1.

Which is NOT one of the seven parts of TOGAF document?

(A)

ADM Guidelines and Techniques

(B)

Architecture Content Framework

(C)

Architecture Governance

(D)

TOGAF Reference Models

(E)

Architecture Capability Framework

2.

What is Architecture in the Context of TOGAF?

(A)

The fundamental organization of a system, embodied in its components, their relationships to each other and the environment, and the principles governing its design and evolution

(B)

A rigorous description of the structure of an enterprise, which comprises enterprise components (business entities), the externally visible properties of those components, and the relationships (e.g. the behavior) between them

(C)

An architecture is the most important, pervasive, top-level, strategic inventions, decisions, and their associated rationales about the overall structure (i.e., essential elements and their relationships) and associated characteristics and behavior

(D)

Architecture is the use of abstractions and models to simplify and communicate complex structures and processes to improve understanding and forecasting

(E)

A formal description of a system, or a detailed plan of the system at a component level to guide its implementation or the structure of components, their inter-relationships, and the principles and guidelines governing their design and evolution over time

3.

Which of the following according to TOGAF is NOT a reason to use an Enterprise Architecture Framework?

(A)

It will speed up and simplify architecture development

(B)

It will ensure more complete coverage of the designed solution

(C)

It will make certain that the architecture selected allows for future growth in response to the needs of the business

(D)

Its use may be mandated by federal agencies

(E)

It will ensure compliance and protect the interest of stakeholders

4.

Which are the three main categories of architectural work product does Architecture Content Framework specify?

(A)

Architecture Vision, Architecture Requirements Specification and Architecture Roadmap

(B)

Source Architecture, Target Architecture and Gap Analysis

(C)

Architecture Vision, Architecture Design Document and Transition Architecture

(D)

Building Block, Artifact and Deliverable

(E)

Request for Architecture Work, Statement of Architecture Work and Architecture Contract

5.

Which is NOT a part of Architecture Repository?

(A)

The organizationally tailored application of an architecture framework, including a meta-model for architecture content

(B)

The parameters, structures, and processes that support governance of the Architecture Repository

(C)

An architectural view of the building blocks that are in use within the organization today

(D)

A Stakeholder analysis and map

(E)

A record of governance activity across the enterprise

6.

Which of these are NOT the benefits of Architecture Governance?

(A)

Increased visibility supporting internal processes and external parties’ requirements

(B)

Greater shareholder value

(C)

Improved software development productivity

(D)

Protection of the existing asset base through maximizing re-use

(E)

Controlled risk management

7.

Does ADM support iteration?

(A)

Yes, you can only cycle around the ADM

(B)

Yes, you can cycle around all single individual phase

(C)

Yes, you can cycle around any combination of phases

(D)

Yes, you can cycle around ADM, iterate across specific phases or cycle through some of the phases

(E)

No, ADM is not iterative

8.

Which of the following statements about the relation between ADM and Architecture Repository is correct?

(A)

At relevant places throughout the ADM, there are reminders to consider which architecture assets from the Architecture Repository the architect should use

(B)

The practical implementation of the Enterprise Continuum will typically take the form of an Architecture Repository that includes reference architectures, models, and patterns mandated in TOGAF

(C)

In executing the ADM, the architect is only developing a snapshot of the enterprise at particular points in time, and populating the organization’s own Architecture Repository is outside the scope of ADM

(D)

The first execution of the ADM is simplified because of the re-use potential of the standard architecture assets available for re-use in TOGAF Architecture Repository

(E)

Architecture Repository is only accessed in the Requirement Management phase

9.

Which of the following is NOT a valid reason for wanting to tailor ADM for the specific need of the enterprise?

(A)

An important consideration is that the order of the phases in the ADM is to some extent dependent on the maturity of the architecture discipline within the enterprise concerned

(B)

An enterprise may wish to use or tailor the ADM in conjunction with the security best practices in use in the enterprise

(C)

The ADM is one of many corporate processes that make up the corporate governance model for an enterprise

(D)

The ADM is being mandated for use by a prime or lead contractor in an outsourcing situation, and needs to be tailored to achieve a suitable compromise between the contractor’s existing practices and the contracting enterprise’s requirements

(E)

The enterprise is a small-to-medium enterprise, and wishes to use a “cut-down” version of the ADM

10.

Which of the following statements about Enterprise Continuum is NOT correct?

(A)

It is a view of the Architecture Repository that provides methods for classifying architecture and solution artifacts, both internal and external to the Architecture Repository

(B)

It is an important aid to communication and understanding, both within individual enterprises, and between customer enterprises and vendor organizations

(C)

It also represents an aid to organizing re-usable architecture and solution assets

(D)

It is a physical repository of all architecture assets models, patterns, architecture descriptions, and other artifacts produced during application of the ADM

(E)

It represents an aid to communication

11.

Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

(A)

The Architecture Continuum provides a consistent way to describe and understand the implementation of the assets

(B)

A Foundation Architecture supports the complete enterprise operating environment

(C)

Common Systems Architectures guide the creation of an architecture useful for building common solutions across a wide number of relevant domains

(D)

Industry Architectures guide the integration of common systems components with industry specific components

(E)

Organization-Specific Architectures describe and guide the final deployment of user-written or third-party components that constitute effective solutions for particular enterprises

12.

Which of the following is NOT a part of Architecture Repository?

(A)

Architecture Landscape

(B)

Standards Information Base

(C)

Architecture Metamodel

(D)

Architecture Capability

(E)

Compliance Log

13.

What is a Standards Information Base?

(A)

It holds guidelines, templates, patterns

(B)

It holds a set of specifications, to which architectures must conform

(C)

It defines the parameters, structures, and processes that support governance

(D)

It describes the organizationally tailored application of an architecture framework

(E)

It holds view of the building blocks that are in use within the organization today

14.

What of the following statements is NOT correct?

(A)

Enterprise Continuum is a virtual repository where as the Architecture Repository is a physical repository

(B)

Enterprise Continuum can be thought of as a view of the Architecture Repository

(C)

The Architecture Repository defines six classes for architectural information held in the repository

(D)

TOGAF recognizes the need to manage the content of the Enterprise Continuum using tools but does not provide any guidance on tool selection

(E)

The Solutions Continuum is a population of the architecture with reference building blocks – either purchased products or built components – that represent a solution to the enterprise’s business needs

15.

In which phase does the Business Scenarios first get defined?

(A)

Preliminary phase

(B)

Phase A

(C)

Phase B

(D)

Phase C

(E)

Phase D

16.

Which of the following statements about Business Architecture is NOT correct?

(A)

A knowledge of the Business Architecture is a prerequisite for architecture work in any other domain

(B)

Business Architecture is often necessary as a means of demonstrating the business value of subsequent architecture work

(C)

Business Architecture looks at the Enterprise in abstraction and does not look at the relationship between people and process

(D)

Business Architecture should support the agreed Architecture Vision

(E)

Business Architecture should demonstrate how stakeholder concerns are addressed

17.

Which of the following is NOT in the scope of Technology Architecture documentation?

(A)

Fundamental organization of the IT system

(B)

The principles governing its design and evolution IT system

(C)

Hardware, software, and communications technology and their relationships to each other and the environment

(D)

Technical implementation architecture

(E)

Target Technology Architecture that will form the basis of the subsequent implementation and migration planning

18.

Which of the following is NOT an objective of phase F?

(A)

To ensure that the Implementation and Migration Plan is coordinated with the various management frameworks in use within the enterprise

(B)

To prioritize all work packages, projects, and building blocks by assigning business value to each and conducting a cost/benefit analysis

(C)

To finalize the Architecture Vision and Architecture Definition Documents, in line with the agreed implementation approach

(D)

To confirm the Transition Architectures with the relevant stakeholders

(E)

Formulate recommendations for each implementation project

19.

Which of the following is NOT an objective of phase H?

(A)

Assess the performance of the architecture and make recommendations for change

(B)

Mobilize supporting operations that will underpin the future working lifetime of the deployed solution

(C)

Maximize the business value from the architecture and ongoing operations

(D)

Ensure that Baseline Architectures continue to be fit-for-purpose

(E)

Establish an architecture change management process for the new enterprise architecture baseline that is achieved with completion of Phase G

20.

In which phase is an agreement reached on the architecture method to be adopted?

(A)

Preliminary Phase

(B)

Phase A

(C)

Phase B

(D)

Phase E

(E)

Requirement Management Phase

21.

How is the Transition Architecture formulated?

(A)

It emerges through phase B to D and is finalized in phase E

(B)

It is first formulated in phase E and gets refined in phase F and G

(C)

It is formulated in phase E and then split into implementation projects

(D)

Based on the implementation projects selected in phase E, Transition Architectures is arrived at in phase F

(E)

In Phase E major implementation projects grouped into Transition Architectures and they are confirmed with relevant stakeholders in phase F

22.

In which phase is the cost/benefit analysis done?

(A)

Preliminary Phase

(B)

Phase A

(C)

Phase B

(D)

Phase E

(E)

Phase F

23.

How is the Architecture Governance performed?

(A)

It is established in Phase A and operated on Phase F to H

(B)

It is established in Preliminary Phase, refined in Phase A and operated on Phase F to H

(C)

It is established in Phase A and operated on Phase E to G

(D)

It is established in Preliminary Phase and operated on Phase G and H

(E)

It is established in Preliminary Phase and operated on all subsequent phases

24.

Which of the following is NOT an ADM Guideline or Technique?

(A)

Architecture Principles

(B)

Usecase Modeling

(C)

Architecture Patterns

(D)

Interoperability Requirements

(E)

Capability-Based Planning

25.

Which of the following is NOT described by a Business Scenario?

