuity
b. Dwelling assignment d. Personal contact assignment b. Identity, Rapport, Omnipresent, Narration, Inquiry, Conclusion
23. You are an investigator tasked to investigate a suspected c. Identity, Recognition, Opening statement, Narration, Inquiry,
murder case which the there is no known suspect, no witnesses Conclusion
nor any other circumstantial evidence, except physical evidence. d. Identity, Rapport, Opening statement, Narration,
Where can you get these pieces of evidence that may lead you to Inquiry, Conclusion
the identity of the suspect?
a. The Crime Scene c. The Suspect b. The Victim d. All of 31. Which one is not a means of recording crime a scene?
the above a. By photographs c. By sketches
b. By notes d. Surveying
24. You were an investigator who tries to reconstruct the crime

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32. Application of all procedures for the search of missing b. Corruption of investigator
persons. a. Rogues gallery c. manhunt c. Non-maintenance of chain of custody
b. Tracing d. order of battle d. A and C are true

33. Physical evidence are contaminated, altered of shape, 34. Statement No. 1- The systematic procedure for verbal
damaged or lost because of: description of a person after a short period of visual observation
a. Improper packaging is termed Portrait Parle;
Statement No. 2- Description of police characters which a witness declaration?
may refer and that is kept by police unit for purpose of references a. Observe the victim as to whether he is manifesting a feeling of
is Rogue’s Gallery his impending death
a. Statement No. 1 is correct while statement No. 2 is incorrect b. Observe carefully the mental condition of the victim and jot
b. Statement No. 2 is correct while statement 1 is incorrect c. down immediately his statements
Statement No.1 and 2 are both correct c. Attempt to save the life of the victim
d. Statement No.1 and 2 are both incorrect d. Avoid leading questions and produce the statement.

35. Statement no. 1-Tagging of physical evidence aside from the 42. This is known as the Anti-Hazing Law:
marking should be made immediately after receipt by the A. RA 8049 C. RA 3553 B. RA 4200 D. RA 7877
evidence custodian
Statement no. 2- Marking or labeling of physical evidence should 43. The notion which declares that human behavior tends to
be made at the crime scene upon collection. a. Statement repeat itself, can serve as basis of the investigator in determining:
No. 1 is correct A. Criminal behavior C. Nature of the crime B. Modus operandi
b. Statement No. 2 is correct D. Criminal intent
c. Statement No.1 and 2 are both correct
d. Statement No.1 and 2 are both incorrect 44. This is the first that an investigator must do upon his arrival
at the scene of the crime:
Statement no. 1 -Any physical evidence obtained A. Secure the crime scene C. Interview of witness
must tagged BEFORE its submission to the evidence B. Taking a picture D. Attend to emergency
custodian.
Statement No. 2-Marking or labeling of physical 45. It is one of the oldest methods of suspect identification:
evidence should be made after tagging the A. Cartographic sketch C. Rouge’s gallery B. Composite D.
evidence. Police lineup

36. Under Republic Act 7438, when does the police custody of 46. You are Criminologist-Police Commissioned Officer who leads
suspect to a crime commence, hence the latter is entitled to be the execution of a valid search warrant. Who must be present
informed of his rights under the Miranda doctrine which cannot when a valid search warrant is conducted on a domicile? A. The
be waived? house owner
a. At the time of custodial investigation B. Any member of the house owner’s family
b. During the actual questioning C. Two witnesses residing in the same community
c. During the announcement that he is under arrest d. At D. All of the above
the moment that he is invited for questioning
47. In Exclusionary Rules on Evidence, evidence obtained in
37. What is the principal psychological factor that contributes to a violation of any of these is inadmissible, except one. a. Rights
successful interrogation? against unreasonable search and seizures b. Right to privacy and
a. Privacy communication and correspondence c. In-custodial investigation
b. Rapport between the interrogator and the subject rights and right against self incrimination
c. Legality d. Right to counsel
d. It should be done in the interrogation room with one way mirror
48. A case wherein the violation of law or ordinances has just
38. Statement no. 1- In spiral method of search, the searchers been unearthed or discovered and the suspect and witness are
gather at the center, and proceed outward along radius or spokes. still emotionally affected, upset, or shocked.
Statement no. 2- In wheel method, the searchers follow each a. Hot case c. In flagrante delicto case
other along the path of a spiral, beginning on the outside and b. Cold case d. Hot pursuit case
spiraling toward the center.
a. Statement No. 1 is correct 49. This law is known as the “ Rape Victim Assistance and
b. Statement No. 2 is incorrect protection Act of 1998”.
c. Statements No.1 and 2 are both correct a. RA 9745 c. RA 6539
d. Statements No.1 and 2 are both incorrect b. RA 8505 d. RA 7832

39. “Eavesdropping the crime scene” means: 50. Why does the dead body of the victim of violence need to be
a. Extent the estimate of the scene photographed after its removal from the crime scene? a. To have
b. Search physical evidence at the scene a set of view showing the relationship of the body with the
c. Playing the role of a curious spectator and mix with the surrounding
crowd to listen to their conversation b. To identify the victim and have close-up picture of the
d. None of the above wounds
c. To provide reserve picture in case of loss or damage
40. Criminal investigative activities virtually deals with: a. d. All of the above
Recognition and collection of facts which may be sensory,
documentary and physical forms 51. The photographs to be taken at the scene of the crime are
b. Preservation and evaluation of information gathered from the the following, except:
regular, cultivated and grapevine sources a. Over-All and environment’s photograph
c. Persons and things b. Photographs of articles of evidence and photographs of the
d. A and B only deceased
c. Photographs of the scene of the crime operatives
41. You are a police officer responding to a crime which there is a showing their identity
dying person. You will obtain dying declaration from him. Which d. Special technique photographs of the body after removal
of the following is not one of your duties in regard to dying

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52. It supplements photographs of the crime scene and 53. In searching for physical evidence at the crime scene, the
considered to be the simplest and the most effective way of following types of search could be used depending upon locale,
showing actual measurements and of identifying significant items number of personnel available, type of object sought and speed
of evidence in their location at the scene. desired, except:
a. Crime scene sketch c. Finished sketch b. Rough sketch a. Strip and double strip or grid search
d. Direction sketch b. Zone search
c. Rectangular and circular search the same condition..
d. Spiral and wheel search
Pero syempre ung sa PRC ang susundin natin
54. Which of the following must be done to maintain the physical
integrity of evidence? Kaya kung ganito ang maencounter nyo na tanong ung may
EXCEPT. Letter A na po ang isasagot nyo .
a. Evidence must be photographed and packaged
b. Evidence must be properly documented
c. Maintain its chain of custody 58. Which of the following is not one of the questioning
d. Identify, tag and seal the evidence techniques that should be utilized in interrogation? a.
Chronological c. Going backward b. General to specific d. Going
55. Which of the following must be done to maintain the legal upward
integrity of evidence?
a. Evidenced must be properly documented 59. In questioning a witness, the ideal type of written statement
b. Maintain its chain of custody is:
c. Identify, tag and seal the evidence a. Narrative type because it is easier and will be short b.
d. Photographed and packaged the evidence Question and answer because it provides details of acts c.
Combination of the two
56. The methodology involving the systematic searching, d. Your convenient type
handling, distribution and accountability of all evidence found at
the crime scene, including the documentation of every article of 60. Jessie was invited by the NBI operatives to answer questions
evidence from the point of initial discovery at the scene, to its pertinent to the murder case being investigated. After the
collection and transport to the point of examination, its temporary questioning at the NBI Headquarters however, he was held for
storage and its final disposal is referred to us. further questioning and considered him a suspect already.
a. Corpus delicti c. Blotter b. Necropsy report d. Chain of Persons who can visit him are as follow, except:
custody a. Lovers, friends and countrymen
b. Immediate member of his family
57. To prove the chain of custody of evidence, the following must c. Any medical doctor, priest or religious minister
be demonstrated, except: d. Personnel of the C.H.R.
a. The evidence must be free from alteration,
contamination and switching 61. Crimes involving destruction of life, except:
b. The evidence offered is the same evidence found at the scene a. Mutilation serious physical injuries and rape
c. There is no opportunity to replace or improperly alter the b. Duel, abortion and infanticide
evidence c. Homicide and murder
d. Any change in the condition of the evidence can be explained d. Parricide

PS. FORDA STORYA MUNA 62. Vincent killed his adopter after the rendition of judgment of
the petition for adoption. What was the crime committed by
May lumabas na tanong sa board ganito ang tanong Vincent?
a. Parricide c. Homicide b. Murder d. None of the
HOW CAN CHAIN OF CUSTODY OF EVIDENCE BE PROVEN IN
above
COURT PROCEEDINGS?

A. Any change in the condition of the evidence can be 63. Principles in homicide investigation that should be borne in
explained mind are that mistakes of the homicide investigator cannot be
B. The evidence offered is the same evidence found at corrected and the homicide investigator should not cross the three
the scene bridges which he burns behind him. Which of the following is not
C. There is no opportunity to replace or improperly alter one of the so called “Burned bridges”?
the evidence a. When the dead person has been moved
D. All of these b. When the dead body has been embalmed
c. When the dead body has been contaminated and the
Kita nyo naman lahat ng nasa choices ay positive kaya ang chain of custody was not properly accounted d. When the
sagot dito All of these. Therefore, kabilang si “A. Any body is burned or cremated
change in the condition of the evidence can be explained” -
to prove chain of custody 64. This is considered to be the beginning of any homicide
investigation.
Actually, last year ang sagot ng ARC jan “Any change in the a. Process of establishing the accurate cause of death
condition of evidence can be explained”→ so ito ang hindi b. Process of determining who is responsible for the death c
kabilang. Process of determining how the victim was killed d. Process
of determining when the victim was killed
May explanation dun kung bat D ang naging sagot namin. Kasi
ung probative value nung evidence pwedeng maapektuhan
65. In a case of dead person, when should autopsy be
kapag nagkaroon ng pagbabago sa condition ng evidence.
performed? a. Death has been caused by violence
But then kung iaapply natin in real life possible nga naman na b. At once, when there is the slightest reason to suspect
pasok sya kasi Hindi maiiwasan un as long as di nasira ung the probability of homicide
evidentiary value and kaya mo naman maexplain. c. Upon the request of the dead person’s family
Nakuha ko yan sa GALLEGO V. UNITED STATES Kasi wlaa d. In all cases involving death
akong makita dito sa Philippines
66. Which of the following is the primary role of the investigator
-according to them same condition pa rin dpaat upon arrival at the homicide scene?
a. Verification of the victim’s death
But this is contrary sa sinabi ni McCormick - Still admissible pa b. Identification of the person who is responsible for the death
rin daw ang evidence even though the evidence is not in exactly c. Call a physician for the proper declaration of death

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d. All of the above nervous system activity is no longer performing within the body
d. All of the above
67. Legally, when does death considered to have occurred? a.
Respiratory system is no longer performing within the body b. 68. You were a police officer who responded in a violent crime
Cardiac activity is no longer performing within the body c. Central just recently occurred. How would you determine signs of death?
a. By detecting signs of breathing and respiratory movement b. stopping of a mental organ function of a person to be medically
By hearing heart sounds “dead”?
c. By applying pressure in the fingernails of a person A. cardiac C. central nervous
d. Any of the above B. respiratory D. digestive

69. The following are the uses of physical evidence, except: 79. Identification of a dead body through examination of the
a. Determine the cause of crime teeth:
b. Reconstruct the crime A. Forensic pathology C. Forensic odontology
c. Identify the participants B. Forensic chemistry D. Forensic medicine
d. Confirm or discredit an alibi
80. This is known as the Anti-Plunder Act:
70. In order to introduce physical evidence in trial, three A. RA 7080 C. RA 7610 B. RA 10054 D. RA 3019
important factors may be considered, except:
a. The article must be properly identified 81. Which of the following is not a crime against persons?
b. Continuity or chain of custody A. Physical injury C. Abduction
c. Legality of the procurement B. Mutilation D. Parricide
d. Competency must be proved, that the evidence is material and
relevant 82. Which of the following is not one of the acts of committing
violation of domicile?
71. Evidence of violence characterized by the removal of the A. Searching domicile without witness
superficial epithelial layer of the skin brought about by the friction B. Search warrants maliciously obtained and abuse in the service
against a hard rough surface. of search warrant
a. Contusion c. Patterned wound b. Abrasions d. C. Search of the domicile without warrant
Hematoma D. Entering a dwelling against the will of the owner, searching
documents, papers and effects without the previous consent of
72. Statement no. 1-The admissibility of dying declaration is not the owner or refusing to leave having surreptitiously entered a
dependent on it being made in any particular form. Statement no. dwelling when required by the owner
2- Dying declaration has no definite form required and need not
be under oath. 83. Senior Police Officer II Melendez and Police Officer I Castillo
a. Statement no. 1 is true arrested and detained Jose Ramos without any legal basis for
b. Statement no. 2 is false the crime of theft. When brought to the inquest prosecutor, the
c. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both true latter issued a release order. What crime, if any, do the officers
d. Statements no. 1 and 2 are both false commit?
A. Arbitrary detention
73. Before the dead body is removed from the crime scene, the B. Delaying release
investigator must be sure that the following had already been C. Delay in the delivery of detained persons to the proper judicial
performed: authorities
1. Crime scene search is made and sketch and photographs are D. Illegal detention
taken.
2. Possible witnesses are identified, leads taken into 84. Any person who killed his father, mother or child, whether
considerations and relative position of the body was determined. legitimate or illegitimate, or any of his ascendants, or his spouse,
3. Notes are properly taken; evidence are identified, collected and is guilty of what crime?
preserved. a. Homicide c. Parricide b. Murder d. Any of the
4. Close coordination between the medico-legal officer, the choices
prosecutor and the homicide investigator was established. a. 1
and 4 c. 2 and 3 b. 1, 2 and 3 d. 1, 2, 3 and 4 85. A and B are husband and wife. While working as security
guard of Landbank, A felt sick one night and decided to go home
74. Below are the acts falling under rape by sexual assault, around midnight. He saw B having sexual intercourse with their
except: neighbor, C. A grabbed C and hacked the latter to death. As
a. Inserting penis into another person’s mouth Criminologist-Investigator what crime if any would you charged
b. Inserting penis into another person’s anal orifice c. Inserting against A?
penis while the woman is sleeping d Inserting any instrument a. Homicide c. Parricide b. Murder d. None because A is
or object, into the genital or anal orifice of another person. exempted from criminal liability

75. Post-mortem change that is characterized by the discoloration 86. In attempted or frustrated homicide, the offender must have
of the body after death. the intent to kill the victim. If there is no intent to kill, the
A. livor mortis C. algor mortis offender is liable for:
B. rigor mortis D. all of the above a. Physical injury c. Serious physical injury b. Homicide d.
Consummated physical injury
76. What injury would a person sustain if he or she has been hit
in the head with a hard object? 87. Under RA 8294, the use of unlicensed firearm in the
A. lacerated wound C. hematoma B. incised wound commission of a crime is not considered as a separate crime but
D. abrasions shall be appreciated as a
a. Mere alternative circumstance
77. This is the Anti-sexual Harassment Act of 1995: c. Qualifying circumstance
A. RA 8049 C. RA 8505 B. RA 7877 D. RA 6235 b. Mere aggravating circumstance d. Generic
aggravating circumstance
78. Which of the following body system coincides with the

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88. X, a male, takes Y, another male, to a motel and there, 89. Known as Anti Fencing Law of 1979.
through threat and intimidation, succeeds in inserting his penis a. PD 1612 c. BP 22
into the anus of Y. What crime, if any, does X commit? a. Sexual b. RA 3019 d. PD 532
assault c. Acts of lasciviousness b. Rape d. None
90. In what order would the steps be done by the investigator
upon the finding of an evidential cigarette butt? 1. Builder of the first pyramid, he was considered as the first or
1. making sketch earliest recorded medico legal expert.
2. photographing a. Antistius
3. recording b. Imhotep
c. Paulus Zacchias
A. 2, 1 and 3 C. 2, 3 and 1 d. San Juan de Bautista
B. 3, 2 and 1 D. 1, 2 and 3
2. First chief medico legal officer of the Philippine Commonwelth.
91. In the course of investigating the house where a stabbing a. Dr. Sixto delos Angeles
took place, police find what to be bloodstains on the front door. b. Dr. Pedro Solis
Since the unknown perpetrator and the victim who may die were c. Dr. Gregorio T. Lantin
both cut their identities need to be established through the d. Dr. Enrique V. delos Santos
bloodstains. How will the police collect the stains?
A. Moisten a piece of clean cotton with a saline solution and rub 3. Regarded as the Father of Forensic Medicine.
gently a. Antistius
B. Remove the door and submit it to the crime lab C. Scrap the b. Imhotep
stain into white paper using a clean razor blade c. Paulus Zacchias
D. Blot the stain with a clean tissue soaked in alcohol d. San Juan de Bautista

92. Majority of the mistakes committed relative to evidence, take 4. Earliest known forensic pathologist or police surgeon, who
place: performed the autopsy of Julius Caesar, reporting that out of the
1. during periods of transportation 23 stab wounds, only one penetrated the chest cavity between
2. in the collection of samples the first and second rib which was Caesar’s proximate cause of
3. a contaminated sampling death.
4. the wrong type material a. Antistius
A. 1 and 2 C. 2 and 4 B. 3 and 4 D. 2 and 3 b. Imhotep
c. Paulus Zacchias
93. Once the crime scene has been thoroughly documented and d. San Juan de Bautista
locations of evidence was noted, the collection process begins and
will usually starts with: 5. First chief of the Medico Legal Division of the Bureau of
A. point of exit C. fragile evidence B. large objects Investigation.
D. removal of cadaver a. Dr. Sixto delos Angeles
b. Dr. Pedro Solis
94. What is the final phase of crime scene investigation? A. c. Dr. Gregorio T. Lantin
preliminary survey C. documentation of scene d. Dr. Enrique V. delos Santos
B. collection of evidence D. release of crime scene
6. This states that the greater number of points of similarities and
95. How can plaster cast and photograph be marked for variations between two persons, the greater the probability of the
identification? conclusion to be accurate.
A. Affixing a seal on the front C. No mark at all B. Marking at a. Prima Facie evidence rule
the back D. Tagging b. Conclusive evidence rule
c. Law of multiplicity of evidence in identification
96. Which among the five human senses is considered the most d. Chain of custody of evidence
objective?
A. Hearing C. Tasting B. Smelling D. Seeing 7. Color of blood when exposed to the atmosphere.
a. Red
97. How can identification be made on a decomposed cadaver? b. Clay
A. study his bones C. study his dentures B. study his skull D. all c. Reddish-brown
of these d. Black

98. Known as an Anti-Child Pornography Act of 2009. 8. It has for its characteristics as, bright scarlet in color, with high
a. RA 9775 c. RA 9194 oxygen content and leaves the blood vessel with pressure. a.
b. RA 8484 d. RA 9995 Arterial blood
b. Venous blood
99. Philippine Act on Crimes Against International Humanitarian c. Menstrual blood
Law, Genocide, and other Crimes against Humanity. a. RA 9208 c. d. Human blood
RA 9262
b. RA 9851 d. RA 8049 9. Dark red in color, with low oxygen content and usually does
not spill far from the wound.
100. In the Exclusionary Rules on Evidence, evidence obtained in a. Arterial blood
violation of any of these is inadmissible, except one: a. Rights b. Venous blood
against unreasonable search and seizures b. Right to privacy and c. Menstrual blood
communication and correspondence d. Human blood
c. In-custodial investigation rights and right against self
incrimination 10. This blood contains a high number of deodorleins bacillus, it
d. Right to counsel does not clot and has acidic reactions.
a. Arterial blood
b. Venous blood
SCI W/ LEGAL MEDICINE c. Menstrual blood
d. Human blood

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11. A condition in which foreign matters are introduced in the c. Hemorrhage
blood stream blocking the blood circulation in the finer capillaries d. Hematoma
and arteries.
a. Infection 12. It is the disorder of the fluid balance due to peripheral
b. Embolism deficiency, characterized by the decreased blood volume, its flow,
hemo-concentration and renal deficiency. d. Smoother
a. Infection
b. Shock 22. Female pelvis diameter is _______ compared with male pelvis.
c. Hemorrhage a. Greater
d. Hematoma b. Equal
c. Lesser
13. Extravasations or loss of blood from the circulation due to d. Less significant
inflicted wounds in the cardio-vascular system.
a. Infection 23. How many minutes is necessary persistent cessation in
b. Embolism respiration, circulation and brain function is sufficient to declare a
c. Hemorrhage person clinically dead?
d. Hematoma a. 10-15 minutes
b. 15-30 minutes
14. The growth and development of micro-organism in the c. 30-45 minutes
location of the injury or wound. d. 45-60 minutes
a. Infection
b. Embolism 24. A simple test used to determine cessation of respiration by
c. Hemorrhage placing water or mercury in a container on top of the chest of a
d. Hematoma person and no visible movement is noticed.
a. Winslov test
15. Effusion of blood into the tissue underneath the skin due to b. Florence test
the rupture of blood vessels as a result of the application of a c. Barberio‟s test
blunt force. d. Castle Meyer test
a. Contusion
b. Shock 25. A muscular change characterized by the softness of the
c. Hemorrhage muscles and in which it no longer responds to mechanical or
d. Hematoma electrical stimulus due to the dissolution of proteins. a. Stage of
primary flaccidity
16. Wound produced to man-s instinctive reaction of self b. Stage of secondary flaccidity
preservation to repel attacks or an aggressor. c. Rigor mortis
a. Defense wound d. Livor mortis
b. Self-inflicted wound
c. Patterned wound 26. In tropical countries, hair and nails are detached from a dead
d. Mutilated wound body in how many days?
a. 7
17. A wound which resembles the shape or object of the b. 14
instrument which caused it. c. 21
a. Defense wound d. 28
b. Self-inflicted wound
c. Patterned wound 27. Maggots are seen in dead bodies particularly in warm
d. Mutilated wound countries within how many days from death?
a. 1
18. Pulverization of the body into shape with the use of intense b. 2
heat. c. 3
a. Exhumation d. 4
b. Cremation
c. Charring 28. Refers to a fracture where there is a break in the bone, loss
d. Pounding of alignment of the affected bones and separation of fragment
bones.
19. Prescribed depth of a grave under P.D. 856, Section 19 of the a. Simple fracture
Code of Sanitation. b. Compound fracture
a. At least ½ meters deep c. Communicated fracture
b. At least 1 meters deep d. None of these
c. At least 1 and ½ meters deep
d. At least 2 meters deep 29. Bleeding usually in the cavity or organs in the body.
a. Internal hemorrhage
20. A person who died of a communicable disease must be buried b. Hematoma
with: c. Contusion
a. 6 hours after death, unless the local health officer permits d. Internal wound
otherwise
b. 12 hours after death, unless the health officer permits 30. Abrasion due to contact with a rough, hard object.
extension a. Imprint abrasion
c. 24 hours after death, unless the health officer permits b. Pressure abrasion
extension d. 48 hours after death, unless the health officer c. Friction abrasion
permits extension d. Graze
e. 48 hours after death.
21. A significant difference between the male and female skull is 31. Reduction of oxygen in the blood.
that in males, the supercialiary ridges are ______ than compared a. Hypoxia
with females. b. Asphyxia
a. Less sharp c. Hypercapnea
b. Sharper d. None of the foregoing
c. More pointed

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32. Livor mortis or post mortem lividity is completed in how many darker in color?
hours when the blood has already clotted or diffused to different a. 12 hours
parts of the body wherein the discoloration is permanent and c. 36 hours
b. 24 hours a. Contusion
d. 48 hours b. Bruise
c. Petechiae
33. In blood grouping, should there be no agglutination with d. Hematoma
either group A or B what would be the particular blood group of
the sample? 44. Straining or tearing of tendons, ligaments and muscles
a. Group A causing skin discoloration and extreme pain.
b. Group B a. Sprain
c. Group AB b. Contusion
d. Group O c. Fracture
d. Dislocation
34. Period of time wherein human bones will not exhibit changes.
a. 10 years 45. It is a fracture wherein a break of the skin and bone is
b. 20 years evident. a. Simple
c. 30 years b. Compound
d. 40 years c. Comminuted
d. fracture
35. It is the formation of a soft, friable and brownish white greasy
substance in the soft fatty tissue after death. 46. A displacement of the articular surface of the bone without
a. Saponification external wounds.
b. Rigor mortis a. Sprain
c. Mummification b. Fracture
d. Maceration c. Hematoma
d. Dislocation
36. A discoloration of the body after death when the blood tends
to pool in the blood vessels of the most dependent portions of the 47. In gunshot wounds, when there is evident burning of tissues
body and starts 20 to 30 minutes after death and is completed by and blackening of the skin, it may be ascertained that it is a near
12 hours. contact fire meaning that the distance of the body to the gun is
a. Rigor mortis approximately:
b. Primary flaccidity a. 6 inches
c. Maceration b. 12 inches
d. Livor mortis c. 18 inches
d. 24 inches
37. Average time for the stomach to empty its contents after
meals. 48. A physical injury which is found at the site and also the
a. 2 to 3 hours opposite site of the application of force.
b. 3 to 4 hours a. Extensive injury
c. 4 to 5 hours b. Coup injury
d. 5 to 6 hours c. Contre coup injury
d. Coup and contre coup injury
38. Rate of growth of human hair.
a. 0.4 to 0.5 mm./day 49. A physical injury found at the site of the application of
b. 0.5 to 0.6 mm./day force.
c. 0.6 to 0.6 mm./day a. Extensive injury
d. 0.7 to 0.8 mm./day b. Coup injury
c. Contre coup injury
39. A person is considered dead if the rate of fall of body d. Coup and contre coup injury
temperature is about:
a. 10 to 15⁰F 50. A wound produced by a blunt instrument such as log and
b. 15 to 20 ⁰F stone.
c. 20 to 25⁰F a. Punctured wound
d. 25 to 30⁰F b. Hack wound
c. Lacerated wound
40. Sudden inflammation of the pancreas caused by infections d. Incised wound
carried in the blood stream. It may follow obstruction of the
pancreatic duct and subsequent congestion of the gland. a. 51. When the person was stabbed by an ice pick, what wound
Perforated peptic ulcer would be exhibited?
b. Generalized peritonitis a. Punctured wound
c. Acute intestinal obstruction c. Lacerated wound
d. Acute pancreatitis b. Hack wound
d. Incised wound
41. A break or solution in the continuity of the skin.
a. Wound 52. Wound produced by a butcher’s knife.
b. Trauma a. Punctured wound
c. Bruise b. Hack wound
d. Scratch c. Lacerated wound
d. Incised wound
42. A wound which inflicted in the body which is so serious that it
will endanger one’s life. 53. A condition of a woman who has had one or more sexual
a. Non-mortal wound experience but not had conceived a child.
b. Mortal wound a. Moral virginity
c. Trauma b. Demi-virginity
d. Coup injury c. Physical virginity
d. Virgo-intacta
43. A collection of blood underneath the skin.

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54. Refers to the action of bacteria to a dead body. a. Proximate cause of death or secondary cause of death
a. Flaccidity b. Immediate or primary cause of death
b. Rigidity c. Cardio-respiratory arrest
c. LIvidity d. Nocturnal death
d. Putrefaction
66. An injury or disease which survived for a prolonged interval
55. A condition of exposure to cold temperature of certain parts which allowed the development of serious suquelae which
of the body which produces mechanical disruption of cell structure becomes the cause of death. It is usually common to cases
characterized by cold stiffening and diminished body temperature. involving stab wounds.
a. Gangrene a. Proximate cause of death or secondary cause of death
b. Frostbite b. Immediate or primary cause of death
c. Trench foot c. Cardio-respiratory arrest
d. Immersion foot d. Nocturnal death

56. Failure of adequate heat elimination related to the breakdown 67. Their presence in the cadaver would indicate that death has
of sweating mechanism. occurred more than 24 hours hence are useful to proximate the
a. Heat cramp time of death.
b. Heat exhaustion a. Flies
c. Heat stroke b. Earthworms
d. Burning c. Bees
d. Butterflies
57. In determining the sex by analyzing the skeleton, which part
is not used? 68. A complete study of a dead body, undertaken by a trained
a. Skull physician.
b. Pelvis a. Autopsy
c. Sternum b. Embalming
d. Tibia c. Medical examination
d. Post-mortem examination
58. These are superficial punctuate contusions seen most
frequently at the side of the neck, overlaying or anterior to the 69. Painful spasm of the vagina during sexual act.
sternomostoid muscle, breast and other parts of the body. a. a. Dyspareunia
Fetishism b. Sexual Anesthesia
b. Sadism c. Vaginismus
c. Sodomy d. Old Age
d. Love Bites
70. After death, the metabolic process inside the body ceases,
59. A person who is devoid of oxygen for around 3 to 5 minutes heat is no longer produced and the body slowly loses its
would die, the cause of death would be: temperature.
a. Stupor a. Algor mortis
b. Stroke b. Rigor mortis
c. Asphyxia c. Cadaveric spasm
d. Exhaustion d. Suspended animation

60. Most effective method in determining sex of an individual. 71. Transient loss of consciousness with temporary cassation of
a. Gonodal test the vital functions of the body.
b. Social test a. Death
c. Genital test b. Coma
d. Chromosomal test c. Suspended animation
d. Rigor mortis
61. Its medico-legal importance is to approximate the time of
death. 72. Hair on the body surface is usually:
a. Cadaveric spasm a. Thick
b. Putrefaction b. Tapering gradually to fine points
c. Mascular contraction c. Fine
d. Rigor mortis d. all of the above

62. Defloration is the laceration of the hymen due to: 73. Characterized by no breathing and heart action, chill in the
a. Masturbation body and non-existent reflexes.
b. Fingering a. Death
c. Sodomy b. Coma
d. Sexual intercourse c. Suspended animation
d. Rigor mortis
63. In cellular or molecular death, death of individual cell occurs
in: 74. If the length of the fetus is 45 cm., the age of the fetus
a. 20 to 30 minutes is______ months.
b. 3 to 6 hours a. 8 months
c. 12 to 24 hours b. 9 months
d. 24-36 hours c. 6 months
d. 5 months
64. Most noticeable sign of death
a. Cessation of respiration 75. Death occurs when there is deep irreversible coma, absence
b. Progressive fall of body temperature of electrical brain activity and complete cessation of all the vital
c. Insensibility of body and loss of power to move functions without possibility of resuscitation.
d. Cessation of heart action and circulation a. Cardio-respiratory Death
b. Somatic Death
65. It applies to disease or trauma kills, wherein there is no c. Brain death
chance for complication or sequelae to develop. d. Molecular Death
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76. It occurs when there is a continuous and persistent cessation 85. The whole body becomes rigid due to the contraction of the
of heart action and respiration. It is a condition in which the muscles. This develops three to six hours after death and may last
physician and the members of the family pronounce a person to from twenty-four to thirty-six hours.
be dead. a. Stage of Primary Flaccidity/Period of Muscular Irritability b.
a. Cardio-respiratory Death Stage of Post Mortem Rigidity or Cadaveric Rigidity or
b. Somatic Death Rigor Mortis
c. Brain death c. Stage of Secondary Flaccidity/Secondary Relaxation
d. Molecular Death d. Stage of Caloricity

77. This is the state of the body in which there is complete, 86. The stoppage of the heart action and the loss of blood vessels
persistent and continuous cessation of the vital functions of the cause the blood to be under the influence of gravity. It begins to
brain, heart and lungs which maintain life and health. a. Cardio- accumulate in the most dependent portion of the body. a. Rigor
respiratory Death Mortis
b. Somatic Death b. Livor Mortis
c. Brain death c. Algor Mortis
d. Molecular Death d. None of this

78. After cessation of the vital functions of the body there is still 87. The blood merely gravitated into the most dependent
animal life among individual cells. About three (3) to six (6) hours portion of the body but still inside the blood vessels and still
later there is death of individual cells. This is known as________. fluid in form.
a. State of Suspended Animation a. Hypostatic Lividity
b. Molecular Death b. Diffusion Lividity
c. Clinical Death c. Caloricity
d. Somatic Death d. None of this

79. This condition is not really death but merely a transient loss 88. This appears during the later stage of its formation when
of consciousness or temporary cessation of the vital function of blood has coagulated inside the blood vessels or has diffused
the body on the account of disease or external stimulus or other into the tissues of the body.
forms or influence. a. Hypostatic Lividity
a. State of Suspended Animation b. Diffusion Lividity
b. Molecular Death c. Caloricity
c. Clinical Death d. None of this
d. Somatic Death
89. It is the breaking down of the complex proteins into simpler
80. In this test, a ligature is applied around the base of a finger components associated with the foul smelling gases and
with moderate tightness. In a living person there appears a accompanied by the change of color.
bloodless zone at the site of the application of the ligature. If such a. Caloricity
ligature is applied to the finger of a dead man, there is no such b. Lividity
change in color. c. Putrefaction
a. Diaphanus Test d. None of these
b. Icard,s Test
c. Magnus Test 90. The dehydration of the whole body which results in the
d. None of these shivering and preservation of the body.
a. Putrefaction
81. After death the metabolic process inside the body ceases. No b. Caloricity
more heat is produced but the body loses slowly its temperature, c. Mummification
evaporation or by conduction to the surrounding atmosphere. The d. Maceration
progressive fall of the body temperature is one of the most
prominent signs of death. This is known as_______. 91. This s a condition wherein the fatty tissues of the body are
a. Post-mortem Rigidity transformed to soft brownish white substance known as
b. Livor-mortis adipocere.
c. Algor-Mortis a. Saponification
d. None of these b. Mummification
c. Maceration
82. It is the rise of temperature of the body after death due to d. Caloricity
rapid and early putrefactive changes or some internal changes. a.
Post-mortem Rigidity 92. This is the softening of the tissues when in a fluid medium is
b. Livor-mortis the absence of putrefactive microorganism which is frequently
c. Post-mortem Caloricity observed in the death of fetus or utero.
d. Algor Mortis a. Maceration
b. Saponification
83. The muscles are relaxed and capable of contracting when c. Mummification
stimulated. The pupils are dilated, the sphincters are relaxed, and d. Caloricity
there is incontinence of urination and defecation. a. Stage of
Primary Flaccidity/Period of Muscular Irritability 93. An injury, disease or the combination of both injury and
b. Stage of Post Mortem Rigidity or Cadaveric Rigidity or Rigor disease responsible for initiating the trend or physiological
Mortis disturbance, brief or prolonged, which produce the fatal
c. Stage of Secondary Flaccidity/Secondary Relaxation termination.
d. Stage of Caloricity a. Cause of Death
b. Manner of Death
84. The muscles become flaccid, and no longer capable of c. Mechanism of Death
responding to mechanical and chemical stimulus and the reaction d. None of These
become alkaline.
a. Stage of Primary Flaccidity/Period of Muscular Irritability b. 94. This applies to cases when trauma or disease kill quickly that
Stage of Post Mortem Rigidity or Cadaveric Rigidity or Rigor there is no opportunity for sequel or complication to develop. a.
Mortis Mechanism of Death
c. Stage of Secondary Flaccidity/Secondary Relaxation
d. Stage of Caloricity
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b. Manner of Death a person is taken into custody or deprived of his freedom in any
c. Immediate Cause of Death significant manner.
d. Secondary Cause of Death A. custodial investigation
B. homicide
95. The injury or disease was survived for a sufficiently prolonged C. murder
interval which permitted the development of serious sequel which D. seizure
actually causes death.
a. Mechanism of Death 6. It is the legal act of confiscating.
b. Manner of Death A. custodial investigation
c. Immediate Cause of Death B. homicide
d. Secondary Cause of Death C. murder
D. seizure
96. It refers to the physiological derangement or biochemical
disturbance incompatible with life which is initiated by the cause 7. It is the unlawful premeditated killing of one human being by
to death. another.
a. Mechanism of Death A. custodial investigation
b. Manner of Death B. homicide
c. Cause of Death C. murder
d. None of the above D. seizure