(A)

A business process, application, or set of applications

(B)

The business and technology environment

(C)

The people and computing components who execute the scenario

(D)

The underlying business vision

(E)

The desired outcome of proper execution

26.

Which of the following is NOT the source of a business domain gap?

(A)

People gaps

(B)

Process gaps

(C)

Tools gaps

(D)

Information gaps

(E)

Data relationship gaps

27.

In which phase are the nature and security considerations of information and service exchanges determined?

(A)

Preliminary Phase

(B)

Phase A

(C)

Phase B

(D)

Phase C

(E)

Phase D

28.

In which Phase is the risk identification and mitigation assessment worksheets are maintained as governance artifacts and are kept up-to-date?

(A)

Phase A

(B)

Phase E

(C)

Phase F

(D)

Phase G

(E)

Phase H

29.

Which among the following is a technique for discovering the need for a Capability?

(A)

Gap Analysis

(B)

Architecture Patterns

(C)

Interoperability Requirements

(D)

Business Scenario

(E)

Business Transformation Readiness Assessment

30.

Which of the following is NOT a part of Architecture Governance?

(A)

Implementing a system of controls over the creation and monitoring of all architectural components and activities

(B)

Improving the maturity level of architecture discipline within the organization

(C)

Implementing a system to ensure compliance with internal and external standards and regulatory obligations

(D)

Establishing processes that support effective management of the above processes within agreed parameters

(E)

Developing practices that ensure accountability to a clearly identified stakeholder community

31.

What does the Conceptual Structure of Architecture Governance Framework contain?

(A)

Compliance, Business Control , Monitoring and Reporting

(B)

Process, Content, Monitoring and Reporting

(C)

Process, Content, Repository and Process Flow Control

(D)

Content, Context, Process and Reporting

(E)

Business Control, Content, Monitoring and Reporting

32.

Which of the following is NOT the purpose of Architecture Compliance Review?

(A)

To improve the maturity level of architecture discipline within the organization

(B)

To identify where the standards themselves may require modification

(C)

To identify services that are currently application-specific but might be provided as part of the enterprise infrastructure

(D)

To document strategies for collaboration, resource sharing, and other synergies across multiple architecture teams

(E)

To take advantage of advances in technology

33.

Which of the following is NOT a correct statement about concern?

(A)

Concerns determine the acceptability of the system

(B)

The terms “concern” and “requirement” are synonymous

(C)

Concerns are the root of the process of decomposition into requirements

(D)

Concerns are represented in the architecture by these requirements

(E)

Each stakeholder typically has interests in, or concerns relative to, that system

34.

Which steps among the following is NOT a recommended step to create the required views for a particular architecture?

(A)

Refer to any existing libraries of viewpoints

(B)

Select key stakeholders

(C)

Analyze their requirement and document them

(D)

Select appropriate viewpoints

(E)

Generate views of the system using the selected viewpoints as templates

35.

Which of the following is NOT the characteristic of a good building block?

(A)

It considers implementation and usage, and evolves to exploit technology and standards

(B)

It may be assembled from other building blocks

(C)

It may be a subassembly of other building blocks

(D)

Ideally, a building block is re-usable and replaceable, and well specified with stable interfaces

(E)

It may specify implementation details

36.

What does Architecture Building Blocks do?

(A)

They define how the functionality will be realized through products and components

(B)

They capture architecture requirements

(C)

They define the implementation

(D)

They fulfill business requirements

(E)

They are product or vendor-aware

37.

Which among the following is beyond the scope of governance of Architecture Contract?

(A)

Continuous monitoring to check integrity

(B)

Adherence to the principles and standards

(C)

Facilitate re-usablility

(D)

Identification of risks

(E)

Ensuring accountability, responsibility, and discipline

38.

In which phase is Capability Assessment carried out?

(A)

It is first carried out in Phase A and updated in Phase E

(B)

It is first carried out in Preliminary Phase and updated in Phase A to E

(C)

It is first carried out in Phase A, updated in Phase E and finalized in Phase F

(D)

It is first carried out in Preliminary Phase, updated in Phase A to E and finalized in Phase F

(E)

It is first carried out in Phase A and updated in Phase B to E

39.

What is the TOGAF Technical Reference Model?

(A)

It is a reference model that focuses on the Application Software space

(B)

It is fundamentally an Application Architecture reference model – a model of the application components and application services software essential for an integrated information infrastructure

(C)

It enables each individual department to operate at maximum efficiency was for a long time accepted as the best approach to managing a large enterprise

(D)

It describes a fundamental architecture upon which other, more specific, architectures can be based

(E)

It points to rules and standards to assist in leveraging solutions and products within the value chain

40.

What among the following is NOT a part of the Integrated Information Infrastructure Reference Model taxonomy?

(A)

Information consumer application

(B)

Management utilities

(C)

Brokering application

(D)

Communication infrastructure interface

(E)

Information provider application