97. It is the explanation as to how the cause of death came into 8. It is any person who, not falling within the provisions of Article
being or how the cause of death arose. 246, shall kill another, without the attendance of any of the
a. Mechanism of Death circumstances enumerated in the next preceding article, shall be
b. Manner of Death deemed guilty of homicide and be punished by reclusion
c. Cause of Death temporal.
d. None of the above A. custodial investigation
B. homicide
98. The fatality is caused solely by disease. C. murder
a. Natural Death D. seizure
b. Violent Death
c. Unnatural death 9. It is another way of acquiring an information through a
d. None of the above pleasant manner.
A. investigation
99. Death due to injury of any sort such as gunshot wound, stab, B. investigator
fracture, traumatic shock, etc. C. interrogation
a. Natural Death D. interview
b. Violent Death
c. Unnatural death 10. It is a formal inquiry or systematic study. The action of
d. B or C investigating something or someone; formal or systematic
examination or research.
100. The so-called Sudden Infant Death Syndrome. A. investigation
a. CRIB Death B. investigator
b. SUND C. interrogation
c. Bangungot D. interview
d. None of these
11. _______ is a person who conducts formal inquiry.
A. investigation
SCI W/ INTERVIEW AND INTERROGATION B. investigator
C. interrogation
1. It is the term used by authorities in securing an area where D. interview
crime occurred.
A. arrest 12. It is the process of being questioned. A tool used to collect
B. bail an information.
C. cordon A. investigation
D. detainee B. investigator
C. interrogation
2. ________ is the taking of a person into custody in order that D. interview
he may be bound to answer for the commission of an offense.
Rule 113, Sec 1. 13. It is the act of looking for a person or a thing.
A. arrest A. instrumentation
B. bail B. SOCO
C. cordon C. search
D. detainee D. search warrant

3. This is a person held in custody. 14. It refers to the tools or means by which investigators attempt
A. arrest to explain everything that transcribed in the crime scene. A.
B. bail instrumentation
C. cordon B. SOCO
D. detainee C. search
D. search warrant
4. It is a property or money given as surety that a person released
from custody will return at an appointed time. 15. It is a warrant directing any peace officer to search and
A. arrest seized. A. instrumentation
B. bail B. SOCO
C. cordon C. search
D. detainee D. search warrant
5. It includes any questioning by law enforcement authorities after
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16. It is a law enforcement authorities or investigating officers B. evidence custodian
who collects forensic evidence from the crime scene. A. C. crime scene
instrumentation D. reconstruction
B. SOCO
C. search 27. This refers to a person who is a member of the SOCO team
D. search warrant that takes lead during an investigation.
A. team leader
17. It is a document from court ordering and directing a peace B. evidence custodian
officer to apprehend and detain any person whose name will C. crime scene
appear in warrant for him to answer matters regarding the D. reconstruction
commission of a crime.
A. criminal investigation and detention 28. This refers to a person who is responsible in receiving,
B. custodial investigation report keeping and preserving of any evidence found by the evidence
C. arrest warrant collector in the crime scene.
D. arrest by virtue of warrant of arrest A. team leader
B. evidence custodian
18. This refers to the issuance of invitation to the person C. crime scene
suspected to have committed a crime who at the same time is D. reconstruction
brought before the custody of law in order to answer matters
regarding the commission of crime without jeopardy to the liability 29. It is the act of collecting or acquiring found evidence at the
of a person for a violations he/she may commit. crime scene that is relevant to the case and may have value in
A. criminal investigation and detention the future.
B. custodial investigation report A. crime scene investigation
C. arrest warrant B. recognition of evidence
D. arrest by virtue of warrant of arrest C. documentation of evidence
D. collection of evidence
19. Without further delay, the executing officer of the warrant
must deliver the arrested person to the nearest police station or 30. This refers to the identification of evidence.
jail. A. crime scene investigation
A. criminal investigation and detention B. recognition of evidence
B. custodial investigation report C. documentation of evidence
C. arrest warrant D. collection of evidence
D. arrest by virtue of warrant of arrest
31. It is the conduct of processes particularly in the recognition,
20. It is the document containing necessary information about the search, collection, handling, preservation and recognition of
confession of the person brought before the custody of law evidence to include the identification and interview and the arrest
prepared by the investigating officer. of suspect(s) at the crime scene.
A. criminal investigation and detention A. crime scene investigation
B. custodial investigation report B. recognition of evidence
C. arrest warrant C. documentation of evidence
D. arrest by virtue of warrant of arrest D. collection of evidence

21. A point at which a check is performed by police officers or any 32. This is the act of documenting every piece of evidence found
other law enforcers for security and safety purposes. A. in the crime scene. Observing proper labelling of physical
warrantless arrest evidence by means of sketching, taking of photographs or video
B. warrant of arrest recording.
C. checkpoint A. crime scene investigation
D. raid B. recognition of evidence
C. documentation of evidence
22. This is taking a person in custody under authority of law. D. collection of evidence
A. warrantless arrest
B. warrant of arrest 33. It is the one who conducts crime scene investigation
C. checkpoint thoroughly over a case. CSI are the people who examine crime
D. raid scenes with distinct specialties.
A. evaluation of evidence
23. It a sudden invasion by police officers or officers of the law. B. hypothesis
A. warrantless arrest C. testing the hypothesis
B. warrant of arrest D. crime scene investigator
C. checkpoint
D. raid 34. Without any assumption of its truth, it is a proposition made
as basis for reasoning.
24. A ______ is when a police make an arrest without a warrant. A. evaluation of evidence
A. warrantless arrest B. hypothesis
B. warrant of arrest C. testing the hypothesis
C. checkpoint D. crime scene investigator
D. raid
35. It is the act of determining its competence as an evidence.
25. This refers to the process of determining the sequence of A. evaluation of evidence
events about what occurred during and after the commission of B. hypothesis
crime. C. testing the hypothesis
A. team leader D. crime scene investigator
B. evidence custodian
C. crime scene 36. It is assessing the plausibility of hypothesis.
D. reconstruction A. evaluation of evidence
B. hypothesis
26. This is a place where crime took place. C. testing the hypothesis
A. team leader D. crime scene investigator
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37. This involves police procedures not limited to; first responder’s 47. This describes those who demonstrate facial expressions but
responsibility in the protection and preservation of the CS, contradict their true feelings.
identification and assistance to injured persons, recording names A. withholders
and location of hospital where they will be evacuated, call for B. revealers
emergency assistance; and etc... C. substitute expressors
A. crime scene response D. ever-ready expressors
B. primary
C. secondary 48. ______ those who is said to wear their feeling on their sleeves
D. single microscopic crime scene they show their face. Most investigators find this kind difficult to
deal with.
38. This may be subsequent places which may include the victim’s A. withholders
home, suspect’s home, suspect’s vehicle, the road between B. revealers
suspect’s home and the victim’s, or any comparable indoor or C. substitute expressors
outdoor area. D. ever-ready expressors
A. crime scene response
B. primary 49. It is the confession or final conclusive report.
C. secondary A. paralanguage
D. single microscopic crime scene B. kinetics or body motions
C. conclusion
39. _______ refers to the site of the original or first criminal D. evaluate
activity.
A. crime scene response 50. _______ refers to the manner in which words are spoken.
B. primary A. paralanguage
C. secondary B. kinetics or body motions
D. single microscopic crime scene C. conclusion
D. evaluate
40. It is composed of many crime scenes. E.g. a gunshot victim’s
body dumped in a field represents the following crime scenes 51. _______ include movements of the eyes, expressions on the
within overall crime scene of the field; the body, the body’s face, movements of certain parts of the body (such as hands and
wounds, and the ground around the body. feet, and body posture.
A. crime scene response A. paralanguage
B. primary B. kinetics or body motions
C. secondary C. conclusion
D. single microscopic crime scene D. evaluate

41. The crime scene technician must ______ the first officer who 52. This occurs during as well as after interrogation. It is an
responded to the scene or the victim to the determine the ongoing assessment of the data to quality and quantity and what
“hypothesis” of the case is needed to further refine it, consolidate what’s there, and focus
A. microscopic crime scene for final conclusion or confession.
B. interview A. paralanguage
C. examine B. kinetics or body motions
D. photograph C. conclusion
D. evaluate
42. The ________ are the trace evidence on the body, the
gunshot residue around the wound, and the tire tread marks in 53. Keep question as simple as possible avoid confusing
the ground next to the body. questions.
A. microscopic crime scene A. case review
B. interview B. build rapport
C. examine C. simple question
D. photograph D. avoid implied answers

43. This is the third step in crime scene processing. 54. It refers to establishing a good communication in order to
A. microscopic crime scene proceed a cognitive interview.
B. interview A. case review
C. examine B. build rapport
D. photograph C. simple question
D. avoid implied answers
44. This is the second step in crime scene processing.
A. microscopic crime scene 55. This means that investigators must not allow a question
B. interview answerable by yes or no.
C. examine A. case review
D. photograph B. build rapport
C. simple question
45. Those are the one who use the `poker’ face who hide their D. avoid implied answers
emotions by being expressionless.
A. withholders 56. The investigator must review the facts about the case.
B. revealers A. case review
C. substitute expressors B. build rapport
D. ever-ready expressors C. simple question
D. avoid implied answers
46. This are individuals who readily react to stimulus and show it
through facial expressions. These are the easiest to deal with. A. 57. Brief the investigator taking charge.
withholders A. inner perimeter
B. revealers B. outer perimeter
C. substitute expressors C. extended perimeter
D. ever-ready expressors D. none of the above
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58. It is the surrounding area which includes any entry and exit D. no
points, or in the case of a shooting, any area where spent 69. It is some sort of collateral, whether it is cash or a bond to
ammunition might be found. guarantee a defendant is going to show up to Court. A. bail
A. inner perimeter B. Investigation
B. outer perimeter C. investigator
C. extended perimeter D. Search warrant
D. none of the above
70. It is a person who carries out a formal inquiry or
59. ________ which is where any evidence might have been investigation. A. bail
thrown by the suspect while fleeing. B. Investigation
A. inner perimeter C. investigator
B. outer perimeter D. Search warrant
C. extended perimeter
D. none of the above 71. It is the action of interrogating or the process of being
interrogated.
60. The immediate area where the crime was committed. A. bail
A. inner perimeter B. Investigation
B. outer perimeter C. investigator
C. extended perimeter D. Search warrant
D. none of the above
72. It is a legal document authorizing a police officer or other
61. Raid is where the crime took place. official to enter and search premises.
A. true A. bail
B. false B. Investigation
C. yes C. investigator
D. no D. Search warrant

62. An act defining certain rights of the person arrested, 73. Sgt. Cruz and Pat. Flores arrested and detained Ramon
detained. A. search and seizure without warrant for the crime of theft. When brought to the
B. properties subject to seizure inquest prosecutor, the latter issued release order for further
C. Section 1. Statement of Policy investigation. What was the crime if any do they have committed?
D. RA 7438 A. Arbitrary detention
B. Illegal detention
63. It is an order in writing issued in the name of the Philippine, C. Delaying release
signed by a judge and directed to a peace officer, commanding D. none of the above
him to search for any property described therein and bring it
before the court. Read Art III, Sec. 2, 1987 Constitution. 74. It is the wrongful restraining or imprisonment of a non-
A. search and seizure citizen. A. Arbitrary detention
B. properties subject to seizure B. Illegal detention
C. Section 1. Statement of Policy C. Delaying release
D. RA 7438 D. none of the above

64. It is the policy of the Senate to value the dignity of every 75. It is the violation of the right to liberty.
human being and guarantee full respect for human rights. A. A. Arbitrary detention
search and seizure B. Illegal detention
B. properties subject to seizure C. Delaying release
C. Section 1. Statement of Policy D. none of the above
D. RA 7438
76. Any person who killed his father, mother or child, whether
65. This are the properties which are subject of the offense. legitimate or illegitimate, or any of his ascendants, or his spouse,
A. search and seizure is guilty of what crime?
B. properties subject to seizure A. homicide
C. Section 1. Statement of Policy B. murder
D. RA 7438 C. parricide
D. any of the choices
66. A person is called detainee when he/she is being held in
custody 77. Brando and Yana is married couple. While working as security
A. true guard of Bank, Brando felt sick one night and decided to go home
B. false around midnight and saw Yana having sexual intercourse with a
C. yes neighbor Gilbert. Brando grabbed Gilbert and hacked the latter to
D. no death. As an investigator what crime if any would you charged
against A?
67. Is it true that cordon is the term used by authorities in A. homicide
securing an area where crime occurred? B. murder
A. true C. parricide
B. false D. none
C. yes
D. no 78. In attempted or frustrated homicide, the offender must have
the intent to kill the victim. If there is no intent to kill, the
68. Warrantless arrest is a document from court ordering and offender is liable for?
directing a peace officer to apprehend and detain any person A. physical injury
whose name will appear in warrant for him to answer matters B. homicide
regarding the commission of a crime. C. serious physical injury
A. true D. consummated physical injury
B. false
C. yes 79. An injury which createa substantial risk of death, or which
causes death or serious and protracted disfigurement, protracted
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impairment of health or protracted loss or impairment of the judge in (Rule 1112, Sec. 6)
function of any bodily organ. A. true
A. physical injury B. false
B. homicide C. yes
C. serious physical injury D. no
D. consummated physical injury
91. ______ is the deprivation by a public officer of the liberty of a
80. It is the unlawful killing of one person by another. person w/o any legal ground.
A. physical injury A. detention
B. homicide B. arbitrary detention
C. serious physical injury C. arrest warrant
D. consummated physical injury D. none of the above

81. It refers to the forcible expulsion of a fetus from the mother’s 92. ______ is the third step in crime scene processing.
womb. A. microscopic crime scene
A. infanticide B. interview
B. parricide C. examine
C. abortion D. photograph
D. murder
93. _______ refers to the process of determining the sequence of
82. It is the crime of killing a child within a year of its birth. events about what occurred during and after the commission of
A. infanticide crime.
B. parricide A. team leader
C. abortion B. evidence custodian
D. murder C. crime scene
D. reconstruction
83. In this case, a price, reward or promise has been considered
to kill the victim. 94. _______ refers to the identification of evidence.
A. infanticide A. crime scene investigation
B. parricide B. recognition of evidence
C. abortion C. documentation of evidence
D. murder D. collection of evidence

84. Custodial investigation includes any questioning by law 95. _______ may be subsequent places which may include the
enforcement authorities after a person is taken into custody or victim’s home, suspect’s home, suspect’s vehicle, the road
deprived of his freedom in any significant manner. A. true between suspect’s home and the victim’s, or any comparable
B. false indoor or outdoor area.
C. yes A. crime scene response
D. no B. primary
C. secondary
85. SOCO means? D. single microscopic crime scene
A. Scene of the Crime Operation
B. Scene of the Criminal Operating 96. A warrantless arrest is when a police make an arrest without
C. Scene of the Crime Operative a warrant.
D. none of the above A. true
B. false
86. _________ is the act of looking for a person or a thing. C. yes
A. instrumentation D. no
B. SOCO
C. search 97. ________ is the third step in crime scene processing.
D. search warrant A. microscopic crime scene
B. interview
87. _________ is the legal act of confiscating. C. examine
A. custodial investigation D. photograph
B. homicide
C. murder 98. ________ are the individuals who readily react to stimulus
D. seizure and show it through facial expressions. These are the easiest to
deal with.
88. Interrogation refers to the tools or means by which A. withholders
investigators attempt to explain everything that transcribed in the B. revealers
crime scene. C. substitute expressors
A. true D. ever-ready expressors
B. false
C. yes 99. A point at which a check is performed by police officers or any
D. no other law enforcers for security and safety purposes. A.
warrantless arrest
89. _______ is issued by the competent authority upon a showing B. warrant of arrest
of probable cause, which means a warrant may be issued if a C. checkpoint
reasonable person would believe the information at hand is D. raid
sufficient to suggest criminal activities.
A. criminal investigation and detention 100. ______ those who is said to wear their feeling on their
B. custodial investigation report sleeves they show their face. Most investigators find this kind
C. arrest warrant difficult to deal with.
D. arrest by virtue of warrant of arrest A. withholders
90. A warrant of arrest may not be necessary when the accused B. revealers
is already under detention pursuant to warrant issued by MTC C. substitute expressors
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D. ever-ready expressors D. Directory signs

TRAFFIC MANAGEMENT 11. This is loosely defined as any acts that violate a state or
municipalities traffic laws.
1. In general, drivers’ training and education aims primarily to: A. Traffic citation
A. Teach the rudiments of driving B. Traffic warning
B. Instill awareness of one’s legal and moral responsibilities in C. Traffic regulations
traffic D. Traffic violation
C. Teach the abilities required for one to be eligible for a driver’s
license 12. What was the contribution of Etienne Lenoir as far as
D. Prepare the student pass the regulatory testing for driver’s transportation is concerned?
license A. Pneumatic tires
B. Dandy horse
2. After the applicant has taken the written examination, he C. Motor vehicle
should undergo: D. Internal combustion Engine
A. Medical examination
B. Mandatory drug test 13. Which of the following is not a danger warning sign?
C. Actual Road Test A. Double sharp bend
D. Interview B. Pedestrian crossing
C. Speed limit
3. There are various police units involved in traffic enforcement. D. Approach to intersection
Who enforces the R.A. 4136 and or national traffic laws along
national roads and thoroughfares? 14. The traffic citation ticket as temporary driving permit expires
A. Traffic Management Bureau after how many hours?
B. Traffic Management Division A. 3 days
C. PNP - TRAFCOM B. 36
D. PNP-HPG C. 48
D. 72
4. In chasing a traffic violator, identification of the motor vehicle
should be obtained even while the operation is going on. Which 15. What is the color of the traffic light located in the center of
of the following should be sought first? the traffic signaling device?
A. Description of the fleeing driver A. Amber
B. Plate number of the motor vehicle B. Orange
C. Color of the motor vehicle C. Red
D. Outstanding features and accessories D. A and B

5. It is one of the oldest methods of traffic control in which one 16. This is actually a form of safety education where the traffic
form of transportation is given priority by restricting or banning enforcer tells the violator that he violated a traffic law and
other forms of transportation. explains the hazards of his violation.
A. Motor vehicle reduction scheme A. Traffic Education
B. Number coding B. Written Warning
C. Restraint C. Verbal Warning
D. Priority control D. Citation Warning

6. In using traffic signs, there are basic sign shapes and colors. 17. Of the following classifications of traffic signal lights, which is
Which of the following is not one of them? designed primarily to control and regulate traffic flows? A. Special
A. Round and red sign pedestrian signals
B. Round black yellow signs B. Traffic control signals
C. Equilateral triangle red signs C. Motor vehicle control lights
D. Triangle red and green sign D. B and C

7. What is the primary consideration when dealing with a violator? 18. The reduction of number of traffic violators particularly those
A. Explaining the violation related to traffic obstruction to have free-flow of traffic is a goal
B. All of these of traffic law enforcement which is to:
C. Apprehension of the violator A. All of these
D. Establishing pleasant relationship B. Increase traffic efficiency
C. Increase traffic mobility
8. What is the enforcement activity which involves actual D. Increases safety level
inspection of motor vehicles and motorists on the road? A.
Checkpoint 19. When you are approaching an intersection with a traffic light
B. Road block with a steady red, which of the following should neither be
C. Road check expected nor observed?
D. Preventive enforcement A. None of these
B. Stop at the designated line.
9. Of the following, which one regulates the movement of turning C. Vehicles will be crossing from the opposite side.
and passing traffic regulations? D. Expect pedestrians to cross at the pedestrian lane.
A. Round and red sign
B. Round black yellow signs 20. Who among the following has the priority over the other road
C. Equilateral triangle red signs users?
D. Eight-sided red and white stop sign A. Pedestrians on unmarked highways
B. Motor vehicles on public roads
10. Which of the following traffic signs are intended to guide C. Traffic emerging from private access
motorists along established routes, inform the motorists of the D. Motor vehicles on pedestrian crossings
proper roads, and help motorists along the way in the most simple
and direct method? 21. Which is used to announce one’s intention to turn?
A. All of these A. Directional signals
B. Regulatory signs B. Stop light
C. Informative signs C. Head light
Amici ReviewCenter Page 16
D. Backing light B. factor
C. primary cause
22. Perpendicular intersection is the most common configuration D. modifier
for roads that cross each other, and it is the most basic type. This
type of intersection is also known as: 32. The speed adjusted to the potential or possible hazards or the
A. Highway Intersection road and traffic situation ahead and usually determined by the
B. "Four-way" intersection road rather than the particular driver of a vehicle is: A. speed
C. “Two-way” intersection limit
D. “Eight-way” intersection B. minimum limit
C. allowable limit
23. A flashing yellow light means, except: D. safe speed
A. This is the same as a stop sign
B. Proceed through the intersection with caution 33. It refers to the time from the point of possible perception to
C. You have the right of way over a flashing red light D. Vehicles actual perception.
on the other side will proceed after coming to a full stop A. point of possible perception
B. perception delay
24. A Single Continuous Line On a Four-lane Road indicates the C. perception of hazard
following, except D. actual perception point
A. When there are slow and fast lanes, never overtake by passing
over the solid white line 34. Which is not true about culpa contractual?
B. Lanes 1 & 4 (outer) lanes are for slow moving vehicles. C. A. Negligence is merely incidental to the performance of
Vehicles on outer lanes should not be below the minimum an obligation that is not existing because of a contract B.
speed limit. The proof needed is proof beyond reasonable doubt C. Defense
D. Lanes 2 & 3(inner) lanes are usually for faster moving vehicles. of “good father of a family” in the selection and supervision of
employees is not proper complete defense D. The master-servant
25. A double yellow or white line with a dotted line in between rule is applied
means:
A. None of these 35. Which is incorrect in culpa criminal?
B. Absolutely overtaking is not prohibited A. Defense of a good father is a proper defense
C. Overtaking is sometimes extremely dangerous B. No pre-existing contact or obligation
D. A roadway which is extremely dangerous C. Accused is presumed innocent until contrary is proven D.
Negligence is direct, substantive, and independent of a contract
26. Which of the following is a mandatory pavement marking?
A. Directional arrows 36. Which could not be considered an indication of hit-and-run
B. Pedestrian lane accident?
C. Barrel lanes A. The driver leaving the area of accident because he is in
D. Curb regulations imminent danger
B. The driver fleeing the area of accident to evade
27. Traffic patrol does not necessary mean that the patrol officer responsibility.
will be constantly moving from one place to another. For effective C. After hitting someone on the highway, the driver left and
traffic observation, there are instances that the traffic officer will reported to the police.
be stationing himself in a strategic place. In relation to this, what D. After sideswiping a pedestrian the driver fled to seek assistance
is the traffic observation in which the traffic officer is in full view of a physician.
but so located, for example at side street, so as to require effort
on the part of traffic users? 37. Which statement is incorrect as far as hit-and-run accident is
A. Stationary observation concerned?
B. Visible observation A. The driver who flees is always responsible for the
C. Conspicuous observation accident
D. Full view position B. The driver’s reason of fleeing from the accident could be that
he is wanted for another crime
28. It is the combination of simultaneous and sequential factors C. The recovery of the hit-and-run vehicle does not always
without any one of which the result could not have occurred. A. immediately establish the identity of the driver
cause D. The driver of the hit-and-run vehicle may report that his own
B. factor vehicle was a victim of another hit-and-run accident
C. primary cause
D. attribute 38. What is the enforcement action which does not contemplate
possible assessment of penalty by the court or otherwise as a
29. There are five essential steps in the traffic enforcement result of warning alone?
process: A. Traffic Warning
1) apprehension; 2) adjudication; 3) prosecution; 4) detection; B. Traffic Citation
and 5) penalization. C. Traffic Accosting
Which is correct enumeration in reverse chronology? D. Written Warning
A. 1, 2, 3 4, & 5
B. 2, 3, 4, 5, & 1 39. In deciding whether to pursue or not to pursue or chase a
C. 4, 1, 3, 2, & 5 traffic violator, consider whether the violation is hazardous or non
D. 1, 4, 3, 2, & 5 hazardous. Which of the following does not fall under the
hazardous type of violations?
30. There are various reasons why people commit traffic A. Driving under the influence of liquor
violations. Which is not one of them? B. Traffic obstruction
A. Fear of fine or punishment C. Excessive speed
B. Possibility of being involved in accident D. Reckless Driving
C. Loss of driving privilege
D. Negative area of citizenship 40. Three categories of suspects in hit-and-run cases can be
explained psychologically. A driver who finds the other driver as
31. What is the circumstance that permanently or temporarily faulty is categorized as:
alters an attribute? A. Projectionist
A. cause B. Apprehensive
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C. Sneak operator 51. Which is incorrect about skidmarks?
D. Hit-and-run drivers A. It shows all the speed of the motor vehicle B. It is
useful in estimating speed prior to an accident C. A good
41. Traffic in English is taken from the Arabic word “taraffaqa,” evidence in traffic accident investigations D. The length of
which means to: the skidmark is affected by the road surface
A. Move from one place to another
B. Sell or trade goods 52. Training of traffic auxiliary personnel answers the problem
C. Transfer persons, goods, and animals concerning:
D. Walk along slowly together A. Human errors
B. Poor control measures
42. In the computation of the speed of the motor vehicle based C. Poor maintenance
on the length of the skid mark, which of the following is a major D. Physical inadequacy
restriction to the process:
A. Tire thread 53. What should not be done by a driver involved in an accident?
B. Wet road surface A. Reporting to the nearest police station
C. Absence of the suspected car B. Aiding or helping the victim
D. absence of the suspected river C. Calling for assistance
D. Concealing his identify as part of right to remain silent
43. What is the mark caused by the forward rotation of the
wheels being slower than the forward movement of the vehicle? 54. It refers to a number of vehicles blocking one another until
A. shadowy marks they can scarcely move.
B. skidding gap marks A. Traffic gridlock
C. None of these B. Traffic congestion
D. gap skid C. Traffic bottleneck
D. Traffic jam
44. There are two major functions in traffic law enforcement.
Whose function the enforcement of traffic laws deterrent to law 55. What is the phenomenon in which traffic congestion reaches
violations, special assistance to prosecutors and courts? A. Traffic great intensity at predictable times of the day due to the large
Enforcement number of vehicles using the road at the same time? A. Traffic
B. Police Traffic Law Enforcement congestion
C. Court Traffic Law Enforcement B. Rush hour
D. Either B or C C. Peak season
D. Traffic snarl
45. There are three elements of traffic enforcement system.
Which one is consist of legislation, police, and courts? A. 56. Which of the following best describes a hit-and-run driver?
Enforcement system A. Apprehensive and panicking
B. Road User System B. Evading responsibility
C. Road System C. Failure to aid victim
D. Traffic System D. Fear of publicity

46. It refers to the groove made by a hard part of a motor vehicle 57. A physical phenomenon relating to the manner in which
to another car after sideswiping each other or it may be left on a vehicles impede each others’ progression as demand for limited
road surface by a motor vehicle which overturned then slid on the road space approaches full capacity.
road surface?: A. Bottleneck
A. Tire marks B. Heavy traffic
B. Ruts C. Traffic congestion
C. Shafts D. Blocked-up traffic
D. Gouges
58. The following are elements of hit-and-run accidents, except:
47. It is the measurement of the maximum frictional resistance of A. Suspect driving the vehicle at the time of the accident. B.
pavements which is equal to the force exerted when the wheels Suspect was involved in an accident resulting in death, personal
are skidding divided by the weight of the car. injury or damage to property.
A. Coefficient of Friction C. Suspect failed to perform his responsibilities stated in Sec. 55
B. Drag Factor of R.A. 4136.
C. Frictional Force D. Suspect had no knowledge of the accident
D. Either A or B
59. Which of the following ancient wheeled vehicles refers to the
48. What is the United Nations convention that established the travelling wagon where the passengers were protected by a
International Traffic Rules and Regulations? covering of leather or cloth fixed over a wooden framework? A.
A. None of these Italian cocchio
B. 1972 Vienna Convention B. Roman carpentum
C. 1968 Vienna Convention C. Sumerian chariot with flank wheels
D. 1965 Vienna Convention D. Greek quadrica

49. What is the general principle that establishes who has the 60. One of the specific causes of traffic accidents is misperceiving
right to go first? or misjudging the road situation ahead. This cause is under the
A. Keep to the right factor involving:
B. Giving priority A. Driver’s condition
C. Priority Signs and Symbols B. Main Vehicle or motor vehicle factors
D. Right of Way C. Road Factors
D. A or C
50. In determining the skidding distance of a motor vehicle, which
is by far the most important? 61. Under the three principles of preventing or reducing traffic
A. Driver’s driving attitude accidents, human error condition can be corrected by “E” or pillar
B. Slipperiness of the road surface of traffic?
C. Grade or slope of the road A. Enforcement
D. Speed of the motor vehicle B. Education
C. Environment or ecology
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D. Engineering D. No entry signs

62. Damage to a vehicle resulting from direct pressure of some 72. Special rules for four-way stops may include the following,
foreign object in a collision or roll over. It is usually indicated by except:
striations, rub-off of material or puncture. This is known as: A. A. In the countries that use four-way stops, pedestrians always
Impact have priority at crosswalks – even at unmarked ones, which exist
B. Contact damage as the logical continuations of the sidewalks at every intersection
C. Maximum damage with approximately right angles – unless signed or painted
D. Wreckage otherwise.
B. Whichever vehicle first stops at the stop line – or before the
63. When encountering hazards on the highway, the driver usually crosswalk, if there is no stop line – has priority.
makes an action to adjust his speed, his position on the road, and C. If two vehicles stop at the same time, priority is given
his direction of motion. He also gives signals of intent to turn or to the vehicle on the left.
slow, or any other action in situations involving potential hazards. D. If three vehicles stop at the same time, priority is given to the
These actions are called two vehicles going in opposite directions, if possible.
A. Strategy
B. Technique 73. What is issued as receipt of confiscation of driver’s license,
C. Evasion certificate of registration, and or plate number if the violation is a
D. Tactic local traffic ordinance?
A. Temporary operator’s permit
64. In traffic accident investigation, it refers to any person using B. Traffic citation ticket
a traffic way for travel, parking or other purposes as a pedestrian C. Traffic summon
or driver, including any vehicle, or animal which he is using. A. D. Traffic ordinance ticket
Traffic unit
B. Motorists 74. In determining the enforcement action to be taken, all but one
C. Pedestrians should be considered.
D. Traffic users A. Training of the enforcer
B. Degree of violation
65.It is the taking of enforcement action such as detection then C. Accuracy of observation
apprehension of traffic law violators. It also involves either the D. Traffic and weather condition
arresting, issuance of citation tickets or inspection summons, or
simply warning any person who is believed to have violated a 75. If A is born in 2008, when can he be qualified to apply for a
traffic law, ordinance, or regulation. student driver’s permit based on the current age requirements as
A. Traffic law enforcement provided for by RA 4136?
B. Traffic supervision A. 2025
C. Traffic patrol B. 2026
D. Traffic enforcement C. 2027
D. 2024
66. The maximum speed legally permitted on a given stretch of
road is called: 76. According to RA 4136, a professional driver is one who:
A. Safe speed A. Manifests obvious expertise in driving
B. Controlled speed B. Earns out of driving
C. Maximum speed C. Possesses a professional driver’s license
D. Speed limit D. Has long years of driving experience

67. These are areas within the roadway constructed in manner to 77. This is a part of enforcement activity which is usually done
establish physical channels through which traffic guided. A. when a traffic violator fails to stop.
Traffic Dividers A. Road check
B. Traffic Islands B. Road block
C. Pedestrian Islands C. Highway patrol
D. Traffic bars D. Pursuit operation

68. Which of the following prohibits lane changing or overtaking 78. What is the process of training road users in the avoidance
anytime? and prevention of traffic-related accidents?
A. Solid white or yellow line A. Traffic education
B. Solid white or yellow line with broken white or yellow line C. B. Road safety
Double white or solid line with broken white or yellow C. Safety first training
line in between D. Traffic safety education
D. Solid continuous line along curved portion of a highway
79. What is the first mode of land transportation that challenged
69. What traffic light states that unless specified, you can turn the rail road train?
right after full stop to clear traffic coming from the left? A. Steady A. Motor vehicle
green B. Bicycle
B. Steady stop C. Bus
C. Flashing red D. Light rail transit
D. Steady red
80. Driving Company B approach to training their students’ driver
70. Henry Ford is known in Land Transportation as the: is trough classroom lecture and discussion. What method does
A. inventor of the internal combustion engine Driving Company B apply?
B. inventor of the popular Model T A. Comprehensive
C. pioneer in mass production of vehicles B. Traditional
D. Both B and C C. Commentary
D. Simulated
71. Traffic control devices are sometimes mandatory. Which of
the following is under this category? 81. What is the act of operating a vehicle in a way that shows a
A. Directional arrows "willful" disregard for the safety of other people, including other
B. Yield sign drivers and pedestrians?
C. Directional signs A. All of these
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B. Reckless driving B. Intersection
C. Irresponsible driving C. Crossing
D. Danger driving D. Crosswalk

82. Safety campaigns are usually carried on through the: 93. The actual legal owner of a motor vehicle, in whose name
A. Local Government Units such vehicle is duly registered with the LTO.
B. Mass Media A. Owner
C. Land Transportation Office B. Proprietor
D. PNP Traffic Management Bureau C. All of these
D. Operator
83. The government agency having the primary responsibility of
enforcing the R.A. 4136 is the: 94. The construction of an alternate route or road ease traffic in
A. DOTC a particular area addresses the problem on:
B. LTO A. Human errors
C. LTFRB B. Poor control measures
D. Both B and C C. Physical inadequacy
D. Poor maintenance
84. Traffic offenses such as mechanical violations and most
nondangerous moving violations do not usually carry the same 95. Pedestrian refers to people who are travelling along the
stigma and penalties as serious criminal offenses. These violations Trafficway by walking. The term originated from the Latin word
are called “pedester” which literally means:
A. Misdemeanors A. To travel
B. Offenses B. Foot traveler
C. Felonies C. Mountaineer
D. Infractions D. On foot

85. Traveling too fast for conditions or in excess of the posted 96. All public roads are called:
speed limits is commonly called: A. Roadway
A. Reckless driving B. Highway
B. Above the speed limit C. Public road
C. Over the speed limit D. Public Trafficway
D. Speeding
97. These are the general practices and procedures that road
86. A road that interconnects cities and municipalities are users are required to follow.
classified to as: A. Traffic Law
A. City road or highway B. Traffic Regulations
B. Municipal road or highway C. Traffic Rules
C. National Road or highway D. Right of Way Rules
D. Provincial Road or highway
98. What is the act of driving in which the driver anticipates the
87. Roads that interconnect provinces are maintained by: errors of others?
A. DPWH A. Offensive driver
B. Provincial government B. Preventive driver
C. City government C. Reactive driver
D. Municipal government D. Defensive driver

88. The summons and/or citation issued by police officers to 99. The conducting of fact-finding activities, surveys, and
motorists and other road users who fail to obey traffic laws are recommendations of traffic rules and regulations is a function of
normally called: A. Traffic Enforcement
A. None of these B. Traffic Engineering
B. Traffic tickets C. Traffic Environment
C. Temporary operator’s permit D. Traffic Education
D. Traffic citation
100. The ongoing drivers’ seminar for public utility vehicle is part
89. What is the Land Transportation Code of the Philippines? of:
A. R.A. 4613 A. Traffic Enforcement
B. R.A. 4316 B. Traffic Engineering
C. R.A. 6143 C. Traffic Environment
D. R.A. 4136 D. Traffic Education

90. Personalized plate numbers are also called: FIRE TECHNOLOGY AND ARSON INVESTIGATION
A. Vanity plate numbers
B. Diplomatic plate numbers 1. Which causes the greatest number of fire?
C. Individualized plate numbers A. spontaneous combustion
D. Paid Plate numbers B. leaking gas pipes
C. electrical wiring
91. The word “traffic” is believed to have originated from the D. smoking and matches
French word “Trafic” from old French “trafique,” and or from
Italian word “traffic” or “trafficare.” (Italian). These ancient words 2. Which of the following doe NOT fall under class A fires?
mean the following, except: A. none of these
A. to trade B. exploding gas depot
B. commerce C. burning nipa hut
C. to move D. forest fire
D. carry on trade
3. Which of the following best illustrate arson?
92. What is the point where two roads or streets cross one A. simultaneous fire
another? B. unexplained explosion
A. None of these C. faulty electric wiring
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D. thick relish smoke C. flash over
D. combustion
4. There is an increased quantity of carbon monoxide produced
when fuel is burned in limited supply of oxygen 15. The use of one or more electrical appliances or devices which
because___________ draw or consumes electrical current beyond the designed capacity
A. carbon reacts with carbon monoxide of the existing electrical system.
B. carbon reacts with carbon dioxide A. self-closing door
C. carbon monoxide is an effective reducing agent B. overloading
D. greater oxidation takes place C. jumper
D. oxidizing material
5. Why water is prohibited to quench class D fires?
A. burning metals are too hot 16. An enclosed vertical space of passage that extends from floor
B. water is not capable of extinguishing the fire to floor as well as from the base to the top of the building A.
C. there is the danger of electrocution sprinkler system
D. explosion may occur B. flash point
C. vertical shaft
6. Mechanical device strategically located in an installation or D. standpipe system
street where fire hose is connected so that water with pressure
will be available to extinguish fire. 17. A wall designed to prevent the spread of fire, having a fire
A. fire hose box resistance rating of not less than four hours with sufficient
B. hose reel structural stability to remain standing even if construction on
C. fire truck either side collapses under fire condition.
D. fire hydrant A. firewood
B. fire wall
7. Which of the following is considered as the most effective fixed C. post wall
installation for controlling fire which will discharge water into D. fire trap
incipient fire from heads located near the ceiling? A. fire hydrant
B. automatic water sprinkler 18. If a high wind has an extinguishing effect on a fire, the most
C. standpipe probable extinguishing method is:
D. fire extinguisher A. smothering
B. cooling
8. These are fires which are caused by flammable liquids like C. fuel removal
kerosene, gasoline, alcohol, etc D. dilution
A. class D
B. class C 19. In cutting a roof to ventilate, the fire fighter should
C. class A avoid___________
D. class B A. cutting a very large hole
B. cutting several small holes
9. When firemen are working at the nozzle of a hose they usually C. cutting roof boards near the beam
lean forward on the hose. What is the most likely reason for D. making opening over the fire
taking this position?
A. the stream is projected farther 20. Which of these statement is TRUE?
B. the surrounding air is cool making the firemen comfortable C. A. radiation is heat transfer through combustion
a backward force is developed which must be counter B. radiation is heat transfer through solid materials
acted C. radiation is heat transfer through air motion
D. the firemen can see better where the stream strikes D. radiation is heat transfer by electromagnetic waves

10. What is the most common excuse by a fire prober when no 21. What is the upper section of an extension ladder?
evidence is found? A. top
A. lack of witnesses’ B. butt
B. no evidence C. fly
C. electrical wiring D. Extension
D. no determination
22. What is a normally open device installed inside an air duct
11. The vehicle is the “extension” of the owner’s house. Is the system which automatically closes to restrict the passage of
intentional burning of a car by another constitute arson? A. no smoke or fire?
B. yes A. fire exit
C. it depends B. damper
D. sometimes C. fire trap
D. fire alarm
12. If arson is only the means of killing the victim, the crime that
you have to file is: 23. What is the material which produces and liberates its own
A. arson with murder oxygen when heated?
B. arson A. radiation
C. murder B. oxidizing agent
D. murder with arson C. conductor
D. vapor
13. What is the most common motive in burning cars?
A. household grabbles 24. What is a vertical panel of non-combustible or fire resistant
B. political ideology material attached to and extending below the bottom chord of
C. financial difficulties roof trusses to divide the underside of the roof into separate
D. concealment of fire compartments so that heat and smoke will be heated upwards to
a roof vent?
14. Which of the following occur when a room is heated enough A. fire door
that flame sweep over the entire surface? B. electric arc
A. oxidation C. fire trap
B. back draft D. curtain board
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25. Which of the following is a strong oxidizing organic compound A. evaporating point
which releases oxygen readily? B. ignition point
A. organic peroxide C. boiling point
B. blasting agent D. flash point
C. corrosive liquid
D. combustible fiber 37. Which of the following is “prima facie” existence of arson?
A. inflammable substance found in the premises
26. What is the enclosed space of passage that extends from floor B. simultaneous fire in more than one part of the building
to floor as well as from the base to the top of the building A. C. building insurance
vertical shaft D. any of these
B. sprinkler system
C. standpipe 38. Fire can leapfrog across wide malls and shopping centers
D. flash point through electromagnetic waves. This heat transfer is A.
conduction
27. What is known as the fire code of the Philippines B. radiation
A. Presidential Decree No 448 C. combustion
B. Presidential Decree No 1184 D. convection
C. Presidential Decree No 421
D. Presidential Decree No 1185 39. What is the instrument used to open and close a fire hydrant?
A. hydrant key
28. A fire hydrant should be carefully opened when in use in order B. fire hose
to: C. key board
A. reduce vibration of the hydrant D. jumper
B. ensure that the drip valve is all the way closed
C. prevent water hammer 40. If fire occurs in a flow of liquefied petroleum gas storagetank
D. close the coupling and the flew cannot be checked, the safest practice is to A. use
foam to put off the fire
29. What is a piece of metal or an electrical conductor used to B. permit the fire to born itself
bypass a fety device in an electrical system? C. use fog to extinguish the fire
A. magnet D. use sand to smother the flame
B. jumper
C. brace 41. How many percent of air is needed to sustain combustion?
D. wire A.20
B.10
30. This phase of fire operations is equivalent to the C.30
“reconnaissance” phase of military operation? D.15
A. salvage
B. overhaul 42. What equipment is made of trussed or solid beam where
C. protection of exposure rungs are connected horizontally to the beam forming ascent or
D. size-up descent?
A. rope
31. Conduction of heat transfer through: B. ladder
A. solid materials C. hydrant
B. smoke D. nozzle
C. electromagnetic waves
D. air motion 43. Conduction is heat transfer through
A. electromagnetic waves -radiation
32. What would smoke emanating from a building indicate? B. air motion
A. presence of humid substance C. smoke
B. flying ash D. solid materials
C. presence of phosphorus
D. presence of nitrates 44. What are the cross numbers between the beam and used in
climbing the ladder called?
33. The most common motive of arson is A. hangar
A. jealousy B. rungs
B. spite C. beams
C. profit D. braces
D. revenge
45. What is the constant temperature at which the vapor pressure
34. What is the process of raising the temperature to separate the of the liquid is equal to the atmospheric pressure? A. vapor
non-volatile from the less volatile parts and then cooling and density
condensing the resulting vapor so as to produce a nearly purified B. boiling point
substance? C. fire point
A. combustion D. vapor pressure
B. distillation
C. evaporation 46. It is the heat transfer through solid materials such as beam,
D. condensation metal conduit and ducts.
A. conduction
35. Light is transferred by light rays through the method of B. combustion
A. conduction C. radiation
B. convection D. convection
C. oxidation
D. radiation 47. What is an act which removes or neutralizes a fire hazard?
A. distillation
36. What is the minimum temperature at which any material gives B. abatement
off vapor in sufficient concentration to form lenitable mixture with C. allotment
air? D. combustion
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48. The ration of the weight of a solid or liquid substance to the B.compressed gas
weight of an equal volume of water. C.liquefied gas
A. vapor density D. nuclear gas
B. molecular weight
C. specific gravity 60. Before attacking a fire in a closed building, it is necessary to
D. vapor pressure determine whether ventilating is necessary and, if so, the method
to ventilate. Which is of LEAST value in making such decision?
49. What kind of toxicological analysis are routinely carried out A.observing density of smoke through windows
for fire deaths? B.observing the points at which smoke may be oozing out from
A. drug test the building
B. body organ fluids C.feeling walls and roofs for hot spots
C. carbon monoxide and alcohol D.observing the color of the flame
D. neuro-psychiatric exam
61. To cut a hole in the concrete floor for a cellar type, the cutting
50. During a conflagration, the smoke emitted is grayish, what operation should start.
does it indicate? A. At the thickest point of the concrete flooring
A. presence of nitrate B.In the center of the concrete flooring between the floor beams
B. indicate humid substance C.close to the floor beams
C. loosely packed substance such as straw and hay D.none of these
D. presence of phosphorus
62. What is a material that easily yields oxygen in quantities
51. What should be proven for the crime of arson to exist? sufficient to stimulate or support combustion?
A.none of these A.smoke
B.establishment of corpus delict B.oxidizing material
C.identify of the perpetrator C. carbon
D.malicious intent of the perpetrator D. ember

52. The transfer of heat from one material to another by direct 63. Passage way from one building to another or through or
contact is called around a wall in appropriately the same floor level A.smelting
A.ignition point B.vestibule
B.conduction -solid C. fulminate
C.convection -liquid D. horizontal exit
D.radiation -electromagnetic waves
64. The lowest section of an extension ladder is known as
53. What is the measure of the degree of thermal agitation of A.heel
molecules B.bed ladder
A.ignition point C.butt
B.flash point D.fly ladder
C.temperature
D.boiling point 65. Which of the following restrict the spread of fire to the point
origin or atleast to the area involved?
54. The cause of the majority of fire death is A.extinguishment
A.infection B.confinement
B.burns C. suppression
C. shock D. control
D. asphyxiation
66. The techniques used in clearing a building of smoke and with
55. Aware of the common modus operandi of arson cases on our the use of smoke ejector is called as what?
midst, which of the following facilities should you check? A.smoke ejector
A.electric switch system B.horizonta ventilation
B.all of these C. forced ventilation
C. gift wrapped packages D. vertical
D. telephones
67. If a high wind has an extinguishing effect on a fire, the most
56. In a combustion process, which event comes first? probable extinguishing method is:
A.fire point A.smothering
B.ignition temperature B.cooling
C.none of these C.fuel removal
D.flash point D.dilution

68. Which of the following occur when a room is heated enough

57. What should the firefighter do what ventilating a peaked roof? that flame sweep over the entire surface?
A.make opening at right angel to ridge pool A.oxidation
B.make opening on ridge pole on windward side of the roof B.back draft
C.dip off roof covering on lead side and cut sheathing C.flash over
D.make opening on windward side of the roof peak D.combustion

58. What moves rapidly by convection and can spread laterally 69. What is a material that easily yields oxygen in quantities
along the cufling? sufficient to stimulate or support combustion?
A. heat A. smoke
B.fire B. oxidizing material
C.smoke C.carbon
D.temperature D.ember

59. What kind of gas exists solely in the gaseous state pressure 70. What moves rapidly by convection and can spread laterally
and at normal atmospheric temperature inside its container? along the cufling?
A.cryogenic gas A. heat
B. fire
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C. smoke D. smoking and matches
D. temperature
82. Why water is prohibited to quench class D fires?
71. In a combustion process, which event comes first? A. burning metals are too hot
A. fire point B. water is not capable of extinguishing the fire
B. ignition temperature C. there is the danger of electrocution
C. none of these D. explosion may occur
D. flash point
83. Burning is the result of rapid combination of oxygen with
72. What is the measure of the degree of thermal agitation of combustible substance. The French chemist who proved this in
molecules 1777 was –
A. ignition point A. Antoine Lavoisier
B. flash point B. John Walker
C. temperature C. Thomas Alva Edison
D. boiling point D. Gabriel Daniel Fahrenheit

73. The transfer of heat from one material to another by direct 84. What are the two primary methods of starting fire?
contact is called A. Electrical & Mechanical
A. ignition point B. Friction and explosion
B. conduction C. Percussion & Friction
C. convection D. Rubbing & Sparking
D.radiation
85. The relationship of the three essential elements of fire is
74. The ration of the weight of a solid or liquid substance to the illustrated by the –
weight of an equal volume of water. A. fireball
A. vapor density B. fire triangle
B. molecular weight C. fire tetrahedron
C. specific gravity D. quadrangle of fire
D. vapor pressure
86. What chemical reaction involves combining 2 light nuclei
75. It is the heat transfer through solid materials such as beam, causing the development of a very strong energy? A. Nuclear
metal conduit and ducts. fission
A. conduction B. Nuclear fusion
B. combustion C. Exothermic reaction
C. radiation D. Detonation
D. convection
87. What chemical reaction specifically takes place the moment
76. What is the constant temperature at which the vapor pressure the spilled gasoline ignites?
of the liquid is equal to the atmospheric pressure? A. vapor A. Explosion
density B. Fusion
B. boiling point C. Exothermic reaction
C. fire point D. Detonation
D. vapor pressure
88. Classification of fires based on cause or origin are providential
77.How many percent of air is needed to sustain combustion? fires, accidental fires and –
A. 20 A. commercial fires
B.10 B. intentional fires
C. 30 C. fires for profit
D. 15 D. destructive fires

78. Fire can leapfrog across wide malls and shopping centers 89. A hot piece of lump remains after solid fuel has partially
through electromagnetic waves. This heat transfer is A. burned and is still rapidly oxidizing without the manifestation of
conduction flame. This is called –
B. radiation A. ember
C. combustion B. glowing substance
D. convection C. smoldering material
D. all of the above
79. Which of these refers to the study of the sources, behavior,
and measurement of heat? 90. The following are advisable techniques of extinguishing Class
A. Fire chemistry B fire, except –
B. Fire investigation A. shutting the fuel supply
C. Fire technology B. pouring water over the burning liquid
D. Thermodynamics C. exclusion of air
D. cooling the liquid
80. A wall designed to prevent the spread of fire, having a fire
resistance rating of not less than four hours with sufficient 91. What substance is commercially produced purposely to put
structural stability to remain standing even if construction on out fire?
either side collapses under fire condition. A. Carbon dioxide
A. firewood B. Extinguishing liquid
B. fire wall C. Free radicals
C. post wall D. Extinguishing agent
D. fire trap
92. The Building Code of the Philippine or act of 1977 is:
81. Which causes the greatest number of fire? A. PD 1096
A. spontaneous combustion B. RA 9514
B. leaking gas pipes C. PD 1185
C. electrical wiring D. RA 9263
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93. This Act shall be known as the "Revised Fire Code of the the so called Golden Triangle where 80% of illicit drugs of the
Philippines of 2008". world originate. This lies on the borders of:
A. PD 1096 A. Thailand –Laos –Burma
B. RA 9514 B. Iran –Afghanistan – Pakistan
C. PD 1185 C. Thailand – Laos- Myanmar
D. RA 9263 D. Peru- Columbia- Bolivia

94. What should be proven for the crime of arson to exist? Note: Myanmar is formerly known as Burma
A. none of these 4. A type of Drugs according to pharmacological classification
B. establishment of corpus delicti which often relives pain and induces sleep.
C. identify of the perpetrator A. Hallucinogens
D. malicious intent of the perpetrator B. Stimulants
C. Sedatives/Depressant
95. The cause of the majority of fire death is D. Narcotics
A. infection
B. burns 5. Which among the following is one of the most abuse
C. shock hallucinogenic drugs in the Philippines that contains active
D. asphyxiation components known as Tethrahydro-cannabinol?
A. Mescaline
96. Aware of the common modus operandi of arson cases on our B. LSD (Lysergic Acid Diethylamine)
midst, which of the following facilities should you check? A. C. Marijuana
electric switch system D. Ecstasy (methylenedioxymethamphetamine)
B. all of these
C. gift wrapped packages 6. One of the most abuse hallucinogenic drugs in the Philippines
D. telephones that contain active components known as Tethrahydro
cannabinol?
97. What kind of gas exists solely in the gaseous state pressure A. Mescaline
and at normal atmospheric temperature inside its container? A. B. Marijuana
cryogenic gas C. LSD
B. compressed gas D. Ecstasy
C. liquefied gas
D. nuclear gas 7. The term "Ecstasy" is used for a group of "designer" drugs
closely related in chemical form to the amphetamine family of
98. Before attacking a fire in a closed building, it is necessary to illicit drugs. Its scientific name is:
determine whether ventilating is necessary and, if so, the method A. Methamphetamine Hydrochloride
to ventilate. Which is of LEAST value in making such decision? A. B. Methylenedioxymethamphetamine
observing density of smoke through windows C. Papaver somniferum
B. observing the points at which smoke may be oozing out from D. Cannabis sativa
the building
C. feeling walls and roofs for hot spots 8. A laboratory examination is only required to apprehend
D. observing the color of the flame offender within 24 hours if the person arrested has: 1. Visible
manifestation that suspect was under the influence of drugs
99.Which of the following restrict the spread of fire to the point 2. Physical sign of drug abuse
origin or atleast to the area involved? 3. Psychological manifestation of drug addiction
A. extinguishment 4. Symptoms of Drug abuse
B. confinement
C. suppression A. 1, 2 and 3
D. control B. 2, 3 and 4
C. 1, 2 and 4
100. The use of one or more electrical appliances or devices D. 1, 2, 3 and
which draw or consumes electrical current beyond the designed
capacity of the existing electrical system. 9. Known as the “Father of Medicine”. He prescribed opium poppy
A.self closing door juice in surgery which was cultivated by the Sumerians during
B.overloading 7000 BC.
C.jumper A. Hippocrates
D.oxidizing material B. Confucius
C. Morpheus
D. Socrates
DRUG EDUCATION AND VICE CONTROL
10. Chinese Emperor who prohibited the trading of opium in China
1. What drug classification are solvents, paints and gasoline which by the British Indies that leads to the Opium War of 1840. A. Lao
are examples of substances that are sniffed to obtain intoxication Tzu
fall? B. Yung Chen
A. Depressants C. Sun Tzu
B. Energizers D. Mao Zedong
C. Tranquilizers
D. Inhalants 11. Considered as the most powerful natural stimulant.
A. Tetrahydrocannabinnol
2. Operation of drug syndicates are usually made secretly that B. Methamphetamine Hydrochloride
makes it detection quite difficult. Various techniques were made C. Cocaine hydrochloride
by its operator in concealing their activities D. Methylenedioxymethamphetamine
A. Hide –out operation
B. Clandestine Operation 12. Considered by the Assyrians as a “Sacred Tree” planted by the
C. Disguised operation Incas of Peru. It is considered as the world’s oldest cultivated
D. Confidential plant which is the source of dangerous drug. A. Papaver
3. Considered to be one of the prime suppliers of Heroin in Asia is Somniferum
Amici Review Center Page 25
B. Coca Plant 23. Kinds of drug that excite the central nervous system,
C. Cannabis Sativa increasing alertness, decreasing fatigue and delaying sleep. A.
D. Ephedrine Narcotic
B. Shabu
13. Most popular plants as a source of dangerous drugs, except: C. Hallucinogen
A. Indian hemp D. Stimulant
B. Coca bush
C. Opium poppy 24. Which of the following is not one of the means of the taking
D. Ephedra methamphetamine hydrochloride?
A. Chasing the dragon
14. Which of the following drug trafficking organization which B. Smoking
furnishes drugs to the users? C. Snorting
A. Core organization D. Oral
B. Cartel
C. Secondary organization 25. Marijuana plant can easily be identified by:
D. Local organization A. Its stalk that grows up to 12 feet
B. Its pungent scent when matured or fully grown. C. Its branches
15. Known as the “Big Four Drugs” trafficked in the global drug which occur at opposite points on the stalk D. Its finger-like
market. leaves broken into leaflets whose edges are serrated in
I. Heroin and Cocaine shape.
II. Shabu and Ecstasy
III. Marijuana and Methamphetamine 26. Drug addicts when under the influence of drugs are menace
to the community because they:
A. I and II A. Are violently insane
B. II and III B. Flagrantly immoral
C. I and III C. Ruin their life/health
D. I, II and III D. Feel no restraint in committing crimes.

16. What drugs that produce sensations such as distortions of 27. Which of the following is the commonly known as the “Poor
time, space, sound, color and other bizarre effects? A. Opiates man’s cocaine”.
B. Narcotics A. Amphetamine
C. Heroine B. Methamphetamine
D. Hallucinogens C. Ecstasy
D. Shabu
17. Injection, inhalation, ingestion or other means, of dangerous
drug to the body by one person to another is . A. Drug use 28. This drug is representative of a broad class of stimulants
B. Taking known as “pep pills”. It is usually prescribed to reduce appetite
C. Administer and to relieve minor cases of mental depression.
D. Addict A. Amphetamine
B. Methamphetamine
18. Diego is a drug addict. Realizing that drug use will bring him C. Ecstasy
else where he ceased from using it. Diego’s act is called: A. D. Shabu
Abstinence
B. Self-medicatio 29. White crystalline powder with very bitter numbering taste and
C. Rehabilitation said to be one of the strongest derivatives of Opium poppy. A.
D. Dependence Morphine
B. Codeine
19. Selling, distributing, supplying or transporting of legitimately C. Heroin
imported, in-transit, manufactured or procured controlled D. Cocaine
precursors and essential chemicals, by the manufacturer of
medicine to the drug trafficker is called: 30. It is any immoral conduct or habit, the indulgence of which
A. Drug trafficking leads to depravity, wickedness and corruption of the minds and
B. Chemical diversion body.
C. Sale A. Prostitution
D. Chemical smuggling B. Drug addiction
C. Gambling
20. Facility used for the illegal manufacture of dangerous drugs is D. Vice
called
A. drug den 31. Cocaine is from South America; ivory white heroin is from
B. laboratory equipment ____
C. drug laboratory A. The Golden Crescent
D. clandestine laboratory B. Hong Kong
C. The Golden Triangle
21. Drug trafficking, according to Comprehensive Drug Act of D. Silver Triangle
2002, except:
A. Cultivation, culture and delivery 32. What will be the disposition in a case where minor is convicted
B. Administration, dispensation, manufacture, sale and trading C. for the possession of dangerous drugs?
Use, consumption, addiction and tolerance D. A. Judgment will be suspended
Transportation, distribution, importation, exportation and B. Sentence will be suspended
possession C. Turn-over to DSWD
D. None of the above
22. What are the symptoms of the use of amphetamines?
A. Sensation of distorted time, space, sound, color B. 33. A person found guilty of use of dangerous drugs for the first
False perceptions of objects and experiences time shall be punished with:
C. Loss of appetite, anxiety and irritability A. Imprisonment of 6 years and one day to 12 years B.
D. Excitement, alertness and wakefulness Rehabilitation of a minimum period of 6 months
D. Loss of appetite, anxiety and irritability
Amici Review Center Page 26
C. Rehabilitation for 6 months to 18 months B. Barangay
D. Imprisonment of at least 6 months C. Family
D. School
34. Marijuana has been one of the most abuse hallucinogens in
the Philippines and its control becomes difficult according to some 44. Percentage of alcohol blood which indicates that the person is
authorities due to the fact that under the influence of the liquor (alcohol)?
A. It is easy to smoke it secretly A. 0.05
B. It is easy to cultivate B. 1.5
C. It is sellable in the market C. 0.15
D. It is in demand D. 0.50

35. Drugs that affects sensation, thinking and self-awareness and 45. What group of drugs is used medically as pain killers?
emotion: A. opiates
A. Hallucinogens B. shabu
B. Stimulant C. track
C. Sedatives/Depressant D. coke
D. Narcotics
46. The source/s of most analgesic narcotic is/are: 1. Opium 2.
36. Drugs that is commonly used by athletes having the Morphine 3. Cocaine 4. Heroine 5. Ephedrine 6. Cannabis
properties of increasing stamina and/or energy
A. Ecstasy A. 1, 2 and 3
B. MDMA B. 1, 2 and 4
C. Shabu C. 3, 4 and 5
D. Anabolic Steroid D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6

37. They serve as permanent consultant of the Dangerous Drug 47. Which of the factors below is perceived to be the major cause
Board of initial drug abuse?
A. Secretary of DILG and Secretary of Justice A. poor environment
B. NBI Director and PNP Director General B. domestic violence
C. PDEA Director General and PNP, Chief C. experimental thrill
D. PNP Director and PDEA Directo D. peer pressure

38. A form of physical dependence, severe craving for the drug 48. If cocaine is a stimulant, what is LSD?
even to the point of interfering with the person’s ability to function A. solvent
normally. B. hallucinogen
A. Tolerance C. narcotic
B. Habituatio D. depressant
C. Addiction
D. Psychological Dependence 49. It is a chemical substance used as medicine or in the making
of medicines, which affects the body and mind and have potential
39. Removal of toxic substances from the body as a result of for abuse.
abusing drugs: A. drug
A. Cleansing process B. pusher
B. Abstinence C. chemical
C. Aversion treatment D. manufacture
D. Detoxification
50. It is the production, preparation, compounding or processing
40. A dangerous drug which predominant legitimate use as a a dangerous drug either directly or indirectly or by extraction from
veterinary anesthetic. substances of natural origin or by chemical synthesis. A. drug
A. Ketamine B. pusher
B. Anesthesia C. chemical
C. Codeine D. manufacture
D. Sleeping pills
51. This is any substance taken into the body that alters the way
41. Also known as Papaver Somniferum and considered as the and the mind and the body work.
mother drugs of other narcotics substance. A. drug
A. Codeine B. pusher
B. Morphine C. chemical
C. Heroin D. manufacture
D. Opium Poppy
52. It is the person who sell, administer, deliver or give away to
42. The following shall undergo Mandatory Drug Testing another, distribute or transport any dangerous drug. A. drug
according to R.A. 9165, EXCEPT. B. pusher
A. Officers and Employee of public and private offices. B. C. chemical
Applicant for firearms license and for permit to carry firearms D. manufacture
outside residence.
C. Officers and Members of the Military, police and other law 53. It is an instance when the use of chemical has produced
enforcement agencies. negative or harmful consequences.
D. All persons charged before the prosecutor’s office with a A. drug dependence
criminal offense having an imposable penalty of not less than six B. physical dependence
(6) years and one (1) day. C. psychological dependence
D. chemical abuse
43. The prevention of drug addiction is primarily a responsibility
of what institution so as to prevent its members from being hook 54. This an attachment to drug use that arises from a drug ability
to addiction? to satisfy some emotional or personality needs of an individual. A.
A. Church drug dependence
B. physical dependence
Amici Review Center Page 27
C. psychological dependence D. maximal dose
D. chemical abuse
65. It is street slang for cocaine.
55. It refers to the state of psychic or physical dependence or A. cold turkey
both on dangerous drugs following the administration or use of B. coke
that drug. WHO defines it as the periodic, continuous, repeated C. overdose
administration of a drug. D. high
A. drug dependence
B. physical dependence 66. A death occurs because the part of the brain that controls
C. psychological dependence breathing becomes paralyzed.
D. chemical abuse A. cold turkey
B. coke
56. It is an adaptive state caused by repeated drug use that C. overdose
reveals itself by development of intense physical symptoms when D. high
the drug is stopped (withdrawal syndrome).
A. drug dependence 67. It is the withdrawal effect that occurs after a repeated opiate
B. physical dependence use.
C. psychological dependence A. cold turkey
D. chemical abuse B. coke
C. overdose
57. This refers to illegally used drugs or dangerous drugs, which D. high
are either prohibited or regulated drugs. It also refers to drugs
that produces sleep or stupor and relieves pain due to its 68. This is called when a person is under the influence of drugs.
depressant effect on the CNS. A. cold turkey
A. drug abuse B. coke
B. narcotic drug C. overdose
C. drug addiction D. high
D. tolerance
69. Accurate ______ cannot be performed by any ordinary
58. _______ is the increasing dosage of drugs to maintain the chemist since detection of dangerous drugs requires sophisticated
same effect in the body. equipment and apparatus, special chemical reagents and most of
A. drug abuse all, the specialized technical know-how
B. narcotic drug A. personality disorder
C. drug addiction B. social disorder
D. tolerance C. psychiatric evaluation
D. laboratory examination
59. ______ refers to the state of periodic or chronic intoxication
produced by the repeated consumption of a drug. A. drug abuse 70. Drug abuse is a manifestation of an underlying character
B. narcotic drug of______ Thus majority of the drug users are fundamentally
C. drug addiction immature, emotionally childish, and insecure or are suffering from
D. tolerance problems of adolescence.
A. personality disorder
60. This is the illegal, wrongful or improper use of any drug. B. social disorder
A. drug abuse C. psychiatric evaluation
B. narcotic drug D. laboratory examination
C. drug addiction
D. tolerance 71. It is a process whereby a team of professionals composed of
psychiatrists, psychologists, and psychiatric social workers
61. It is a network of illegal drug operations operated and conduct an examination to determine whether or not a patient is
manned carefully by groups of criminals who knowingly traffic suffering from psychiatric disorder.
through nefarious trade for personal or group profit. A. personality disorder
A. drug experimenter B. social disorder
B. drug syndicate C. psychiatric evaluation
C. minimal dose D. laboratory examination
D. maximal dose
72. A sign or symptom of family problem involving parent – child
62. _______ amount needed to treat or heal, that is, the smallest relationship, peer pressures, unethical values.
amount of a drug that will produce a therapeutic A. personality disorder
A. drug experimenter B. social disorder
B. drug syndicate C. psychiatric evaluation
C. minimal dose D. laboratory examination
D. maximal dose
73. ______ are those, whose activities revolve almost entirely
63. It is the one who illegally, wrongfully, or improperly uses any around the drug experience and securing supplies. They show
narcotic substances for reasons of curiosity, peer pressure, or strong psychological dependence on the drug.
other similar reasons. A. Situational users
A. drug experimenter B. Spree users
B. drug syndicate C. Hardcore addicts
C. minimal dose D. Hippies
D. maximal dose
74. ______ are those who use drugs to keep them awake or for
64. _______ largest amount of a drug that will produce a desired additional energy to perform an important work. Such individual
therapeutic effect, without any accompanying may or may not exhibit psychological dependence. A. situational
A. drug experimenter users
B. drug syndicate B. spree users
C. minimal dose C. hardcore addicts
D. hippies
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75. This are the school age users who take drugs for “kicks’, an A. codeine
adventurous daring experience, or as a means of fun. There may B. paregoric
be some degree of psychological dependence but little physical C. barbiturates
dependence due to the mixed pattern of use. D. seconal
A. situational users
B. spree users 85. It is derived from a poppy plant – Papaver somniferum
C. hardcore addicts popularly known as “gum”, “gamot”, “kalamay” or “panocha”. A.
D. hippies opium
B. narcotics
76. ______ are those who are addicted to drugs believing that C. tranquilizers
drug is an integral part of life. D. alcohol
A. situational user
B. spree users 86. ______ are drugs that calm and relax and diminish anxiety.
C. hardcore addicts They are used in the treatment of nervous states and some
D. hippie mental disorders without producing sleep.
A. opium
77. This test is to measure the readiness with which the individual B. narcotics
increases his knowledge and improves skills when given the C. tranquilizers
necessary opportunity and training. D. alcohol
A. intelligence test
B. personality test 87. This is the king of all drugs with potential for abuse. Most
C. aptitude test widely used, socially accepted and most extensively legalized drug
D. interest test throughout the world
A. opium
78. This type of test is used to evaluate the character and B. narcotics
personality traits of an individual such as his emotional C. tranquilizers
adjustment, interpersonal relation, motivation and attitude. A. D. alcohol
intelligence test
B. personality test 88._______, also known as opioids, are some of the oldest
C. aptitude test substances known to humankind.
D. interest test A. opium
B. narcotics
79. This test is designed to cover a wide variety of mental C. tranquilizers
functions with special emphasis on adjustment comprehension D. alcohol
and reasoning.
A. intelligence test 89. This are gaseous substances popularly known to abusers as
B. personality test “gas”, “teardrops”.
C. aptitude test A. morphine
D. interest test B. heroin
C. volatile solvents
80. This is designed to reveal the field of interest that a client will D. demerol and methadone
be interested in.
A. intelligence test 90. This are common synthetic drugs with morphine – like effects.
B. personality test _____ is widely used as a painkiller in childbirth while ______ is
C. aptitude test the drug of choice in the withdrawal treatment of heroin
D. interest test dependents since it relieves the physical craving for heroin.
A. morphine
81. It is a derivative of morphine, commonly available in cough B. heroin
preparations. These cough medicines have been widely abused C. volatile solvents
by the young whenever hard narcotics are difficult to obtain. D. demerol and methadone
Withdrawal symptoms are less severe than other drugs.
A. codeine 91. _______ exerts action characterized by analgesia, drowsiness,
B. paregoric mood changes, and mental clouding.
C. barbiturates A. morphine
D. seconal B. heroin
C. volatile solvents
82. This are drugs used for inducing sleep in persons plagued with D. demerol and methadone
anxiety, mental stress, and insomnia. They are also of value in
the treatment of epilepsy and hypertension. They are available in 92. ______ is three to five times more powerful than morphine
capsules, pills or tablets, and taken orally or injected. from which it is derived and the most addicting opium derivative.
A. codeine A. morphine
B. paregoric B. heroin
C. barbiturates C. volatile solvents
D. seconal D. demerol and methadone

83. This are commonly used among hospitality girls. Sudden 93. It is chemically known as methamphetamine.
withdrawal from these drugs is even more dangerous than opiate A. caffeine
withdrawal. The dependent develops generalized convulsions and B. shabu
delirium, which are frequently associated with heart and C. nicotine
respiratory failure. D. marijuana
A. codeine
B. paregoric 94. It is is a greenish-gray mixture of the dried flowers of
C. barbiturate Cannabis sativa.
D. seconal A. caffeine
B. shabu
84. It is a tincture of opium in combination with camphor. C. nicotin
Commonly used as a household remedy for diarrhea and D. marijuana
abdominal pain.
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95. It is present in coffee, tea, chocolate, cola drinks, and some specific details of facts have been gathered. The chronological
wake-up pills. order of narrating events should be used in writing the report. a.
A. caffeine Organization
B. shabu b. Specificity
C. nicotine c. Perspective
D. marijuana d. Selection

96. This is an active component in tobacco, which acts as a 5. This is the conformity to facts and representation of truth with
powerful stimulant of the central nervous system. A. caffeine precision and exactness. In writing a report, all facts and
B. shabu information whether favorable or unfavorable to the concerned
C. nicotine subject should be included, and these facts are verified by
D. marijuana statement of witnesses, and by reference to official records or
reliable sources.
97. _______ is derived from the surface part of a small gray a. completeness
brown cactus. It emits a nauseating odor and its user suffers from b. accuracy
nausea. c. clarity
A. peyote d. brevity
B. mescaline
C. STP 6. This refers to the clearness of thought, style, or expression of
D. psilocybin the writer. An effective writer must use correct English, and must
point directly to the written communication to save readers from
98. It is a take-off on the motor oil additive. It is a chemical reading unnecessary words.
derivative of mescaline claimed to produce more violent and a. completeness
longer effects than mescaline dose. b. accuracy
A. peyote c. clarity
B. mescaline d. brevity
C. STP
D. psilocybin 7. This has something to do with the quality or state of being
brief and concise, with the quality or terseness, and lack or
99. This hallucinogenic alkaloid from small Mexican mushrooms wordiness.
are used by Mexican Indians today. These mushrooms induced a. completeness
nausea, muscular relaxation, mood changes with visions of bright b. accuracy
colors and shapes, and other hallucinations. c. clarity
A. peyote d. brevity
B. mescaline
C. STP 8. It refers to having all the necessary normal part, components,
D. psilocybin and style of writing in its entirety. In writing a complete report
the elements of the crime should established and the additional
100. It is the alkaloid hallucinogen extracted from the peyote facts should prove those elements.
cactus and can also be synthesized in the laboratory. It produces a. completeness
less nausea than peyote and shows effects resembling those of b. accuracy
LSD although milder in nature. c. clarity
A. peyote d. brevity
B. mescaline
C. STP 9. This is an objective statement of the findings of the
D. psilocybin investigator, an official record of the information that is relevant
to an investigation.
a. Record
TECHNICAL ENGLISH 1 and 2 b. Report
c. Memorandum
1. This relates to the gathered data in connection with how the d. SOP
writer presents these in his report. It is vital since this will affect
the investigator’s decision on the facts and information that he 10. Having this in writing is having or exhibiting a disposition that
will include. is free of favoritism, bias, impartiality, self interest, or preference
a. Organization in judgment.
b. Specificity a. Exactness
c. Perspective b. Subjective
d. Selection c. Elimination
2. It is the quality of writing pertaining to being explicitly define d. Fairness
and specific rather than general. A good writer must be precise
and specific in writing his or her report, and should avoid ideas 11. According to the Philippine National Police investigative
that mislead the readers. manual, these are the types of report writers, except: a. The
a. Organization writers who think first and write afterwards b. The writers who
b. Specificity don’t write at all
c. Perspective c. The writers who write and think at the same time d. The
d. Selection writers who write without thinking
3. This refers to the point of view from which the investigator
presents the findings of his report based from gathered 12. These are written reports referring to information on the
evidences. For maintaining the objectivity of the report, the third status of the activity or operation within a unit or organization. a.
person point of view should be used; the writer should refer Problem solution reports
himself or herself as the ‘investigator” or “the police officer”. b. Fact-finding reports
a. Organization c. Performance reports
b. Specificity d. Problem determining reports
c. Perspective
d. Selection 13. These are written reports identifying the existence and
4. It is the process of how a report is put together after the causes of certain problems. Examples of these are case reports
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on Causes of Juvenile Delinquency, Causes of Drug Addiction, and d. Formal report
causes of Human Trafficking.
a. Problem solution reports 23. This is a verbal or written report done within twenty four
b. Fact-finding reports hours after an important incident. This report is written to inform
c. Performance reports an immediate chief or those in higher position of particular
d. Problem determining reports occurrences in his command responsibility
a. Spot report
14. These are written reports on the methods of logical gathering b. Basic report
and presentation of data. Examples of these reports about facts c. Special report
and figures of terrorism, Drug trafficking, Human Trafficking, etc. d. Formal report
a. Problem solution reports
b. Fact-finding reports 24. Using the notice on wanted person, this report is about those
c. Performance reports persons who are by the police.
d. Problem determining reports a. Beat Inspection report
b. Arrest report
15. These are written reports identifying the processes and c. Wanted person report
solution of certain problems. Examples of these are case studies d. Crime report
on preventive measures against juvenile Delinquency, Drug
Addiction and Human Trafficking. 25. This is one of the widely practiced written forms of
a. Problem solution reports communication in a station. This is a routine report because the
b. Fact-finding reports duty beat supervisor submits this report daily.
c. Performance reports a. Beat Inspection report
d. Problem determining reports b. Arrest report
c. Wanted person report
16. These are written reports dealing with technical and d. Crime report
specialized subjects.
a. Technical reports 26. This is a report that documents all the events in arresting a
b. Summary reports suspect including personal information, jail bookings, information
c. Internal business reports about control and release of prisoners, and court proceedings.
d. Operational reports This report is based on information received, ensuring probable
cause for warrant/ warrantless arrest.
17. These are written reports on financial, personnel, purchase, a. Beat Inspection report
equipment, property maintenance, and general correspondence b. Arrest report
which are important in the agency or organization’s management. c. Wanted person report
a. Technical reports d. Crime report
b. Summary reports
c. Internal business reports 27. These are reports written after the conclusion from
d. Operational reports preliminary investigation that a crime truly happened. This report
also includes important factors like corpus delicti (elements of the
18. These are written reports about police incidents, crime), suspect descriptions, properties taken, evidences
investigations, arrests, identification of persons, and other collected, property damages, victims’ injuries, and suspects’
miscellaneous reports for routine operations of police modus operandi.
organization. a. Beat Inspection report
a. Technical reports b. Arrest report
b. Summary reports c. Wanted person report
c. Internal business reports d. Crime report
d. Operational reports
28. This report is written by the officer who investigates the
19. These are reports that are furnished for the necessity of the accident. This type of report documents all the facts and
solution of crime accident, and other police administrative related information about any vehicular accident whether it is fatal or
problems, non-fatal.
a. Technical reports a. Progress report
b. Summary reports b. Final report
c. Internal business reports c. Traffic accident report
d. Operational reports d. Advance report

20. These are reports that cover all the exact and exhaustive 29. This is an advance information on a new or fresh case an
narration of facts. These reports are classified as Initial or investigator; the data in this report is not yet complete, but it is
Advance, progress or Follow-up, and Final or Closing Reports. a. written and immediately submitted after the preliminary
Spot report investigation of the case.
b. Basic report a. Progress report
c. Special report b. Final report
d. Formal report c. Traffic accident report
d. Advance report
21. These are reports that are mostly related with ordinary,
miscellaneous incidents, usually in letter or memorandum form. a. 30. This is a written narration of facts developed by the
Spot report investigator in the course of the follow-up investigation. This is a
b. Basic report report on subsequent details which are very vital to the case but
c. Special report have not been incorporated in the initial report.
d. Formal report a. Progress report
b. Final report
22. This is written by a police unit or office based from a directive c. Traffic accident report
or instruction from higher police officers. This type of report d. Advance report
follows the memorandum format of correspondence. a. Spot
report 31. A complete written narration of facts based from a thorough
b. Basic report investigation of the case. This is a result of evaluation,
c. Special report
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summation, and analysis of all facts and circumstances of the twenty-four hours.
case, and the complete accumulate and collection of data. a. a. Crime report
Progress report b. Situation report
b. Final report c. Spot report
c. Traffic accident report d. Wanted Person report
d. Advance report
41. Police officer Juan arrested a suspect. What should he make
32. This is the part indicating the summary of the result of the to document all the events in arresting a suspect? a. Situation
whole investigation process. The summary should be supported report
by facts basing from the order of statement of allegations. b. Wanted person report
a. Matters investigated c. Spot report
b. Facts of the case d. Arrest report
c. Discussion
d. Conclusion 42. Traffic Officer Gerry responded to a non-fatal vehicular
accident. What report shall be made?
33. This part is the coherent presentation of all the important a. Arrest report
facts supported by evidences involving the whole investigation. b. Traffic Accident report
a. Matters investigated c. Situation report
b. Facts of the case d. Accident report
c. Discussion
d. Conclusion 43. PCPL Dela Fuente is an investigator who is investigating a
particular case. He shall write an _________________ that will
34. This part is where the investigator writes the purpose of his provide permanent official record of the pertinent information
report by generally stating what the investigation is all about. procured during the course of investigation.
Included in this part are the complaints, and the allegations of a. Investigation report
committed crimes. b. Arrest report
a. Matters investigated c. Wanted person report
b. Facts of the case d. Crime report
c. Discussion
d. Conclusion 44. Ricky is a wanted person. In order for the public to know that
he is wanted, what report shall be made by the police? a. Beat
35. This is the part indicating all the factual information related to inspection report
the investigation. The investigator discusses all the circumstances b. Situation report
to give the reader a clear picture of the whole investigation in c. Special Report
order to establish the conclusion and recommendation of the d. Wanted Person report
report.
a. Matters investigated 45. A logbook that contains the daily registry of all crime incident
b. Facts of the case reports, official summaries of arrests, and other significant events
c. Discussion reported in a police station. (PNP Manual revised 2010)
d. Conclusion a. Manual
b. Police Blotter
36. This is the first step of writing the investigation report where c. Record
the investigator determines his purposes and objectives in writing d. Reports
the report. He the gathers the facts and circumstances related to
the case. 46. Defined as a daily record of events within the territories of a
a. Initial preparation police unit, it contains daily material concerning events for legal
b. Final organization of the collected data and statistical purposes. (PNP Circular No.5) a. Manual
c. Preparation of the first draft b. Police Blotter
d. Rewriting and polishing the report c. Record
d. Reports
37. Just like the second step, the first draft should also follow the
chronological order or presentation. The draft should be based 47. It is a document containing facts related to a legal
from the outline and should be presented in a clear manner with proceeding. The person who makes the declaration affixes his or
the use of appropriate transitions to maintain the coherent flow her signature in a separate endorsement paragraph at the end of
of ideas. the document with a statement that the declaration is made under
a. Initial preparation oath.
b. Final organization of the collected data a. Oath
c. Preparation of the first draft b. Affidavit
d. Rewriting and polishing the report c. Sworn statement
d. Complaint
38. This is the step where the investigator will recheck, edit, and
review the rough draft to check the errors, and goes on rewriting 48. These are types of verified, formal sworn statement of fact
to improve the whole report. signed by an affiant or author, and witnessed by a notary public.
a. Initial preparation This can be used as evidence in court proceedings. a. Oath
b. Final organization of the collected data b. Affidavit
c. Preparation of the first draft c. Sworn statement
d. Rewriting and polishing the report d. Complaint

39. Using chronological order, all the gathered facts, and 49. A clause in an affidavit certifying the oath and the date made
evidences, related to the case should be sequentially presented. a. by the affiant.
Initial preparation a. Commencement
b. Final organization of the collected data c. b. Individual averments
Preparation of the first draft c. Attestation
d. Rewriting and polishing the report d. Statement of truth
40. When an incident happens, this report must be made within

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50. This is a statement verifying that what is stated is true under use of an office symbol.
oath. a. Letterhead
a. Commencement b. Addressee
b. Individual averments c. Heading
c. Attestation d. Attention
d. Statement of truth
60. This is placed below the subject indicating when the
51. These are separate claims that are numbered as mandated memorandum is written.
by law; a. Subject
a. Commencement b. Date
b. Individual averments c. Body
c. Attestation d. Complimentary ending
d. Statement of truth
61. This is written two spaces below the sender and two spaces
52. The part of affidavit which this identifies the affiant. a. to the right colon. It contains no more than ten words. a.
Commencement Subject
b. Individual averments b. Date
c. Attestation c. Body
d. Statement of truth d. Complimentary ending

53. A complainant executed this when he no longer wishes to 62. This is the originator’s name found 5 spaces below the last
pursue a case against an accused or defendant in a court case. paragraph of the body of the message.
The complainant states that he/she didn’t really intend to institute a. Subject
the case and he/she no longer interested in testifying or b. Date
prosecuting. c. Body
a. Affidavit of witness d. Complimentary ending
b. Affidavit of arrest
c. Affidavit of desistance 63. This is the message of the memorandum. it is double spaced
d. Affidavit of complaint when the message is less that nine lines.
a. Subject
54. This is a statement given under oath and penalty under b. Date
perjury. This states about facts and circumstances about the c. Body
arrest, the information which led to the arrest and the observation d. Complimentary ending
made before and after the arrest. This is filled out by the arresting
officer. 64. Also termed as MC in government offices, these have
a. Affidavit of witness subjects that explain or classify rules for subordinates to comply.
b. Affidavit of arrest a. Office orders
c. Affidavit of desistance b. Office circular
d. Affidavit of complaint c. Memorandum circular
d. Circulars
55. An affidavit which contains the following: the name of the
accused, the designation of the offense by the statute, the acts 65. These are administrative instructions requiring compliance
or omissions complained of as constituting the offense, the name from personnel or office dealing with subjects like delegation of
of the general offended party, the approximate time of the authority, appointment or assignment of personnel. a. Office
commission of the offense, and the place wherein the offense was orders
committed. b. Office circulars
a. Affidavit of witness c. Memorandum circular
b. Affidavit of arrest d. Circulars
c. Affidavit of desistance
d. Affidavit of complaint 66. Generally, these are issuances coming from Department of
Interior and Local Government (DILG) to the PNP, these are
56. This is a legal and binding document of written testimony of a administrative instructions that are directive, advisory, and
witness as a way for evidence to be presented to the court. It is delegation of authority, and instructions or regulations to be
usually filled out by a lawyer, and then filed as part of the case. implemented.
a. Affidavit of witness a. Office orders
b. Affidavit of arrest b. Office circular
c. Affidavit of desistance c. Memorandum circular
d. Affidavit of complaint d. Circulars

57. The part of memorandum which contains the date, subject, 67. These are administrative instructions that are regularly and
thru channels and addressee. mandatory. This order is mainly for the regulation of
a. Letterhead administrative matters in the National Headquarters, Regional,
b. Addressee Provincial, and District Offices. These orders usually deal with
c. Heading suspects like personal conduct requiring compliance.
d. Attention a. Office orders
b. Office circular
58. The part where the words “MEMORANDUM FOR” is used if c. Memorandum circular
sends to a superior office or “MEMORANDUM TO” if sends to a d. Circulars
subordinate.
a. Letterhead 68. These are directives signed by the Chief Directorial Staff for
b. Addressee the appointment, transfer, promotion, reduction, relief from duty,
c. Heading separation and leave of absence of personnel. a. Office orders
d. Attention b. Office circular
59. This is mainly for faster dissemination, the memorandum may c. Special orders
be addressed to a specific individual or head of a unit, or by the d. Special operating procedure

Amici Review Center Page 33

69. This is about instructions to be followed on a routinary basis following standards, except:
concerning regular procedures, the chief of the director directs a. Assure good reports, set up good recording standards so that
this. all will know what is expected of them
a. Office orders b. Set up a system of spot-checking to ensure that corrections
b. Office circular are being made to assure uniformity
c. Special orders c. Protect the reputation of the department and its offices d.
d. Special operating procedure None of the above

79. This is the basic numbering system which the entire major
70. This refers to the verified, confirmed, evaluated, and files are identified with.
analyzed reports. These are the end products of the investigation, a. Identification number
and the submission of reports done by the investigator. a. b. Arrest report number
Record c. Decimal system
b. Report d. Case report number
c. Memorandum
d. SOP 80. This is the number issued to arrested and booked persons
who committed criminal offenses or traffic violations. However,
71. This is written in three (3) copies together with the booking this is not issued to persons who commit minor offenses, or those
sheet. These copies are to be forwarded to: Central record unit who just go to the station to post bond.
(original copy), Fiscal or Clerk of Court (second copy), and Fiscal a. Identification number
or Clerk of Court with the complaint or other supporting b. Arrest report number
document (third copy). c. Decimal system
a. Case record d. Case report number
b. Arrest record
c. Identification records 81. This is the control number assigned by the dispatchers for all
d. Miscellaneous records police reports like traffic accidents, crimes, and non-criminal
situations.
72. These are records consisting of complaints or assignment a. Identification number
sheets which are considered as document source for analyzing b. Arrest report number
crimes. These are the foundation record of any police c. Decimal system
department, and written by the desk officer who makes the d. Case report number
complaint or assignment sheet.
a. Case records 82. This is the number issued by those assigned in the arrest and
b. Arrest record personal identification service detail. This number is given once to
c. Identification records an arrested person when he is fingerprinted and photographed.
d. Miscellaneous records a. Identification number
b. Arrest report number
73. These are records that are not necessarily related to any c. Decimal system
complaints d. Case report number
a. Case record
b. Arrest record 83. Infanticide and Parricide cases shall be counted as
c. Identification records ____________ case.
d. Miscellaneous records a. Infanticide and parricide
b. Murder
74. These are records of fingerprint identification which is done in c. Homicide
two (2) copies. The first copy is filed in the central record of the d. Killing
police station, and the second copy is forwarded to the
headquarters of the National Bureau of Investigation. 84. Attempted and Frustrated homicide cases which result to
a. Case record injuries to the victim(s) are counted as ___________ cases. a.
b. Arrest record Physical injury
c. Identification records b. Frustrated homicide
d. Miscellaneous records c. Attempted homicide
d. Homicide
75. The other term for investigative report is: a.
Basic report 85. Only consummated robbery cases and robbery in band are to
b. Informal report be counted.
c. Formal report a. True
d. Special report b. False
c. Yes
76. Basic report is also known as informal report. The statement d. No
is true.
a. True 86. To ensure that a consistent crime recording standard is
b. False maintained within the PNP, each unit shall appoint
c. Yes a____________.
d. No a. Registrar
b. Resources
77. Police records pertain to all written materials such as books, c. Crime registrar
papers, maps, photographs, documentaries, that in ways are d. Human resources
written or received by any law enforcement agency that serve its
legal purposes (Agsalda, 2007). It is essential that agency should 87. The following are suggested strategies that a writer must
have a clear knowledge on how to manage them properly. adhere in writing a
a. Police personnel management report, except:
b. Police records management a. Check and re-check first whether notes on gathered facts are
c. Police personnel and records management d. All of already
the above complete and organized.
78. The records supervisory personnel need to adhere to the
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b. If notes on gathered facts are sufficient, go back into crime rule
the process b. Serious crime rule
of gathering more facts related to the situation. c. Grave crime rule
c. Make an outline of the report basing from the completely d. All of the above
gathered facts.
d. Use the chronological order of writing in presenting facts and 98. In addition to actual physical injury cases, incidents
ideas in perpetrated by/or involving insurgents/terrorists which resulted to
the written report. the wounding of the victim(s) must not be counted. a. True
b. False
88. Qualities of a Good report, except: c. Yes
a. Fairness d. No
b. Brevity
c. Clarity 99. Suicide shall not be counted as crime.
d. None of the above a. True
b. False
c. Yes
89. Report writers are greatly expected to be in grammar and all d. No
its governing rules
a. well-groomed 100.Infractions involving violations of provincial/city/municipal
b. well informed and barangay ordinances shall not be counted.
c. well-versed a. True
d. well-mannered b. False
c. Yes
90. There are writers who write without: d. No
a. considering
b. reconstructing
c. thinking INTRODUCTION TO CYBERCRIME AND ENVIRONMENTAL
d. writing LAWS AND PROTECTION

91. Beat Inspection Reports are also called Before Patrol Reports. 1. It is also called as computer crime.
a. True A. cyberspace
b. False B. cybercrime
c. Yes C. cybercriminal
d. No D. none of the above

92. In counting of crime incidents, only consummated, and not, 2. _______ is a type of fraud that involves the use of some form
statutory rapes shall be included. of telecommunications or the internet.
a. True A. Wire fraud
b. False B. ATM fraud
c. Maybe C. Internet Fraud
d. No D. Hacking

93. Only consummated carnapping cases are to be recorded. 3. _______ are individuals or teams of people who use technology
a. True to commit malicious activities on digital systems or networks with
b. False the intention of stealing sensitive company information or
c. Maybe personal data, and generating profit.
d. No A. Service Providers
B. Cyber
94. You can use the term ___________ as substitute to the term C. Criminals
Initial Report. D. Cybercriminals
a. Advance Report
b. Progress Report 4. This occurs when someone uses another person's personal
c. Final Report identifying information, like their name, identifying number, or
d. None of the above credit card number, without their permission, to commit fraud or
other crimes.
95. Below are the examples of miscellaneous records, except: A. Internet Fraud
a. Records from the Immigration Commission b. Records of City, B. ATM Fraud
Municipal, and Barangay Officials c. Records of Organizations like C. Identity theft and invasion of privacy
Unions, Cooperatives, Social Groups and Religious Sectors. D. Wire Fraud
d. None of the above
5. Computer viruses is the gaining of unauthorized access to data
96. As a general rule, all crime incidents, whether reported by the in a system or computer.
victims, witnesses or third parties must be recorded in the police A. true
blotter, even under the following circumstances, except: a. when B. false
the offender is ill and is unlikely to recover or is too senile or too C. yes
mentally disturbed for proceedings to take place. b. When the D. no
complainant or an essential witness is dead and the proceedings
cannot be pursued. 6. This sneaky virus disguises itself in the coding of links, ads,
c. When the victim or an essential witness refuse, or is images, videos, and site code. It can infect systems when users
permanently unable to stand as a witness download malicious files or visit malicious websites. A. Overwrite
d. The victims or complainants or witnesses are of legal Virus
age B. Network Virus
97. For compound and complex crimes, only the most serious C. Web Scripting Virus
offense should be counted. This is known as the: a. Principal D. Boot Sector Virus

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7. The most common way email gets hacked are through phishing deteriorating, altering or suppressing computer data or program,
schemes. electronic document, or electronic data message, without right or
A. true authority, including the introduction or transmission of viruses. A.
B. false Illegal Interception
C. yes B. Illegal Access
D. no C. Data Interference
D. System Interference
8. It is the access to the whole or any part of a computer system
without right. 17. It is described as a fraudulent activity where the criminal uses
A. Illegal Interception the ATM card of another person to withdraw money instantly from
B. Illegal Access that account
C. Data Interference A. Wire fraud
D. System Interference B. ATM fraud
C. Internet Fraud
9. It is the willful engagement, maintenance, control, or D. Hacking
operation, directly or indirectly, of any lascivious exhibition of
sexual organs or sexual activity, with the aid of a computer 18. _______ is the gaining of unauthorized access to data in a
system, for favor or consideration. system or computer.
A. Hacking A. Wire fraud
B. Libel B. ATM fraud
C. Child Pornography C. Internet Fraud
D. Cybersex D. Hacking

10. ______ is a branch of criminology that involves the study of 19. _______ overwrite file content to infect entire folders, files,
harms and crimes against the environment broadly conceived, and programs.
including the study of environmental law and policy, the study of A. Overwrite Virus
corporate crimes against the environment, and environmental B. Network Virus
justice from a criminological perspective. C. Web Scripting Virus
A. Criminology D. Boot Sector Virus
B. Environmental Criminology
C. Green criminology 20. This computer virus hides out in a file on a USB drive or email
D. none of the above attachment
A. Overwrite Virus
11. A burial ground shall at least be ______ distant from any B. Network Virus
dwelling house and no house shall be constructed within the same C. Web Scripting Virus
distance from any burial ground. D. Boot Sector Virus
A. 25 meters
B. 30 meters 21. This computer virus travels through network connections and
C. 35 meters replicate themselves through shared resources.
D. 40 meters A. Overwrite Virus
B. Network Virus
12 Is it unlawful for any person to bury remains in places other C. Web Scripting Virus
than those legally authorized? D. Boot Sector Virus
A. true
B. false 22. _______ spread by performing unauthorized actions on your
C. yes operating system, folders, and programs.
D. no A. Browser hijacker
B. File Infector
13. The integrity of traffic data and subscriber information relating C. Multipartite virus
to communication services provided by a service provider shall be D. Network Virus
preserved for a minimum period of ______ from the date of the
transaction. 23. This virus type infects your browser and redirects you to
A. five (5) months malicious websites.
B. six (6) months A. Browser hijacker
C. seven (7) months B. File Infector
D. eight (8) months C. Multipartite virus
D. Network Virus
14. It is the intentional or reckless alteration, damaging, deletion
or deterioration of computer data, electronic document, or 24. This computer virus slow down programs and damage system
electronic data message, without right, including the introduction files when a user runs them.
or transmission of viruses. A. Browser hijacker
A. Illegal Interception B. File Infector
B. Illegal Access C. Multipartite virus
C. Data Interference D. Network Virus
D. System Interference
25. It is an unlawful or prohibited acts defined and punishable by
15. It is the interception made by technical means without right Republic Act No. 9775.
of any non-public transmission of computer data to, from, or A. Cybersex
within a computer system including electromagnetic emissions B. Unsolicited Commercial Communications
from a computer system carrying such computer data. C. Child Pornography
A. Illegal Interception D. none of the above
B. Illegal Access
C. Data Interference 26. The transmission of commercial electronic communication
D. System Interference with the use of computer system which seek to advertise, sell, or
offer for sale products and services are prohibited. A. Cybersex
16. It is the intentional alteration or reckless hindering or B. Unsolicited Commercial Communications
interference with the functioning of a computer or computer C. Child Pornography
network by inputting, transmitting, damaging, deleting,
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D. none of the above 37. When the cause of death is a dangerous communicable
disease, the remains shall be buried within ______ after death. A.
27. It is the unlawful or prohibited acts of libel as defined in 12 seconds
Article 355 of the Revised Penal Code, as amended, committed B. 12 minutes
through a computer system or any other similar means which C. 12 hours
may be devised in the future. D. 12 days
A. Cybersex
B. Unsolicited Commercial Communications 38. Cutting, Gathering and/or Collecting Timber, or Other Forest
C. Child Pornography Products without license is a criminal offense.
D. none of the above A. true
B. false
28. When did cybercrime begin? C. yes
A. 1960 D. no
B. 1970
c. 1980 39. Tree criminology is a branch of criminology that involves the
d. 1990 study of harms and crimes against the environment broadly
conceived, including the study of environmental law and policy,
29. This refers to the virtual computer world, and more the study of corporate crimes against the environment, and
specifically, an electronic medium that is used to facilitate online environmental justice from a criminological perspective.
communication. A. true
A. internet B. false
B. face book C. yes
C. cyberspace D. no
D. none of the above
40. ______ crime is a highly profitable and rapidly expanding area
30. _______ are people who specialize in attacks on the of international criminal activity.
telephone system. A. Cyber
A. phreakers B. Illegal
B. wreakers C. Common
C. breakers D. Environmental
D. hackers
41. The term identity theft was coined in _______.
31. ATM fraud occurs when someone uses another person's A. 1962
personal identifying information without permission. A. true B. 1963
B. false C. 1964
C. yes D. 1965
D. no
42. This type of computer virus is sneaky that they can even
32. Fraud is the gaining of unauthorized access to data in a attach themselves to your anti-virus software files. A. Resident
system or computer. Virus
A. true B. Network Virus
B. false C. Web Scripting Virus
C. yes D. Boot Sector Virus
D. no
43. This virus can infect systems when users download malicious
33. It shall be unlawful for any person to bury remains in places files or visit malicious websites.
other than those legally authorized. A. Resident Virus
A. true B. Network Virus
B. false C. Web Scripting Virus
C. yes D. Boot Sector Virus
D. no
44. Phishing is the most widely used technique because it's
34. No burial ground shall be located within ______ from either simple, affordable, and attacks the weakest link in any security
side of a river or within 50 meters from any source of water system – people.
supply. A. true
A. 20 meters B. false
B. 30 meters C. yes
C. 40 meters D. no
D. 50 meters
45. It is the unauthorized input, alteration, or deletion of
35. Compliance with burial requirements such as death certificate, computer data or program or interference in the functioning of a
proper depth of graves, shipment of remains abroad shall computer system, causing damage thereby with fraudulent
governed by Department of Health. intent. A. Computer-related Forgery
A. true B. Computer-related Fraud
B. false C. Computer-related Identity Theft
C. yes D. none of the above
D. no
46. It is the input, alteration, or deletion of any computer data
36. A burial ground shall at least be 35 meters distant from any without right resulting in inauthentic data with the intent that it
dwelling house and no house shall be constructed within the same be considered or acted upon for legal purposes as if it were
distance from any burial ground. authentic, regardless whether or not the data is directly readable
A. true and intelligible.
B. false A. Computer-related Forgery
C. yes B. Computer-related Fraud
D. no C. Computer-related Identity Theft
D. none of the above
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47. It is the intentional acquisition, use, misuse, transfer, by the local health authority, no unembalmed remains shall
possession, alteration or deletion of identifying information remain unburied longer than 24 hours after death. A. true
belonging to another, whether natural or juridical, without right. B. false
A. Computer-related Forgery C. yes
B. Computer-related Fraud D. no
C. Computer-related Identity Theft
D. none of the above 59. This republic act is also known as the toxic substances and
hazardous waste act.
48. ______ can be defined as a subcategory of online sexual A. R.A. NO. 6967
activity where Internet is used for sexually gratifying activities. A. B. R.A. NO. 6968
Cybersex C. R.A. NO. 6969
B. Unsolicited Commercial Communications D. R.A. NO. 6970
C. Child Pornography
D. none of the above 60. This republic act is also known as the ecological solid waste
management act.
49. Child pornography is a form of child sexual exploitation. A. R.A. NO. 9006
A. true B. R.A. NO. 9005
B. false C. R.A. NO. 9004
C. yes D. R.A. NO. 9003
D. no
61. This republic act is also known as the wildlife conservation and
50. SPAM is also known as? protection act
A. Cybersex A. R.A. NO. 9144
B. Unsolicited Commercial Communications B. R.A. NO. 9145
C. Child Pornography C. R.A. NO. 9146
D. none of the above D. R.A. NO. 9147

51. It is a published false statement that is damaging to a 62. It is also known as the Anti-Child Pornography Act of 2009.
person's reputation. A. Republic Act No. 9774
A. Hacking B. Republic Act No. 9775
B. Libel C. Republic Act No. 9776
C. Child Pornography D. Republic Act No. 9777
D. Cybersex
63. This republic act is also known as the cybercrime prevention
52. This refers to activities that seek to compromise digital act of 2012.
devices, such as computers, smartphones, tablets, and even A. RA 10175
entire networks. B. RA 10176
A. Hacking C. RA 10177
B. Libel D. RA 10178
C. Child Pornography
D. Cybersex 64. P.D. No. 715 is also known as the Revised Forestry Code.
A. true
53. It is also known as the Revised Forestry Code. B. false
A. P.D. No. 703 C. yes
B. P.D. No. 704 D. no
C. P.D. No. 705
D. P.D. No. 706 65. Is the P.D. NO. 856 the code on sanitation of the Philippines?
A. true
54. It is the code on sanitation of the Philippines. B. false
A. P.D. NO. 855 C. yes
B. P.D. NO. 856 D. no
C. P.D. NO. 857
D. P.D. NO. 858 66. Green criminology is a branch of criminology that involves the
study of harms and crimes against the environment broadly
55. Washing clothes or bathing within a radius of 25 meters from conceived, including the study of environmental law and policy,
any well or other source of drinking water is prohibited. A. true the study of corporate crimes against the environment, and
B. false environmental justice from a criminological perspective.
C. yes A. true
D. no B. false
C. yes
56. No radioactive sources or materials shall be stored within a D. no
radius of _______ meters from any well or source of drinking
water unless the radioactive source is adequately and safely 67. A burial ground shall at least be 25 meters distant from any
enclosed by proper shielding. dwelling house and no house shall be constructed within the same
A. 10 meters distance from any burial ground.
B. 15 meters A. true
C. 20 meters B. false
D. 25 meters C. yes
D. no
57. Compliance with burial requirements such as death certificate,
proper depth of graves, shipment of remains abroad shall 68. No artesian, deep or shallow well shall be constructed within
governed by Bureau of Quarantine. ______ from any source of pollution.
A. true A. 10 meters
B. false B. 15 meters
C. yes C. 20 meters
D. no D. 25 meters
58. Except when required by legal investigation or when permitted
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69. Child pornography is not a form of child sexual exploitation. Computer-related Forgery
A. true B. Computer-related Fraud
B. false C. Computer-related Identity Theft
C. yes D. none of the above
D. no
80. The acquisition of a domain name over the internet in bad
70. Is the installation of booster pump to boost water direct from faith to profit, mislead, destroy reputation, and deprive others
the water distribution line of a water supply system, where low from registering the same.
water pressure prevails prohibited? A. Computer-related Forgery
A. true B. Computer-related Fraud
B. false C. Computer-related Identity Theft
C. yes D. none of the above
D. no
81. It is the intentional acquisition, use, misuse, transfer,
71. Breakers are the people who specialize in attacks on the possession, alteration or deletion of identifying information
telephone system. belonging to another, whether natural or juridical, without right.
A. true A. Computer-related Forgery
B. false B. Computer-related Fraud
C. yes C. Computer-related Identity Theft
D. no D. none of the above

72. ______ can infect systems when users download malicious 82. It is a type of malware that hides and stores itself within the
files or visit malicious websites. computer's memory
A. Resident Virus A. Resident Virus
B. Network Virus B. Network Virus
C. Web Scripting Virus C. Web Scripting Virus
D. Boot Sector Virus D. Boot Sector Virus

73. _______ is any criminal activity that involves a computer, 83. It is a type of malware that infects a system's boot partition
networked device or a network. or the Master Boot Record (MBR) of a hard disk
A. cyberspace A. Resident Virus
B. cybercrime B. Network Virus
C. cybercriminal C. Web Scripting Virus
D. none of the above D. Boot Sector Virus

74. A _______ is a malware program that modifies web browser 84. It is a malware that has the capacity to breach web browser
settings without the user's permission and redirects the user to security.
websites the user had not intended to visit. A. Resident Virus
A. Browser hijacker B. Network Virus
B. File Infector C. Web Scripting Virus
C. Multipartite virus D. Boot Sector Virus
D. Network Virus
85. It is also considered as unauthorized access.
75. _______ generally copy their code onto executable programs A. Illegal Interception
such as .com and .exe files. B. Illegal Access
A. Browser hijacker C. Data Interference
B. File Infector D. System Interference
C. Multipartite virus
D. Network Virus 86. It is when committed intentionally, the interception without
right is made. By technical means, of non-public transmission of
76. It is a relatively new type of malware that spreads from computer data to, from, or within a computer system. A. Illegal
computer to computer without having to drop a file-based copy Interception
of itself in any of the affected computers. B. Illegal Access
A. Browser hijacker C. Data Interference
B. File Infector D. System Interference
C. Multipartite virus
D. Network Virus 87. It is a serious hindering without right on the functioning of a
computer system by inputting, transmitting, damaging, deleting,
77. It is a fast-moving virus that uses file infectors or boot deteriorating, altering or suppressing computer data. A. Illegal
infectors to attack the boot sector and executable files Interception
simultaneously. B. Illegal Access
A. Browser hijacker C. Data Interference
B. File Infector D. System Interference
C. Multipartite virus
D. Network Virus 88. It is the intentionally damaging, deleting, deterioration,
alteration, or suppression of computer data without right. A.
78. This includes many online swindles that involves false or Illegal Interception
misleading promises of love and companionship, property, money B. Illegal Access
and wealth, investment fraud, inheritance scams, etc. A. C. Data Interference
Computer-related Forgery D. System Interference
B. Computer-related Fraud
C. Computer-related Identity Theft 89. _______ is stealing from the machine in the ATM by breaking
D. none of the above in.
A. Wire fraud
79. It involves impersonation of legitimate individuals, authorities, B. ATM fraud
agencies, and other entities online for fraudulent purposes. A. C. Internet Fraud
D. Hacking
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90. It is most commonly associated with illegal activity and data theft A. Cybersex
by cyber criminals. B. Unsolicited Commercial Communications
A. Wire fraud C. Child Pornography
B. ATM fraud D. none of the above
C. Internet Fraud
D. Hacking 96. This refers to any content that depicts sexually explicit activities
involving a child.
91. It is a type of fraud that involves the use of some form of A. Cybersex
telecommunications or the internet. B. Unsolicited Commercial Communications
A. Wire fraud C. Child Pornography
B. ATM fraud D. none of the above
C. Internet Fraud
D. Hacking 97. It is a defamation by print, writing, pictures, or signs, as
distinguished from slander, which is defamation by oral expressions or
92. _______ includes any scheme that uses a web site, chat room, transitory gestures.
email account, or all three to defraud a company or individual. A. Wire A. libel
fraud B. phishing
B. ATM fraud C. denial of service attacks
C. Internet Fraud D. direct action
D. Hacking
98. It is an attack meant to shut down a machine or network, making
93. It is the transmission of commercial electronic communication with it inaccessible to its intended users.
the use of computer system which seek to advertise, sell, or offer for A. libel
sale products and services B. phishing
A. Cybersex C. denial of service attacks
B. Unsolicited Commercial Communications D. direct action
C. Child Pornography
D. none of the above 99. This virus targets a specific file type, most commonly executable
files (.exe), by replicating and infecting files. A. libel
94. It is a criminal activity that involves a computer, networked device B. phishing
or a network. C. denial of service attacks
A. Cybersex D. direct action
B. Unsolicited Commercial Communications
C. Child Pornography 100. It is the practice of sending fraudulent communications that
D. none of the above appears to come from a reputable source.
A. libel
95. It is a subcategory of online sexual activity that is distinct from B. phishing
seeking sexual information and/or a romantic relationship online—in C. denial of service attacks
that it involves sexual gratification.